ECAT (Practice Test) FLP 14 Free Quiz

Chemis

Comput

Englis

Maths

Physic

ECAT (Practice Test) – FLP 14 consists of 130 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 100 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Chemistry 30 MCQs

1. The smallest particle of an element that can take part in a chemical reaction is called:

A. Molecule B. Atom C. Ion D. Electron

2. The nucleus of an atom contains:

A. Protons and neutrons B. Protons and electrons C. Neutrons and electrons D. Protons only

3. The proton was discovered by:

A. Rutherford B. Chadwick C. J.J. Thomson D. Millikan

4. The mass of an electron is approximately:

A. 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg B. 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg C. 1.0 × 10⁻³⁰ kg D. 9.1 × 10⁻²⁸ kg

5. The gold foil experiment was performed by:

A. Rutherford B. Bohr C. Thomson D. Chadwick

6. The ground state of hydrogen corresponds to n =

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. ∞

7. The shape of an s orbital is:

A. Spherical B. Dumbbell C. Complex D. Double dumbbell

8. The Pauli exclusion principle states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of:

A. Four quantum numbers B. Three quantum numbers C. Two quantum numbers D. One quantum number

9. The azimuthal quantum number l = 2 corresponds to which subshell?

A. d B. s C. p D. f

10. The bond formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms is called:

A. Covalent bond B. Ionic bond C. Metallic bond D. Hydrogen bond

11. The bond in HF is:

A. Polar covalent B. Nonpolar covalent C. Ionic D. Hydrogen

12. The bond length in H₂ is:

A. Shortest among halogens B. Longest C. Equal to F₂ D. None

13. The hybridisation of carbon in ethyne (C₂H₂) is:

A. sp B. sp² C. sp³ D. sp³d

14. The type of bond present in solid sodium is:

A. Metallic B. Ionic C. Covalent D. Hydrogen

15. The number of lone pairs on central atom in XeF₂ is:

A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 0

16. A state in which the rate of forward reaction equals the rate of reverse reaction is called:

A. Chemical equilibrium B. Chemical kinetics C. Thermodynamic equilibrium D. Dynamic equilibrium

17. The equilibrium constant Kc is expressed in terms of:

A. Concentrations B. Pressures C. Mole fractions D. Partial pressures

18. For the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, decreasing pressure will shift equilibrium:

A. Towards reactants B. Towards products C. No shift D. Depends on temperature

19. The pH of a solution is defined as:

A. -log[H⁺] B. log[H⁺] C. -log[OH⁻] D. log[OH⁻]

20. The pH of a buffer solution is determined by the ratio of concentrations of weak acid and its conjugate base. This is given by the:

A. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation B. Nernst equation C. Arrhenius equation D. Van't Hoff equation

21. A buffer solution is most resistant to pH change when the ratio of salt to acid is close to:

A. 1 B. 0.1 C. 10 D. 0

22. For the reaction H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI, Δn = 0, so:

A. Kp = Kc B. Kp > Kc C. Kp < Kc D. No relation

23. An electrochemical cell that uses electrical energy to drive a non-spontaneous reaction is called:

A. Electrolytic cell B. Galvanic cell C. Fuel cell D. Concentration cell

24. The cell potential (EMF) of a galvanic cell is given by:

A. E_cell = E_cathode - E_anode B. E_cell = E_anode - E_cathode C. E_cell = E_anode + E_cathode D. E_cell = E_anode / E_cathode

25. At 25°C, the Nernst equation can be written as:

A. E = E° - (0.0592/n) log Q B. E = E° - (0.0592/n) ln Q C. E = E° + (0.0592/n) log Q D. E = E° - (0.0592/n) Q

26. The overall reaction in a hydrogen fuel cell is:

A. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O B. H₂ + O₂ → H₂O C. 2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂ D. H₂ + O₂ → H₂O₂

27. The oxidation number of hydrogen in most compounds is:

A. +1 B. -1 C. 0 D. +2

28. The electrochemical series arranges elements in order of:

A. Increasing standard reduction potential B. Increasing atomic mass C. Increasing electronegativity D. Increasing atomic size

29. Rusting of iron is accelerated by:

A. Salt (electrolyte) B. Pure water C. Oxygen only D. Nitrogen

30. The number of faradays required to deposit one mole of Cu from Cu²⁺ is:

A. 2 F B. 1 F C. 3 F D. 4 F

Computer Science 30 MCQs

31. IT stands for:

A. Information Technology B. Integrated Technology C. Internet Technology D. Intelligent Technology

32. An operating system is an example of:

A. System software B. Application software C. Firmware D. Hardware

33. Information is defined as:

A. Processed, meaningful data B. Raw facts C. A computer language D. A type of memory

34. Lossless compression means:

A. No data is lost during compression B. Some data is lost C. Encryption D. Data deletion

35. The binary representation of decimal 5 is:

A. 101 B. 100 C. 110 D. 111

36. A router operates at which OSI layer?

A. Network layer (Layer 3) B. Data link layer C. Physical layer D. Transport layer

37. Fifth Normal Form (5NF) addresses:

A. Join dependencies B. Multi-valued dependencies C. Transitive dependencies D. Partial dependencies

38. Which data model uses tables (relations)?

A. Relational model B. Hierarchical model C. Network model D. Object-oriented model

39. The logical NOT operator is written as:

A. ! B. ~ C. not D. &&

40. Which logical operator has the highest precedence?

A. ! B. && C. || D. ==

41. In an if statement, which of the following is considered false?

A. 0 B. 1 C. true D. 5

42. The binary addition of 1 + 1 results in:

A. 10 (2) B. 0 C. 1 D. 11

43. Which of these is the correct way to define a structure in C?

A. struct student { int id; char name[20]; }; B. struct student { int id; char name[20]; } C. structure student { int id; char name[20]; }; D. Both A and B

44. A domain name is:

A. A human-readable name for an IP address B. A type of protocol C. A hardware device D. A file

45. Which is not a web browser?

A. Python B. Firefox C. Chrome D. Safari

46. What is the output of: printf("%f", 10.0/3);

A. 3.333333 B. 3 C. 3.33 D. Error

47. What is the purpose of a firewall in a network?

A. To block unauthorized access B. To speed up data transfer C. To store data D. To connect devices

48. Which input device is commonly used with laptops to control the cursor?

A. Touchpad B. Scanner C. Digital camera D. Barcode reader

49. The process of starting a computer is called:

A. Booting B. Loading C. Executing D. Compiling

50. Which section of a report appears at the top of every page?

A. Page Header B. Report Header C. Detail D. Group Header

51. Which property of a form controls its underlying data source?

A. Record Source B. Control Source C. Default View D. Data Entry

52. What is the purpose of the Record Source in a report?

A. To specify the table or query that provides data B. To set the page layout C. To define the report title D. To create a summary

53. Which peripheral is used for digital art creation?

A. Graphics tablet B. Keyboard C. Mouse D. Scanner

54. What is an absolute cell reference?

A. A reference that remains fixed when copied (e.g., $A$1) B. A reference that changes when copied C. A reference to a named range D. A reference to another worksheet

55. A row in a table is called a:

A. Record B. Field C. Column D. Key

56. Which clause is used to filter groups after GROUP BY?

A. HAVING B. WHERE C. GROUP BY D. ORDER BY

57. Which type of join returns all rows from the left table and matching rows from the right?

A. LEFT JOIN B. INNER JOIN C. RIGHT JOIN D. FULL OUTER JOIN

58. Which normal form eliminates repeating groups?

A. 1NF B. 2NF C. 3NF D. BCNF

59. What is the purpose of the Taskbar in Windows?

A. To show running applications and system tray B. To display the desktop C. To open File Explorer D. To shut down the computer

60. What is the purpose of the "Track Changes" feature?

A. To keep record of edits made to the document B. To spell-check C. To count words D. To change font

English 10 MCQs

61. Which organ is mentioned as being affected by lack of water?

A. Kidneys B. Heart C. Lungs D. Liver

62. The passage suggests that online learning is:

A. Convenient but challenging B. Always easy C. Never effective D. Only for young people

63. Read the passage: "Plastic pollution is a major environmental problem. Millions of tons of plastic waste end up in oceans every year, harming marine life. Plastics take hundreds of years to decompose, releasing harmful chemicals. Solutions include recycling, using biodegradable materials, and reducing single-use plastics." What is the main idea?

A. Plastic waste damages the environment and solutions exist B. Plastic is harmless C. Recycling is useless D. Plastics decompose quickly

64. What is the meaning of "encourage"?

A. Support and motivate B. Discourage C. Ignore D. Criticize

65. What is the author's tone?

A. Balanced and cautionary B. Overly optimistic C. Overly pessimistic D. Indifferent

66. What is the author's attitude?

A. Optimistic and encouraging B. Skeptical C. Critical D. Neutral

67. What is an example of a kind gesture mentioned?

A. A smile or helping hand B. A gift of money C. A large party D. A long speech

68. What should a balanced diet include?

A. Fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins B. Only fruits C. Only meat D. Only processed foods

69. What can obesity and heart disease be prevented by?

A. Reducing sugar, salt, and saturated fats B. Eating more sugar C. Eating more salt D. Eating more fat

70. Read the passage: "Traveling exposes people to new cultures, cuisines, and perspectives. It broadens the mind, reduces stress, and creates lasting memories. Whether domestic or international, travel encourages personal growth and helps people appreciate diversity. Even short trips can have a positive impact on mental health." What is the main idea?

A. Travel has positive effects on personal growth and mental well-being B. Travel is only for the wealthy C. Travel is a waste of time D. Travel causes stress

Maths 30 MCQs

71. What is the product of the roots of x² - 5x + 6 = 0?

A. 6 B. -6 C. 5 D. -5

72. What is the value of e^(ln 7)?

A. 7 B. e C. 1 D. ln 7

73. What is the least common multiple of 4 and 6?

A. 12 B. 24 C. 2 D. 6

74. What is the perimeter of a rectangle with length 8 cm and width 3 cm?

A. 22 cm B. 24 cm C. 20 cm D. 16 cm

75. What is the slope of the line through (-2,1) and (3,6)?

A. 1 B. -1 C. 2 D. 0.5

76. What is the equation of a circle with center (2,3) and radius 4?

A. (x-2)² + (y-3)² = 16 B. (x+2)² + (y+3)² = 16 C. (x-2)² + (y-3)² = 4 D. (x+2)² + (y+3)² = 4

77. What is the area of the triangle with vertices (1,2), (4,2), and (1,5)?

A. 4.5 B. 6 C. 9 D. 3

78. What is the derivative of f(x) = √x?

A. 1/(2√x) B. 2√x C. 1/√x D. √x/2

79. What is the derivative of f(x) = sin(2x)?

A. 2 cos(2x) B. cos(2x) C. -2 sin(2x) D. 2 sin(2x)

80. What is the second derivative of f(x) = x⁵?

A. 20x³ B. 5x⁴ C. 20x⁴ D. 5x⁴

81. What is the derivative of f(x) = x^2 ln x?

A. x(2 ln x + 1) B. x(2 ln x - 1) C. x² ln x D. 2x ln x

82. What is ∫ 1/x dx?

A. ln|x| + C B. 1/x² + C C. ln x + C D. ln|x|

83. Which of the following is not a natural number?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

84. Which symbol denotes "belongs to"?

A. ∈ B. ∉ C. ⊂ D. ⊆

85. What is the value of (2+i)(2-i)?

A. 5 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6

86. What is the absolute value of -3 + 4i?

A. 5 B. 7 C. 1 D. √13

87. What is the argument of 1 + i?

A. 45° B. 135° C. 225° D. 315°

88. What is the next term in the sequence 3,6,12,24?

A. 48 B. 36 C. 72 D. 30

89. What is the common ratio of sequence 1, -2, 4, -8?

A. -2 B. 2 C. -1/2 D. 1/2

90. What is the sum of probabilities of all outcomes in a sample space?

A. 1 B. 0 C. >1 D. <1

91. What is the standard deviation of data 2,3,4,5?

A. √1.25 B. 1 C. 2 D. 1.5

92. What is the probability of drawing a black card from a deck?

A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 26/52 D. Both A and C

93. What is the value of tan 0°?

A. 0 B. 1 C. ∞ D. undefined

94. What is the value of cosec 90°?

A. 1 B. 0 C. ∞ D. 1/2

95. What is the range of tan x?

A. All real numbers B. [-1,1] C. [0,∞) D. (-1,1)

96. What is the value of sec 45°?

A. √2 B. 1/√2 C. 1 D. 0

97. What is a vector quantity?

A. A quantity with both magnitude and direction B. A quantity with only magnitude C. A quantity with only direction D. A scalar

98. What is the vector product of i and j?

A. k B. -k C. 0 D. i

99. What is the area of the parallelogram formed by vectors A=(1,2) and B=(3,4)?

A. |1*4 - 2*3| = |-2| = 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 2

100. What is the cross product of (1,2,0) and (3,4,0)?

A. (0,0,-2) B. (0,0,2) C. (2,0,0) D. (0,2,0)

Physics 30 MCQs

101. The SI unit of electric current is:

A. Ampere B. Volt C. Ohm D. Coulomb

102. In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, the galvanometer current is:

A. Zero B. Maximum C. Half D. Infinite

103. The magnetic field due to a long straight wire at distance r is:

A. B = μ₀ I / (2πr) B. B = μ₀ I / (4πr) C. B = μ₀ I / (πr) D. B = μ₀ I / (2πr²)

104. The time period of revolution of a charged particle in a magnetic field is independent of:

A. Velocity B. Magnetic field C. Charge D. Mass

105. The magnetic force does no work because:

A. It is perpendicular to displacement B. It is parallel to displacement C. It is zero D. It is conservative

106. The force between two point charges is given by:

A. Coulomb's law B. Ohm's law C. Faraday's law D. Lenz's law

107. The SI unit of capacitance is:

A. Farad B. Henry C. Ohm D. Tesla

108. The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately:

A. 9.8 m/s² B. 9.8 m/s C. 9.8 m²/s D. 9.8 km/s²

109. The force of gravity between two objects is attractive and follows:

A. Inverse-square law B. Direct-square law C. Inverse law D. No dependence on distance

110. A satellite in circular orbit experiences a centripetal force provided by:

A. Gravity B. Thrust C. Friction D. Air pressure

111. The zeroth law of thermodynamics is the basis for the measurement of:

A. Temperature B. Heat C. Work D. Pressure

112. A heat engine operates between two reservoirs. Its efficiency is given by:

A. η = 1 - T_c/T_h B. η = T_c/T_h C. η = 1 - T_h/T_c D. η = T_h/T_c

113. The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute zero is:

A. Zero B. Maximum C. Infinite D. Positive

114. The triple point of water occurs at a temperature of:

A. 273.16 K B. 0 °C C. 273.15 K D. 100 °C

115. A heat engine absorbs 1000 J of heat from a hot reservoir and rejects 400 J to cold. The work done is:

A. 600 J B. 400 J C. 1000 J D. 1400 J

116. The coefficient of friction depends on:

A. The nature of the surfaces B. The area of contact C. The speed of sliding D. The weight

117. If the speed of an object is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes:

A. Four times B. Double C. Half D. Same

118. The SI unit of length is:

A. Meter B. Kilometer C. Centimeter D. Millimeter

119. The SI unit of mass is:

A. Kilogram B. Gram C. Pound D. Ounce

120. The formula for time dilation is:

A. t = t₀ / √(1 - v²/c²) B. t = t₀ √(1 - v²/c²) C. t = t₀ (1 - v/c) D. t = t₀ / (1 - v/c)

121. Planck's constant has the value:

A. 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ Js B. 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ eV s C. 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J/Hz D. All of the above

122. Black body radiation was explained by:

A. Planck B. Einstein C. Bohr D. Compton

123. According to Planck's law, the energy of an oscillator is quantized as:

A. E = nhf B. E = hf C. E = mc² D. E = kT

124. The number of revolutions per unit time is called:

A. Frequency (f) B. Period (T) C. Angular velocity D. Speed

125. In a transverse wave, the particle displacement is:

A. Perpendicular to the direction of propagation B. Parallel to the direction C. At 45° D. Circular

126. The spreading of a wave around obstacles is called:

A. Diffraction B. Refraction C. Reflection D. Interference

127. If the force and displacement are opposite in direction, the work done is:

A. Negative B. Positive C. Zero D. Minimum

128. A wire of resistance R is stretched to double its original length while its diameter is halved. What is the new resistance?

A. 2 times B. 4 times C. 6 times D. 8 times

129. A wire of resistance R is stretched to three times its original length. What is the new resistance?

A. 3R B. 6R C. 7R D. 9R

130. A 4Ω, 6Ω, and 10Ω resistor are connected in series to a 40V battery. What is the voltage across the 6Ω resistor?

A. 8V B. 12V C. 16V D. 20V

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