ECAT (Practice Test) FLP 17 Free Quiz

Chemis

Comput

Englis

Maths

Physic

ECAT (Practice Test) – FLP 17 consists of 130 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 100 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Chemistry 30 MCQs

1. The mass of a proton is approximately:

A. 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg B. 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg C. 1.0 × 10⁻³⁰ kg D. 1.67 × 10⁻²⁸ kg

2. Rutherford's gold foil experiment led to the discovery of:

A. Nucleus B. Electron C. Neutron D. Proton

3. The element with atomic number 24 is chromium. Its electron configuration is:

A. [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹ B. [Ar] 3d⁴ 4s² C. [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s² D. [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s¹

4. The Lyman series of hydrogen lies in the:

A. Ultraviolet region B. Visible region C. Infrared region D. Microwave region

5. The wave-particle duality of electrons was experimentally confirmed by:

A. Davisson and Germer B. Thomson C. Rutherford D. Millikan

6. The principal quantum number n = 3 can have how many subshells?

A. 3 (s, p, d) B. 2 (s, p) C. 4 (s, p, d, f) D. 1 (s)

7. Isoelectronic species have the same number of:

A. Electrons B. Protons C. Neutrons D. Nucleons

8. The azimuthal quantum number l = 2 corresponds to which subshell?

A. d B. s C. p D. f

9. The pi (π) bond is formed by:

A. Side-on overlap of p orbitals B. End-on overlap C. Overlap of s orbitals D. Overlap of d orbitals

10. A triple bond consists of:

A. One sigma and two pi bonds B. Two sigma and one pi C. Three sigma D. Three pi

11. The type of bond present in solid sodium is:

A. Metallic B. Ionic C. Covalent D. Hydrogen

12. The reaction quotient Q is used to predict:

A. Direction of reaction B. Equilibrium constant C. Rate of reaction D. Activation energy

13. For a reaction in which ΔH is negative (exothermic), lowering the temperature will:

A. Shift towards products B. Shift towards reactants C. No shift D. Increase K

14. The pOH of a solution is related to pH by:

A. pH + pOH = 14 B. pH - pOH = 14 C. pH × pOH = 14 D. pH / pOH = 14

15. A solution with pH < 7 is:

A. Acidic B. Basic C. Neutral D. Amphoteric

16. A buffer solution resists changes in pH upon addition of small amounts of acid or base. It consists of a:

A. Weak acid and its salt with strong base B. Strong acid and its salt C. Strong base and its salt D. Neutral salt

17. The base dissociation constant Kb is a measure of:

A. Base strength B. Acid strength C. Salt hydrolysis D. pH

18. The pH of a 0.01 M HCl solution is approximately:

A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4

19. The pH of a 0.01 M NaOH solution is approximately:

A. 12 B. 2 C. 10 D. 14

20. A salt of a strong acid and weak base (e.g., ammonium chloride) will hydrolyze to give a solution that is:

A. Acidic B. Basic C. Neutral D. Amphoteric

21. The pH of a buffer solution is determined by the ratio of concentrations of weak acid and its conjugate base. This is given by the:

A. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation B. Nernst equation C. Arrhenius equation D. Van't Hoff equation

22. For the reaction CO(g) + H₂O(g) ⇌ CO₂(g) + H₂(g), ΔH = -41 kJ. Increasing temperature will:

A. Shift towards reactants B. Shift towards products C. No shift D. Increase K

23. For the reaction H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI, Δn = 0, so:

A. Kp = Kc B. Kp > Kc C. Kp < Kc D. No relation

24. The degree of dissociation of a weak acid increases with:

A. Dilution B. Increasing concentration C. Decreasing temperature D. Adding acid

25. The EMF of a lead-acid cell is approximately:

A. 2 V B. 1.5 V C. 1.1 V D. 3.0 V

26. The term "reduction" originally meant:

A. Removal of oxygen B. Gain of electrons C. Loss of electrons D. Addition of hydrogen

27. The cathodic reaction in rusting of iron is:

A. O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻ → 4OH⁻ B. Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ C. Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe D. 4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻

28. In electrolysis of molten NaCl, the products are:

A. Na and Cl₂ B. H₂ and Cl₂ C. NaOH and Cl₂ D. Na and H₂

29. In electrolysis of aqueous NaCl, the product at anode is:

A. Cl₂ B. O₂ C. H₂ D. Na

30. The number of faradays required to deposit one mole of Cu from Cu²⁺ is:

A. 2 F B. 1 F C. 3 F D. 4 F

Computer Science 30 MCQs

31. A primary key is used to:

A. Uniquely identify each record B. Store images C. Sort data D. Delete data

32. Which of the following is an input device?

A. Keyboard B. Monitor C. Printer D. Speaker

33. ASCII stands for:

A. American Standard Code for Information Interchange B. American System for Computer Information C. Advanced Standard Code for Internet D. Automated System for Character Interchange

34. The term "protocol" in communication means:

A. A set of rules for data exchange B. A type of hardware C. A programming language D. A storage device

35. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing?

A. Network layer B. Data link layer C. Physical layer D. Transport layer

36. A relationship in an ER diagram is represented by:

A. A diamond B. A rectangle C. An ellipse D. A line

37. Which of these is a type of attribute in ER model?

A. Simple, composite, derived, multi-valued B. Primary, foreign, candidate C. Integer, string, date D. All of the above

38. The default keyword in a switch statement is used:

A. When no case matches B. As the first case C. To break out D. To continue

39. The increment operator in C is written as:

A. ++ B. -- C. += D. -=

40. Which mode allows both reading and writing?

A. "r+" B. "r" C. "w" D. "a"

41. What is the purpose of the EOF constant?

A. Indicates end of file B. Indicates open error C. Indicates write error D. Indicates read error

42. What does CSS stand for?

A. Cascading Style Sheets B. Computer Style Sheets C. Creative Style Sheets D. Cascading System Sheets

43. Which of the following is an output device?

A. Monitor B. Mouse C. Scanner D. Microphone

44. Which generation of computers used transistors?

A. Second generation B. First generation C. Third generation D. Fourth generation

45. In Access, a column is called a:

A. Field B. Record C. Row D. Cell

46. Which of these statements can be used to exit a nested loop prematurely from the inner loop?

A. break B. continue C. return D. exit

47. Which tool in Access is used to create a form by selecting fields from one or more tables?

A. Form Wizard B. Report Wizard C. Query Wizard D. Table Wizard

48. Which of the following is an output peripheral device?

A. Monitor B. Mouse C. Scanner D. Microphone

49. A scanner is used to:

A. Convert physical documents into digital images B. Print documents C. Display images D. Store data

50. What is a computer virus?

A. A malicious program that replicates and spreads B. A hardware failure C. A type of firewall D. A backup tool

51. Which function is used to calculate the average of a range?

A. AVERAGE B. SUM C. COUNT D. MAX

52. A formula in Excel always starts with:

A. = B. + C. - D. @

53. Which key combination is used to insert a new worksheet in Excel?

A. Shift + F11 B. Ctrl + N C. Ctrl + W D. Alt + I

54. What is a data validation rule in Excel?

A. A rule that restricts the type of data entered in a cell B. A formula that validates data C. A chart type D. A sorting option

55. What does the VLOOKUP function do?

A. Searches for a value in the first column of a table and returns a value from the same row B. Searches for a value anywhere C. Returns the sum of a range D. Counts cells

56. Which normal form eliminates partial dependencies?

A. 2NF B. 1NF C. 3NF D. 4NF

57. The core component of Windows is called:

A. Kernel B. Shell C. File Explorer D. Control Panel

58. Which shortcut keys are used to cut a file in Windows?

A. Ctrl + X B. Ctrl + C C. Ctrl + V D. Ctrl + Z

59. Which feature is used to check spelling and grammar in Word?

A. Spell Check B. Thesaurus C. Grammar Check D. Both A and C

60. What is a paragraph in word processing?

A. A block of text separated by a paragraph mark B. A sentence C. A page D. A section

English 10 MCQs

61. What is the meaning of "boost" as used in the passage?

A. Improve B. Decrease C. Destroy D. Ignore

62. How much water is recommended daily?

A. 2 litres B. 1 litre C. 4 litres D. 5 litres

63. Which organ is mentioned as being affected by lack of water?

A. Kidneys B. Heart C. Lungs D. Liver

64. The word "harmful" means:

A. Causing damage B. Helpful C. Neutral D. Harmless

65. What is a benefit of social media mentioned?

A. Instant global connection B. Isolation C. Reduced sleep D. Anxiety

66. What are examples of renewable energy mentioned?

A. Solar, wind, hydroelectric B. Coal, oil, gas C. Nuclear, geothermal D. Biomass, tidal

67. Which word is closest in meaning to "sustainable"?

A. Maintainable B. Wasteful C. Short-lived D. Expensive

68. What does "foundation" mean in context?

A. Base or basis B. Top part C. Decoration D. End

69. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as part of a healthy diet?

A. Processed snacks B. Whole grains C. Lean proteins D. Fruits

70. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a result of poor sleep?

A. Increased physical strength B. Weight gain C. Mood disorders D. Weak immunity

Maths 30 MCQs

71. What is the value of sin²θ + cos²θ?

A. 1 B. 0 C. 2 D. -1

72. Solve: 2(x+3) = 4x - 2

A. 4 B. 2 C. 5 D. 3

73. What is the value of x in the equation 3x² = 75?

A. 5 B. 25 C. 15 D. ±5

74. What is the distance between parallel lines y = 2x + 3 and y = 2x - 1?

A. 4/√5 B. 4 C. √5 D. 2

75. What is the distance from (0,0) to the line 3x+4y=15?

A. 3 B. 5 C. 15 D. 4

76. What is ∫ (x^3 - 3x) dx?

A. x⁴/4 - 3x²/2 + C B. x⁴/4 - 3x² + C C. x⁴/4 - 3x + C D. 3x² - 3

77. What is the set of integers?

A. Z B. N C. Q D. R

78. What is the conjugate of 3-4i?

A. 3+4i B. -3+4i C. 3-4i D. -3-4i

79. Which of the following is a real number?

A. 5 B. √-1 C. 3i D. i

80. What is the value of i⁴?

A. 1 B. -1 C. i D. -i

81. What is the octal equivalent of decimal 10?

A. 12 B. 10 C. 8 D. 14

82. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of decimal 15?

A. F B. E C. D D. C

83. What is the nth term of a geometric sequence with first term a and ratio r?

A. a r^{n-1} B. a r^n C. a + (n-1)r D. a r^{n+1}

84. What is the common difference in sequence 10, 7, 4, 1?

A. -3 B. 3 C. -4 D. 4

85. What is the common ratio of sequence 81,27,9,3?

A. 1/3 B. 3 C. 1/9 D. 9

86. What is the 7th term of sequence 4, 7, 10, ...?

A. 22 B. 19 C. 25 D. 20

87. What is the probability of getting at least one head in two tosses of a coin?

A. 3/4 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. 1

88. What is the probability of drawing an ace from a deck of cards?

A. 1/13 B. 4/52 C. 1/13 D. Both A and C

89. If a fair coin is tossed 3 times, what is the probability of getting exactly 1 head?

A. 3/8 B. 1/8 C. 3/4 D. 1/2

90. What is the probability of getting a number less than 3 when rolling a die?

A. 1/3 B. 1/2 C. 1/6 D. 2/3

91. What is the value of tan 30°?

A. 1/√3 B. √3 C. 1 D. 0

92. What is the value of sin 180°?

A. 0 B. 1 C. -1 D. 1/2

93. What is the value of sin 270°?

A. -1 B. 1 C. 0 D. 1/2

94. What is the value of tan 90°?

A. undefined B. 0 C. 1 D. ∞

95. What is the value of cosec 90°?

A. 1 B. 0 C. ∞ D. 1/2

96. What is the value of sin(90° - θ)?

A. cos θ B. sin θ C. tan θ D. cot θ

97. What is the value of cos(π)?

A. -1 B. 1 C. 0 D. 1/2

98. What is the value of cos(5π/6)?

A. -√3/2 B. -1/2 C. √3/2 D. 1/2

99. If vector A = 2i + 3j and B = i - j, find A + B.

A. 3i + 2j B. 3i + 4j C. 3i + 2j D. i + 2j

100. What is the dot product of (1,2,3) and (4,5,6)?

A. 32 B. 24 C. 28 D. 30

Physics 30 MCQs

101. The reciprocal of resistance is called:

A. Conductance B. Conductivity C. Impedance D. Reactance

102. The equivalent resistance of two resistors R1 and R2 in series is:

A. R1 + R2 B. R1 R2 / (R1+R2) C. 1/R1 + 1/R2 D. R1 - R2

103. Drift velocity of electrons in a conductor is typically:

A. Very small (mm/s) B. Very large (close to c) C. Zero D. Infinite

104. Electric field lines are perpendicular to the surface of a:

A. Conductor B. Insulator C. Semiconductor D. Dielectric

105. The work done in moving a charge q through a potential difference V is:

A. W = q V B. W = q / V C. W = V / q D. W = q V²

106. The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is given by:

A. C = ε₀ A / d B. C = ε₀ d / A C. C = A / (ε₀ d) D. C = ε₀ A d

107. The force of gravity between two masses is given by:

A. F = G m1 m2 / r² B. F = G m1 m2 / r C. F = G m1 m2 r² D. F = G (m1+m2)/r²

108. The weight of an object is given by:

A. W = mg B. W = m/g C. W = g/m D. W = m + g

109. The acceleration due to gravity decreases with:

A. Increasing altitude B. Decreasing altitude C. Increasing mass D. Decreasing radius

110. The value of g is maximum at:

A. Poles B. Equator C. Centre of Earth D. At a height of 100 km

111. The escape velocity from Earth is approximately:

A. 11.2 km/s B. 7.9 km/s C. 3 km/s D. 8 km/s

112. The orbital velocity of a satellite near Earth's surface is approximately:

A. 7.9 km/s B. 11.2 km/s C. 5 km/s D. 10 km/s

113. In an isochoric (constant volume) process, the work done W is:

A. Zero B. Positive C. Negative D. Maximum

114. The second law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of an isolated system always:

A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains constant D. Oscillates

115. An object is in equilibrium when the net force acting on it is:

A. Zero B. Maximum C. Constant D. Changing

116. In a perfectly inelastic collision, the objects:

A. Stick together after collision B. Bounce apart C. Move separately D. Lose all momentum

117. The SI unit of time is:

A. Second B. Minute C. Hour D. Day

118. The prefix "kilo" represents:

A. 10³ B. 10² C. 10⁶ D. 10⁻³

119. The photoelectric effect was explained by:

A. Einstein B. Planck C. Newton D. Bohr

120. The rest mass of a photon is:

A. Zero B. Equal to electron mass C. Equal to proton mass D. Infinite

121. The law of reflection states that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of:

A. Reflection B. Refraction C. Diffraction D. Dispersion

122. Snell's law is given by:

A. n₁ sin i = n₂ sin r B. n₁ sin r = n₂ sin i C. sin i / sin r = n₂ / n₁ D. Both A and C

123. In Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is given by:

A. β = λD/d B. β = λd/D C. β = λD D. β = d/λD

124. The work done by a torque in rotating an object through an angle dθ is:

A. dW = τ dθ B. dW = F ds C. dW = τ θ D. dW = τ/θ

125. The distance between two successive crests is called:

A. Wavelength B. Frequency C. Amplitude D. Period

126. Light waves are examples of:

A. Transverse waves B. Longitudinal waves C. Mechanical waves D. Sound waves

127. Constructive interference occurs when the path difference is:

A. Integral multiple of wavelength B. Half-integer multiple C. Zero D. Quarter wavelength

128. The Doppler effect is the change in frequency due to relative motion. If the source moves towards the observer, the observed frequency:

A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains same D. Zero

129. The pitch of a sound depends on its:

A. Frequency B. Amplitude C. Wavelength D. Speed

130. The work done by a non-conservative force (like friction) depends on:

A. Path taken B. Displacement only C. Speed D. Mass

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