ECAT (Practice Test) FLP 20 Free Quiz

Chemis

Comput

Englis

Maths

Physic

ECAT (Practice Test) – FLP 20 consists of 130 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 100 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Chemistry 30 MCQs

1. The smallest particle of an element that can take part in a chemical reaction is called:

A. Molecule B. Atom C. Ion D. Electron

2. The electron is discovered by:

A. J.J. Thomson B. Rutherford C. Chadwick D. Millikan

3. The charge on an electron is:

A. -1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C B. +1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C C. 0 D. +1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C

4. The gold foil experiment was performed by:

A. Rutherford B. Bohr C. Thomson D. Chadwick

5. The plum pudding model was proposed by:

A. J.J. Thomson B. Rutherford C. Bohr D. Dalton

6. The Bohr model of the atom introduced the idea of:

A. Quantized energy levels B. Continuous energy C. Electron clouds D. Nucleus

7. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen (Bohr radius) is approximately:

A. 0.529 Å B. 0.529 nm C. 0.529 pm D. 0.529 μm

8. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that it is impossible to determine simultaneously the exact position and exact momentum of a particle. The relation is:

A. Δx · Δp ≥ h/4π B. Δx · Δp ≤ h/4π C. Δx · Δp ≥ h/2π D. Δx · Δp = 0

9. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is:

A. 2(2l+1) B. 2l+1 C. 2n² D. 2n

10. The total number of orbitals in a shell with n=4 is:

A. 16 B. 4 C. 8 D. 32

11. The electron configuration of K (Z=19) is:

A. [Ar] 4s¹ B. [Ar] 3d¹ C. [Ar] 4s² D. [Ar] 3d¹ 4s¹

12. The speed of electron in the first Bohr orbit is approximately:

A. 2.18 × 10⁶ m/s B. 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s C. 2.18 × 10⁸ m/s D. 1.09 × 10⁶ m/s

13. The bond formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms is called:

A. Covalent bond B. Ionic bond C. Metallic bond D. Hydrogen bond

14. The bond angle in methane (CH₄) is:

A. 109.5° B. 120° C. 104.5° D. 180°

15. The shape of NH₃ is:

A. Trigonal pyramidal B. Tetrahedral C. Bent D. Trigonal planar

16. The shape of PCl₅ is:

A. Trigonal bipyramidal B. Octahedral C. Square planar D. Tetrahedral

17. The shape of XeF₄ is:

A. Square planar B. Tetrahedral C. Octahedral D. Trigonal bipyramidal

18. The bond in F₂ is:

A. Nonpolar covalent B. Polar covalent C. Ionic D. Metallic

19. The bond in HF is:

A. Polar covalent B. Nonpolar covalent C. Ionic D. Hydrogen

20. The bond angle in SO₂ is approximately:

A. 119° B. 104.5° C. 109.5° D. 120°

21. The number of lone pairs on central atom in XeF₄ is:

A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 0

22. The Lewis structure of SO₃ has:

A. Three S=O double bonds and no lone pairs on S B. Two double bonds and one single C. One double and two single D. All single bonds

23. Le Chatelier's principle states that if a system at equilibrium is disturbed, the system will shift to:

A. Counteract the disturbance B. Enhance the disturbance C. Ignore the disturbance D. Reach equilibrium faster

24. The equilibrium constant for the reaction A ⇌ B is K. If the reaction is reversed and multiplied by 2, the new equilibrium constant is:

A. 1/K² B. K² C. 1/K D. K

25. For the reaction 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃, adding a catalyst will:

A. No shift in equilibrium B. Shift to products C. Shift to reactants D. Increase K

26. The equilibrium constant Kp for a gaseous reaction is related to Kc by:

A. Kp = Kc (RT)^Δn B. Kp = Kc / (RT)^Δn C. Kp = Kc (RT) D. Kp = Kc

27. The electrode where reduction occurs is called:

A. Cathode B. Anode C. Salt bridge D. Electrolyte

28. Corrosion of iron is an electrochemical process. The anodic reaction is:

A. Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ B. O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻ → 4OH⁻ C. Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe D. 4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻

29. The number of faradays required to deposit one mole of Al from Al³⁺ is:

A. 3 F B. 1 F C. 2 F D. 4 F

30. The standard electrode potential of Cu²⁺/Cu is +0.34 V. Which statement is true about Cu?

A. Cu is a stronger reducing agent than Zn B. Cu²⁺ is a stronger oxidizing agent than Zn²⁺ C. Cu is easily oxidized D. Cu has low reduction potential

Computer Science 30 MCQs

31. Computers are used in the retail industry for:

A. Inventory and point-of-sale systems B. Only packing goods C. Only displaying products D. Only cleaning stores

32. ROM stands for:

A. Read Only Memory B. Random Only Memory C. Read Operate Memory D. Rapid Output Memory

33. The Control Unit (CU) is responsible for:

A. Directing the operation of the processor B. Performing arithmetic operations C. Storing data D. Displaying output

34. Which of the following is a number system?

A. Binary, Decimal, Hexadecimal B. Only Decimal C. Only Binary D. Only Octal

35. What is the octal equivalent of decimal 8?

A. 10 B. 8 C. 20 D. 16

36. Which of these is a type of data structure?

A. Array B. Mouse C. Keyboard D. Monitor

37. Which of these is a data type in programming?

A. Integer B. Monitor C. Keyboard D. Mouse

38. In simplex mode, data can flow:

A. Only in one direction B. Both directions simultaneously C. Both directions but not simultaneously D. Not at all

39. A table is in 3NF if:

A. It is in 2NF and has no transitive dependencies B. It is in 2NF only C. It has no repeating groups D. It has a composite key

40. A deletion anomaly occurs when:

A. Deleting one record inadvertently removes other data B. Data is deleted correctly C. Data is inserted incorrectly D. Data is updated

41. The first step in database design is:

A. Requirements analysis B. Physical design C. Implementation D. Testing

42. A NOT gate (inverter) has:

A. One input and one output B. Two inputs and one output C. One input and two outputs D. Multiple inputs

43. A bus is:

A. A set of electrical pathways for data transfer B. A type of memory C. A CPU component D. A storage device

44. Cache memory is used to:

A. Speed up access to frequently used data B. Store data permanently C. Replace RAM D. Replace hard disk

45. The while loop in C executes:

A. While the condition is true B. Once then checks C. Always D. Never

46. Which of these is the correct way to define a structure in C?

A. struct student { int id; char name[20]; }; B. struct student { int id; char name[20]; } C. structure student { int id; char name[20]; }; D. Both A and B

47. What does the feof() function check?

A. End of file indicator B. File size C. File open status D. File permissions

48. Which function returns the current position in a file?

A. ftell() B. fseek() C. rewind() D. fgetpos()

49. The World Wide Web (WWW) is:

A. A service that runs on the Internet B. The Internet itself C. A type of browser D. A hardware device

50. A router is used to:

A. Forward data packets between networks B. Connect to the Internet directly C. Store data D. Display web pages

51. An optical character reader (OCR) is used to:

A. Recognize printed text and convert it to digital text B. Read barcodes C. Scan images D. Print text

52. What is the main function of a monitor?

A. To display visual output B. To input data C. To process data D. To store data

53. Which tool in Access helps create a report automatically from a table or query?

A. Report Wizard B. Form Wizard C. Query Wizard D. Table Wizard

54. Which property in a report is used to sort records?

A. Order By B. Group By C. Filter D. Record Source

55. A microphone is used to:

A. Capture audio input B. Output sound C. Display video D. Store data

56. Which port is commonly used to connect peripherals like keyboards and mice?

A. USB B. HDMI C. VGA D. Ethernet

57. What is the primary goal of computer security?

A. To protect data and systems from unauthorized access B. To make computers faster C. To reduce electricity usage D. To improve graphics

58. What is the best practice for backing up data?

A. 3-2-1 backup strategy (3 copies, 2 media types, 1 offsite) B. One copy on the same drive C. No backups D. Back up once a year

59. What is an absolute cell reference?

A. A reference that remains fixed when copied (e.g., $A$1) B. A reference that changes when copied C. A reference to a named range D. A reference to another worksheet

60. Which normal form eliminates transitive dependencies?

A. 3NF B. 2NF C. 1NF D. BCNF

English 10 MCQs

61. What is mentioned as a function of water?

A. Digestion and temperature regulation B. Only digestion C. Only temperature regulation D. None of the above

62. What is the author's attitude towards online learning?

A. Balanced and realistic B. Overly positive C. Overly negative D. Indifferent

63. What is harmed by plastic pollution?

A. Marine life B. Birds only C. Only fish D. Only plants

64. What does "maintaining" mean?

A. Keeping in good condition B. Ending C. Ignoring D. Ruining

65. Which word is closest in meaning to "sustainable"?

A. Maintainable B. Wasteful C. Short-lived D. Expensive

66. The passage suggests that renewable energy is:

A. Worth the investment B. Not worth the cost C. Only for the future D. Ineffective

67. What is the meaning of "gestures"?

A. Actions B. Words C. Gifts D. Smiles

68. What is the meaning of "innovation"?

A. New ideas or methods B. Old traditions C. Stagnation D. Rejection of change

69. What is "quality" sleep?

A. Uninterrupted and restorative sleep B. Any sleep C. Sleep with dreams D. Sleep in the day

70. What type of travel is mentioned as beneficial?

A. Both domestic and international B. Only international C. Only domestic D. Only long trips

Maths 30 MCQs

71. What is the value of 2³ × 2²?

A. 32 B. 64 C. 16 D. 8

72. If f(x) = 2x² + 3x - 1, find f(2).

A. 13 B. 11 C. 9 D. 15

73. What is the next term of the sequence 3, 6, 12, 24?

A. 48 B. 36 C. 72 D. 30

74. Simplify: √75

A. 5√3 B. 3√5 C. 5√2 D. √75

75. What is the x-intercept of the line y = 4x - 8?

A. 2 B. -2 C. 8 D. 4

76. What is the slope of a vertical line?

A. Undefined B. 0 C. 1 D. -1

77. What is the equation of the x-axis?

A. y = 0 B. x = 0 C. y = 1 D. x = 1

78. Find the distance between (1,1) and (4,5).

A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 6

79. What is the equation of a line passing through (2,3) with slope 4?

A. y - 3 = 4(x - 2) B. y + 3 = 4(x + 2) C. y - 3 = 4(x + 2) D. y + 3 = 4(x - 2)

80. Find the slope of the line parallel to y = 5x - 1.

A. 5 B. -5 C. 1/5 D. -1/5

81. What is the area of the circle with equation x² + y² = 100?

A. 100π B. 10π C. 20π D. 50π

82. What is the y-intercept of 3x + 4y = 12?

A. 3 B. 4 C. -3 D. 12

83. What is the second derivative of f(x) = x³ - 3x²?

A. 6x - 6 B. 6x - 6 C. 3x² - 6x D. 6x

84. What is the derivative of f(x) = (x²+1)²?

A. 4x(x²+1) B. 2x(x²+1) C. 4x(x²+1) D. 2x(x²+1)

85. What is ∫ cos x dx?

A. sin x + C B. -sin x + C C. cos x + C D. -cos x + C

86. What is ∫ (1/x²) dx?

A. -1/x + C B. 1/x + C C. ln x + C D. x⁻¹

87. What is ∫ (1/x) dx from 1 to e?

A. 1 B. ln e = 1 C. ln e - ln 1 = 1 D. e

88. Which of the following is not a natural number?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

89. Which of the following is a proper subset of A={1,2,3}?

A. {1,2} B. {1,2,3} C. {1,2,3,4} D. ∅

90. What is the sum of all probabilities in a probability distribution?

A. 1 B. 0 C. less than 1 D. more than 1

91. What is the value of cos 90°?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 1/2 D. √3/2

92. What is the value of cos(90° - θ)?

A. sin θ B. cos θ C. tan θ D. cot θ

93. What is the value of tan(π/6)?

A. 1/√3 B. √3 C. 1 D. 0

94. What is the value of tan(π/4) + cot(π/4)?

A. 2 B. 1 C. 0 D. √2

95. If vector A = (5,2) and vector B = (3,1), what is A - B?

A. (2,1) B. (2,1) C. (8,3) D. (2,3)

96. If vector A = (2, -1, 3), what is its magnitude?

A. √14 B. √14 C. √14 D. √14

97. What is the cross product of (1,0,0) and (0,0,1)?

A. (0,-1,0) B. (0,1,0) C. (1,0,0) D. (0,0,1)

98. What is the condition for two vectors to be parallel?

A. Their cross product is zero B. Their dot product is zero C. Their magnitudes are equal D. Their sum is zero

99. What is the unit vector in direction of (1,1,1)?

A. (1/√3, 1/√3, 1/√3) B. (1,1,1) C. (√3,√3,√3) D. None

100. If A = (1,2,3), B = (4,5,6), what is A×B?

A. (-3,6,-3) B. (3,-6,3) C. (-3, -6, -3) D. (3,6,3)

Physics 30 MCQs

101. The direction of magnetic field around a straight current-carrying wire is given by:

A. Right-hand thumb rule B. Left-hand rule C. Fleming's rule D. Lenz's law

102. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is:

A. Uniform and parallel to the axis B. Non-uniform C. Zero D. Maximum at the ends

103. A current-carrying coil in a uniform magnetic field experiences a torque that tends to rotate it. The torque is zero when the plane of the coil is:

A. Perpendicular to the field B. Parallel to the field C. At 45° D. At 60°

104. The permeability of free space (μ₀) has the value:

A. 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A B. 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m C. Both A and B D. 4π × 10⁻⁷ Wb/A·m

105. The force between two point charges is given by:

A. Coulomb's law B. Ohm's law C. Faraday's law D. Lenz's law

106. Coulomb's law states that the force between two charges is directly proportional to:

A. Product of charges B. Sum of charges C. Difference of charges D. Square of charges

107. The SI unit of electric charge is:

A. Coulomb B. Ampere C. Volt D. Ohm

108. If the distance between the plates of a capacitor is doubled, its capacitance becomes:

A. Half B. Double C. Four times D. Same

109. The orbital velocity of a satellite near Earth's surface is approximately:

A. 7.9 km/s B. 11.2 km/s C. 5 km/s D. 10 km/s

110. The weight of an object is less at the equator than at the poles because:

A. Centrifugal effect and equatorial bulge B. The mass is less C. The Earth's radius is smaller at equator D. Gravitational constant changes

111. The acceleration due to gravity at a height h above the Earth's surface (h << R) is:

A. g(1 - 2h/R) B. g(1 + 2h/R) C. g(1 - h/R) D. g(1 + h/R)

112. The work done by a gas in an isobaric process is:

A. W = PΔV B. W = 0 C. W = nRT ln(Vf/Vi) D. W = ΔU

113. The molar specific heat at constant volume C_v is related to C_p by:

A. C_p - C_v = R B. C_v - C_p = R C. C_p + C_v = R D. C_p / C_v = R

114. The SI unit of length is:

A. Meter B. Kilometer C. Centimeter D. Millimeter

115. The magnitude of the resultant of two vectors is minimum when the angle between them is:

A. 180° B. 0° C. 90° D. 45°

116. The cross product of two parallel vectors is:

A. Zero B. AB C. -AB D. A/B

117. The magnitude of a vector with components A_x and A_y is:

A. √(A_x² + A_y²) B. A_x + A_y C. √(A_x + A_y) D. A_x² + A_y²

118. Which of the following is a base SI unit?

A. Ampere B. Joule C. Watt D. Pascal

119. A convex lens is also called:

A. Converging lens B. Diverging lens C. Concave lens D. Plano lens

120. In Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is given by:

A. β = λD/d B. β = λd/D C. β = λD D. β = d/λD

121. The angular acceleration is related to the tangential acceleration a_t by:

A. a_t = α r B. a_t = α/r C. a_t = r/α D. a_t = α r²

122. The principle of superposition states that the resultant displacement is the:

A. Vector sum of individual displacements B. Scalar sum C. Product D. Difference

123. The pitch of a sound depends on its:

A. Frequency B. Amplitude C. Wavelength D. Speed

124. If the force and displacement are opposite in direction, the work done is:

A. Negative B. Positive C. Zero D. Minimum

125. Power is defined as the rate of doing work. Its SI unit is:

A. Watt B. Joule C. Newton D. Pascal

126. If a force F moves an object with velocity v, the instantaneous power is:

A. P = F · v B. P = F v C. P = F/v D. P = F v²

127. A force of 10 N moves a body 5 m in the direction of the force. The work done is:

A. 50 J B. 2 J C. 15 J D. 0 J

128. The work done by a non-conservative force (like friction) depends on:

A. Path taken B. Displacement only C. Speed D. Mass

129. Two resistors of 2Ω and 4Ω are connected in series to a battery. The same current passes through both. What is the ratio of heat produced in the 4Ω resistor to the 2Ω resistor?

A. 1:2 B. 2:1 C. 1:1 D. 4:1

130. A cell of EMF 1.5V balances at 60cm on a potentiometer. When a shunt of unknown resistance is connected across the cell, the balancing length becomes 30cm. What is the shunt resistance (given internal resistance of cell is 2Ω)?

A. 1Ω B. 1.5Ω C. 2Ω D. 3Ω

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