ECAT (Practice Test) FLP 22 Free Quiz

Chemis

Comput

Englis

Maths

Physic

ECAT (Practice Test) – FLP 22 consists of 130 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 100 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Chemistry 30 MCQs

1. The sum of protons and neutrons in an atom is called:

A. Mass number B. Atomic number C. Atomic mass D. Nucleon number

2. The mass of a proton is approximately:

A. 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg B. 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg C. 1.0 × 10⁻³⁰ kg D. 1.67 × 10⁻²⁸ kg

3. The quantum number that defines the shape of an orbital is:

A. Azimuthal (l) B. Principal (n) C. Magnetic (m) D. Spin (s)

4. The electron configuration of nitrogen (Z=7) is:

A. 1s² 2s² 2p³ B. 1s² 2s² 2p⁴ C. 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ D. 1s² 2s² 2p²

5. The Paschen series of hydrogen lies in the:

A. Infrared region B. UV region C. Visible region D. X-ray region

6. The principal quantum number n = 3 can have how many subshells?

A. 3 (s, p, d) B. 2 (s, p) C. 4 (s, p, d, f) D. 1 (s)

7. The azimuthal quantum number l = 2 corresponds to which subshell?

A. d B. s C. p D. f

8. The Pauli exclusion principle is related to the spin quantum number. It states that two electrons in the same orbital must have:

A. Opposite spins B. Same spins C. Different n D. Different l

9. The number of nodes in a 3s orbital is:

A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 0

10. The bond formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms is called:

A. Covalent bond B. Ionic bond C. Metallic bond D. Hydrogen bond

11. The electronegativity difference between two atoms determines the:

A. Type of bond (ionic/covalent) B. Bond length C. Bond energy D. Molecular shape

12. The bond in graphite is:

A. Covalent and van der Waals B. Ionic C. Metallic D. Hydrogen

13. The hybridisation of carbon in ethyne (C₂H₂) is:

A. sp B. sp² C. sp³ D. sp³d

14. The molecule with zero dipole moment is:

A. CO₂ B. H₂O C. NH₃ D. HCl

15. The Lewis structure of SO₃ has:

A. Three S=O double bonds and no lone pairs on S B. Two double bonds and one single C. One double and two single D. All single bonds

16. The reaction quotient Q is used to predict:

A. Direction of reaction B. Equilibrium constant C. Rate of reaction D. Activation energy

17. The equilibrium constant for the dissociation of water is called:

A. Kw B. Ksp C. Ka D. Kb

18. The acid dissociation constant Ka is a measure of:

A. Acid strength B. Base strength C. Salt hydrolysis D. pH

19. The relationship between Ka and Kb for a conjugate acid-base pair is:

A. Ka × Kb = Kw B. Ka / Kb = Kw C. Ka + Kb = Kw D. Ka = Kb

20. For the reaction 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃, adding a catalyst will:

A. No shift in equilibrium B. Shift to products C. Shift to reactants D. Increase K

21. The solubility of CaF₂ is higher in water than in NaF solution because:

A. Common ion effect (F⁻) decreases solubility B. NaF increases solubility C. CaF₂ is more soluble in salt solutions D. pH changes

22. An electrochemical cell that uses electrical energy to drive a non-spontaneous reaction is called:

A. Electrolytic cell B. Galvanic cell C. Fuel cell D. Concentration cell

23. The electrode where oxidation occurs is called:

A. Anode B. Cathode C. Salt bridge D. Electrolyte

24. In the electrolysis of water, oxygen gas is produced at the:

A. Anode B. Cathode C. Both D. Salt bridge

25. The EMF of a lead-acid cell is approximately:

A. 2 V B. 1.5 V C. 1.1 V D. 3.0 V

26. Corrosion of iron is an electrochemical process. The anodic reaction is:

A. Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ B. O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻ → 4OH⁻ C. Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe D. 4OH⁻ → O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻

27. In electrolysis of molten NaCl, the products are:

A. Na and Cl₂ B. H₂ and Cl₂ C. NaOH and Cl₂ D. Na and H₂

28. In the electrochemical series, fluorine has the highest reduction potential. This means F₂ is:

A. The strongest oxidizing agent B. The strongest reducing agent C. Inert D. A good conductor

29. The standard hydrogen electrode has a potential of 0 V. It consists of:

A. H₂ gas at 1 atm and H⁺ at 1 M B. H₂ gas at 0.5 atm C. H⁺ at 1 M with no H₂ D. Platinum electrode only

30. The Nernst equation can be used to calculate the potential of an electrode under non-standard conditions. For Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ ⇌ Zn, the Nernst equation is:

A. E = E° - (0.0592/2) log (1/[Zn²⁺]) B. E = E° + (0.0592/2) log (1/[Zn²⁺]) C. E = E° - (0.0592/2) log [Zn²⁺] D. E = E° + (0.0592/2) log [Zn²⁺]

Computer Science 30 MCQs

31. Computers are used in the legal field for:

A. Document management and research B. Only courtroom decoration C. Only typing cases D. Only making calls

32. What is a tuple in database terminology?

A. A row or record B. A column C. A table D. A query

33. A candidate key is:

A. A minimal super key B. A key that can be null C. The primary key D. A foreign key

34. What does RAM stand for?

A. Random Access Memory B. Read Access Memory C. Rapid Access Memory D. Readily Available Memory

35. Which of these is a secondary storage?

A. Hard disk B. RAM C. Cache D. Registers

36. A bit is:

A. The smallest unit of data (0 or 1) B. A group of 8 bits C. A type of file D. A storage device

37. A floating point data type stores:

A. Numbers with decimal points B. Whole numbers C. Characters D. Logical values

38. Which layer of the OSI model provides error detection and correction?

A. Data link layer B. Physical layer C. Session layer D. Presentation layer

39. Cardinality in ER diagrams defines:

A. The number of entity occurrences involved in a relationship B. The size of the database C. The number of attributes D. The type of key

40. Aggregation in ER modeling is used to:

A. Represent a relationship as an entity B. Combine entities C. Delete relationships D. Add attributes

41. The basic logic gates include:

A. AND, OR, NOT B. ADD, SUB, MUL C. IN, OUT, LOAD D. READ, WRITE, EXECUTE

42. Which gate outputs 1 only when all inputs are 1?

A. AND B. OR C. NOT D. NAND

43. In C, the int data type typically occupies:

A. 4 bytes B. 2 bytes C. 1 byte D. 8 bytes

44. The static keyword in a function variable means:

A. The variable retains its value between calls B. The variable is local C. The variable is global D. The variable is constant

45. What is the output of this code: int x = 5; void change(int a) { a = 10; } int main() { change(x); printf("%d", x); return 0; }

A. 5 B. 10 C. Error D. 0

46. FTP stands for:

A. File Transfer Protocol B. Fast Transfer Protocol C. File Transmission Protocol D. Fixed Transfer Protocol

47. Which of the following is an input device?

A. Keyboard B. Monitor C. Printer D. Speaker

48. Which of the following is primary memory?

A. RAM B. Hard disk C. SSD D. DVD

49. A port is used to:

A. Connect external devices to the computer B. Store data C. Process data D. Display output

50. Which object is used to retrieve and display specific data from tables?

A. Query B. Table C. Form D. Report

51. Which of these is a non-impact printer?

A. Laser printer B. Dot matrix printer C. Daisy wheel printer D. Drum printer

52. A trackball is a pointing device where:

A. A ball is rotated to move the cursor B. A finger is slid on a surface C. A pen is used D. A joystick is moved

53. A CD/DVD drive is classified as a:

A. Storage peripheral B. Input device C. Output device D. Processing device

54. What is a software license?

A. A legal agreement governing the use of software B. A type of virus C. A hardware component D. A programming language

55. What is two-factor authentication (2FA)?

A. A security method requiring two different forms of verification B. A single password only C. A biometric scan only D. A type of firewall

56. Which function returns the highest value in a range?

A. MAX B. MIN C. SUM D. AVERAGE

57. Which function is used to find the largest value in a range?

A. MAX B. MIN C. LARGE D. SMALL

58. In a relational database, a table is also known as:

A. A relation B. A file C. A record D. A field

59. Which feature is used to check spelling and grammar in Word?

A. Spell Check B. Thesaurus C. Grammar Check D. Both A and C

60. Which shortcut key saves a document in Word?

A. Ctrl + S B. Ctrl + O C. Ctrl + N D. Ctrl + P

English 10 MCQs

61. What does "moderate" mean?

A. Not extreme B. Very intense C. Very light D. Rare

62. The word "crucial" most nearly means:

A. Essential B. Optional C. Difficult D. Unimportant

63. What is mentioned as a function of water?

A. Digestion and temperature regulation B. Only digestion C. Only temperature regulation D. None of the above

64. What is the author's attitude towards online learning?

A. Balanced and realistic B. Overly positive C. Overly negative D. Indifferent

65. What is harmed by plastic pollution?

A. Marine life B. Birds only C. Only fish D. Only plants

66. What is needed to maintain friendships?

A. Time, effort, and trust B. Money C. Gifts D. Social media

67. What does kindness do according to the passage?

A. Reduces stress and improves mood B. Increases stress C. Causes conflict D. Leads to sadness

68. What should be reduced to prevent health problems?

A. Sugar, salt, and saturated fats B. Water C. Fruits D. Vegetables

69. What is "toxins"?

A. Harmful substances B. Nutrients C. Vitamins D. Minerals

70. What does "appreciate" mean?

A. Value or understand B. Dislike C. Ignore D. Criticize

Maths 30 MCQs

71. Solve for x: 2x - 5 = 9

A. 7 B. 6 C. 8 D. 5

72. Solve: 2^(x+1) = 16

A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5

73. What is the value of 4! (4 factorial)?

A. 24 B. 16 C. 12 D. 20

74. If x% of 200 is 40, then x = ?

A. 20 B. 10 C. 30 D. 40

75. What is the value of (a+b)² - (a-b)²?

A. 4ab B. 2a²+2b² C. 2ab D. a²+b²

76. What is the value of tan 45°?

A. 1 B. 0 C. √3 D. 1/√3

77. What is the equation of a line with slope 2 and y-intercept 3?

A. y = 2x + 3 B. y = 3x + 2 C. y = 2x - 3 D. y = -2x + 3

78. What is the derivative of f(x) = √x?

A. 1/(2√x) B. 2√x C. 1/√x D. √x/2

79. What is the integral of 3x² from 0 to 2?

A. 8 B. 4 C. 16 D. 2

80. What is the integral of 2x?

A. x² + C B. 2x² + C C. x² D. x

81. Find the integral of f(x)=x²+3x from 0 to 2.

A. 26/3 B. 14/3 C. 10/3 D. 8

82. What is ∫ x e^{x²} dx?

A. 1/2 e^{x²} + C B. e^{x²} + C C. 2x e^{x²} + C D. x² e^{x²} + C

83. Which of the following is not a natural number?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

84. What is the product of the first 3 prime numbers?

A. 30 B. 6 C. 15 D. 10

85. Which of the following is not a property of equality?

A. Transitive B. Symmetric C. Reflexive D. Distributive

86. What is the nth term of an arithmetic sequence with first term a and common difference d?

A. a+(n-1)d B. a+nd C. a+(n+1)d D. a-d

87. What is the sum of probabilities of all outcomes in a sample space?

A. 1 B. 0 C. >1 D. <1

88. What is the probability of getting exactly two heads in three tosses?

A. 3/8 B. 1/8 C. 3/4 D. 1/2

89. What is the mode of 2,2,3,4,5,5,5?

A. 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

90. What is the standard deviation of the data set {10,10,10,10}?

A. 0 B. 10 C. 1 D. √10

91. What is the value of tan 60°?

A. √3 B. 1/√3 C. 1 D. 0

92. What is the value of cosec 90°?

A. 1 B. 0 C. ∞ D. 1/2

93. What is the value of sec 45°?

A. √2 B. 1/√2 C. 1 D. 0

94. What is the value of cos(2x) in terms of cos²x?

A. 2cos²x - 1 B. 1 - 2cos²x C. 2sin²x - 1 D. cos²x - sin²x

95. What is a vector quantity?

A. A quantity with both magnitude and direction B. A quantity with only magnitude C. A quantity with only direction D. A scalar

96. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

A. Speed B. Displacement C. Force D. Velocity

97. What is the vector triple product?

A. A×(B×C) B. A·(B×C) C. (A·B)C D. All of the above

98. What is the position vector of point (2,3)?

A. 2i + 3j B. 2i - 3j C. 3i + 2j D. 2i + 3j

99. What is the vector from (2,3) to (5,7)?

A. 3i + 4j B. 3i - 4j C. 4i + 3j D. 2i + 3j

100. What is the midpoint vector of points A(1,2) and B(3,4)?

A. 2i + 3j B. 4i + 6j C. 2i + 2j D. 2i + 3j

Physics 30 MCQs

101. Ohm's law states that the current through a conductor is directly proportional to:

A. Voltage B. Resistance C. Power D. Charge

102. If the length of a wire is doubled, its resistance becomes:

A. Double B. Half C. Four times D. One fourth

103. The force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is given by:

A. F = B I L sin θ B. F = B I L C. F = B I L cos θ D. F = B I / L

104. The cyclotron frequency is given by:

A. f = qB / (2πm) B. f = 2πm / (qB) C. f = qB / m D. f = m / (qB)

105. Coulomb's law states that the force between two charges is directly proportional to:

A. Product of charges B. Sum of charges C. Difference of charges D. Square of charges

106. The weight of an object is given by:

A. W = mg B. W = m/g C. W = g/m D. W = m + g

107. The value of g is maximum at:

A. Poles B. Equator C. Centre of Earth D. At a height of 100 km

108. The value of g on the moon is about 1/6th of that on Earth. An object weighing 60 N on Earth would weigh on the moon:

A. 10 N B. 6 N C. 60 N D. 360 N

109. The orbital period of a satellite depends on:

A. Radius of orbit and mass of Earth B. Mass of satellite C. Velocity of satellite D. Both B and C

110. Kepler's second law (law of areas) implies that a planet moves faster when:

A. Closer to the Sun B. Farther from the Sun C. At the maximum distance D. At the mean distance

111. The absolute zero temperature is approximately:

A. 0 K B. -273.15 °C C. Both A and B D. -459.67 °F

112. Newton's third law states that every action has:

A. An equal and opposite reaction B. An equal and similar reaction C. A greater reaction D. No reaction

113. Friction is a force that:

A. Opposes motion B. Supports motion C. Has no direction D. Is always present

114. Static friction is the frictional force between two surfaces that are:

A. At rest relative to each other B. Sliding C. Rolling D. In motion

115. The torque is given by:

A. τ = r × F B. τ = r · F C. τ = F / r D. τ = r²F

116. The SI unit of momentum is:

A. kg·m/s B. N·s C. Both A and B D. J

117. Impulse is defined as:

A. Force × time B. Force × distance C. Mass × velocity D. Mass × acceleration

118. The rest energy of an object of mass 1 kg is approximately:

A. 9 × 10¹⁶ J B. 3 × 10⁸ J C. 9 × 10¹⁶ eV D. 3 × 10¹⁶ J

119. A convex lens is also called:

A. Converging lens B. Diverging lens C. Concave lens D. Plano lens

120. In uniform circular motion, the speed is constant but the velocity is changing because:

A. Direction changes B. Magnitude changes C. Acceleration is zero D. Force is zero

121. If no external torque acts on a system, its angular momentum remains:

A. Constant B. Zero C. Increasing D. Decreasing

122. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about its central axis is:

A. ½ m R² B. m R² C. ⅔ m R² D. 2/5 m R²

123. The speed of sound in air at room temperature is approximately:

A. 343 m/s B. 3 × 10⁸ m/s C. 1500 m/s D. 340 km/h

124. The points with maximum displacement in a standing wave are called:

A. Antinodes B. Nodes C. Crests D. Troughs

125. The fundamental frequency of a pipe closed at one end is given by:

A. f = v/(4L) B. f = v/(2L) C. f = 2v/L D. f = v/L

126. Beats are produced when two sound waves of slightly different frequencies superpose. The beat frequency is:

A. Difference of the two frequencies B. Sum of the two frequencies C. Average D. Product

127. The gravitational potential energy near Earth's surface is given by:

A. U = mgh B. U = ½ mgh C. U = mg/h D. U = gh

128. Three resistors of 10Ω, 20Ω, and 30Ω are connected in series to a 120V battery. What are the voltage drops across each resistor?

A. 10V, 20V, 30V B. 20V, 30V, 50V C. 30V, 40V, 50V D. 20V, 40V, 60V

129. If the radius of a conductor is doubled, and the current remains the same, what happens to the drift velocity of electrons?

A. One-half B. One-fourth C. Four times D. Two times

130. A wire has a resistance of 100Ω at 20°C and 120Ω at 100°C. What is the temperature coefficient of resistance of the wire?

A. 0.0010 per °C B. 0.0015 per °C C. 0.0020 per °C D. 0.0025 per °C

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