ECAT (Practice Test) FLP 24 Free Quiz

Chemis

Comput

Englis

Maths

Physic

ECAT (Practice Test) – FLP 24 consists of 130 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 100 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Chemistry 30 MCQs

1. The e/m ratio of cathode rays was determined by:

A. J.J. Thomson B. Rutherford C. Millikan D. Bohr

2. The ionization energy of hydrogen is:

A. 13.6 eV B. 10.2 eV C. 3.4 eV D. 1.51 eV

3. Hund's rule states that electrons fill orbitals of same energy such that:

A. Maximum multiplicity (parallel spins) B. Pairing occurs first C. Electrons fill lower energy first D. Electrons fill randomly

4. The electron configuration of oxygen (Z=8) is:

A. 1s² 2s² 2p⁴ B. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ C. 1s² 2s² 2p² D. 1s² 2s² 2p³

5. The element with atomic number 24 is chromium. Its electron configuration is:

A. [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹ B. [Ar] 3d⁴ 4s² C. [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s² D. [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s¹

6. Isoelectronic species have the same number of:

A. Electrons B. Protons C. Neutrons D. Nucleons

7. The ionization energy generally increases across a period because:

A. Nuclear charge increases and atomic size decreases B. Nuclear charge decreases C. Atomic size increases D. Shielding increases

8. The number of nodes in a 3s orbital is:

A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 0

9. The octet rule states that atoms tend to have how many electrons in their valence shell?

A. 8 B. 2 C. 18 D. 6

10. The shape of CO₂ is:

A. Linear B. Bent C. Trigonal planar D. Tetrahedral

11. The shape of SO₂ is:

A. Bent B. Linear C. Trigonal planar D. Tetrahedral

12. The hydrogen bond is a type of:

A. Intermolecular force B. Intramolecular force C. Ionic bond D. Covalent bond

13. The hydrogen bond is strongest in:

A. HF B. H₂O C. NH₃ D. CH₄

14. A triple bond consists of:

A. One sigma and two pi bonds B. Two sigma and one pi C. Three sigma D. Three pi

15. The bond in Cl₂ is:

A. Nonpolar covalent B. Polar covalent C. Ionic D. Hydrogen

16. For a reaction with Δn = 0 (same moles of gas), change in pressure:

A. Has no effect on equilibrium position B. Shifts to products C. Shifts to reactants D. Depends on temperature

17. The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt is decreased by the addition of:

A. A common ion B. Water C. Acid D. Base

18. A solution with pH > 7 is:

A. Basic B. Acidic C. Neutral D. Salt

19. A buffer solution resists changes in pH upon addition of small amounts of acid or base. It consists of a:

A. Weak acid and its salt with strong base B. Strong acid and its salt C. Strong base and its salt D. Neutral salt

20. A salt of a weak acid and strong base (e.g., sodium acetate) will hydrolyze to give a solution that is:

A. Basic B. Acidic C. Neutral D. Amphoteric

21. For the reaction CO(g) + H₂O(g) ⇌ CO₂(g) + H₂(g), ΔH = -41 kJ. Increasing temperature will:

A. Shift towards reactants B. Shift towards products C. No shift D. Increase K

22. The degree of dissociation of a weak acid increases with:

A. Dilution B. Increasing concentration C. Decreasing temperature D. Adding acid

23. The pH of a buffer solution containing 0.1 M acetic acid and 0.1 M sodium acetate (pKa=4.76) is:

A. 4.76 B. 4.76 C. 5.76 D. 3.76

24. The cell potential (EMF) of a galvanic cell is given by:

A. E_cell = E_cathode - E_anode B. E_cell = E_anode - E_cathode C. E_cell = E_anode + E_cathode D. E_cell = E_anode / E_cathode

25. The Faraday constant (F) is the charge on one mole of electrons. Its value is:

A. 96500 C/mol B. 96485 C/mol C. Both A and B D. 96500 J/V

26. The process of electrolysis of water produces:

A. H₂ and O₂ B. H₂ and O₂ C. H₂ and O₂ D. H₂ and O₂

27. In a hydrogen fuel cell, the reaction at the anode is:

A. H₂ → 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ B. O₂ + 4H⁺ + 4e⁻ → 2H₂O C. H₂ + 2OH⁻ → 2H₂O + 2e⁻ D. O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻ → 4OH⁻

28. In the reaction Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu, the reducing agent is:

A. Zn B. Cu²⁺ C. Zn²⁺ D. Cu

29. Sacrificial protection is used to prevent corrosion of iron by attaching a more reactive metal such as:

A. Magnesium B. Copper C. Silver D. Gold

30. The charge passed when a current of 2 A flows for 10 minutes is:

A. 1200 C B. 20 C C. 120 C D. 600 C

Computer Science 30 MCQs

31. What is a data dictionary?

A. Metadata about the database B. A table in the database C. A query result D. A backup file

32. The fetch-execute cycle is:

A. The basic operation cycle of a CPU B. A type of memory C. A storage device D. A programming language

33. Endianness refers to:

A. Byte order in memory (little or big) B. Clock speed C. Cache size D. Bus width

34. Booting a computer means:

A. Starting up the system B. Shutting down C. Loading an application D. Saving a file

35. Data is defined as:

A. Raw, unprocessed facts B. Processed information C. A computer program D. A type of storage

36. Which of the following is a data type?

A. Integer B. Keyboard C. Monitor D. Printer

37. The binary representation of decimal 5 is:

A. 101 B. 100 C. 110 D. 111

38. The basic elements of a communication system are:

A. Sender, receiver, and medium B. Only sender and receiver C. Only medium D. Only data

39. Integrity constraints are used to:

A. Enforce data accuracy and consistency B. Increase storage C. Delete data D. Speed up queries

40. Which phase creates a conceptual model (ER diagram)?

A. Conceptual design B. Logical design C. Physical design D. Implementation

41. Which of the following is NOT a database model?

A. Excel model B. Relational model C. Network model D. Hierarchical model

42. The binary addition of 1 + 1 results in:

A. 10 (2) B. 0 C. 1 D. 11

43. The main() function is:

A. The starting point of program execution B. Optional C. Used for calculations D. Defined in header files

44. Which format specifier is used for reading a string (with spaces) in C?

A. %s B. %c C. %d D. %f

45. Which of these is a valid comment in C?

A. /* comment */ B. // comment C. Both A and B D. # comment

46. Which mode allows both reading and writing?

A. "r+" B. "r" C. "w" D. "a"

47. What is the scope of a local variable?

A. Within the function it is declared B. Throughout the program C. Only within the main function D. In all functions

48. Which topology connects devices in a closed loop?

A. Ring B. Star C. Bus D. Mesh

49. Which network device amplifies or regenerates a signal?

A. Repeater B. Router C. Switch D. Bridge

50. A printer is used to:

A. Produce a hard copy of documents B. Scan documents C. Store data D. Send emails

51. Which of the following is a type of printer?

A. Inkjet B. Keyboard C. Mouse D. Scanner

52. Which data type in Access is used for long text (up to 65,535 characters)?

A. Long Text B. Text C. Number D. Memo

53. A sentinel-controlled loop is commonly used with:

A. while loop B. for loop C. do-while D. All of the above

54. Which section of a report appears at the top of every page?

A. Page Header B. Report Header C. Detail D. Group Header

55. A form can be based on:

A. A table or a query B. Only a table C. Only a query D. Only another form

56. What is the purpose of a data breach notification law?

A. To require companies to inform users if their data has been compromised B. To ban encryption C. To allow data sharing D. To regulate passwords

57. In Excel, a cell is identified by:

A. Column letter and row number B. Row number only C. Column letter only D. Cell address

58. What is a relative cell reference?

A. A reference that changes when copied (e.g., A1) B. A reference that remains fixed C. A reference to a cell in another sheet D. A reference to a named cell

59. What is the purpose of the Task Manager in Windows?

A. To view and manage running processes and performance B. To change desktop background C. To install software D. To create documents

60. Which of the following is a file system used by Windows?

A. NTFS B. FAT32 C. exFAT D. All of the above

English 10 MCQs

61. The word "crucial" most nearly means:

A. Essential B. Optional C. Difficult D. Unimportant

62. What can lack of water cause?

A. Fatigue and headaches B. Increased energy C. Better memory D. Weight gain

63. What is a benefit of online learning mentioned?

A. Flexibility and pace B. No need for internet C. Less time D. No self-discipline needed

64. Which of the following is NOT a benefit mentioned?

A. Increased wealth B. Emotional support C. Reduced stress D. Personal growth

65. What is the overall tone?

A. Warm and encouraging B. Cold and distant C. Sarcastic D. Indifferent

66. What is the author's tone?

A. Balanced and cautionary B. Overly optimistic C. Overly pessimistic D. Indifferent

67. The passage suggests that renewable energy is:

A. Worth the investment B. Not worth the cost C. Only for the future D. Ineffective

68. Read the passage: "Kindness is a simple but powerful act that can brighten someone's day. It reduces stress, improves mood, and strengthens relationships. Even small gestures, like a smile or a helping hand, can have a ripple effect. Studies show that kindness is contagious and benefits both the giver and the receiver." What is the main idea?

A. Kindness has positive effects on both individuals and communities B. Kindness is only for the wealthy C. Kindness is overrated D. Kindness is a sign of weakness

69. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of education?

A. Wealth accumulation B. Empowerment C. Poverty reduction D. Meaningful employment

70. What does travel expose people to?

A. New cultures and perspectives B. Only new foods C. Only new languages D. Only new climates

Maths 30 MCQs

71. What is the value of 3x + 5 if x = 2?

A. 11 B. 10 C. 12 D. 13

72. Solve for x: x/3 = 9

A. 27 B. 3 C. 9 D. 18

73. The sequence 2, 6, 10, 14,... is an arithmetic progression. What is the common difference?

A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8

74. Solve: 2^(x+1) = 16

A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5

75. What is the square root of 144?

A. 12 B. 14 C. 10 D. 16

76. What is the exponential form of log₃ 81 = 4?

A. 3⁴ = 81 B. 81⁴ = 3 C. 4³ = 81 D. 3⁸¹ = 4

77. What is the slope of the line passing through (0,0) and (3,6)?

A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 0

78. What is the slope of a vertical line?

A. Undefined B. 0 C. 1 D. -1

79. What is the area of the circle with radius 7 cm?

A. 49π B. 14π C. 7π D. 49

80. What is the derivative of f(x) = x³?

A. 3x² B. 3x C. x² D. 3x³

81. What is the derivative of f(x) = sin x?

A. cos x B. sin x C. -cos x D. tan x

82. What is the derivative of f(x) = 1/(x²)?

A. -2/x³ B. 2/x³ C. -2/x D. 2/x

83. What is ∫ e^x dx?

A. e^x + C B. e^x C. e^x + C D. e^x

84. Evaluate ∫₁² (3x²) dx.

A. 7 B. 8 C. 6 D. 5

85. Evaluate ∫₀^π cos x dx.

A. 0 B. 2 C. 1 D. -1

86. Evaluate ∫₀¹ x(1+x²) dx.

A. 3/4 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. 2/3

87. Which of the following is a rational number between 0 and 1?

A. 1/2 B. √1/2 C. π/4 D. 0.5

88. What is the sum of the first 5 terms of the sequence 2,4,6,8,10?

A. 30 B. 20 C. 25 D. 35

89. What is the sum of odd numbers from 1 to 99?

A. 2500 B. 4900 C. 2500 D. 5000

90. What is the arithmetic mean of 2 and 8?

A. 5 B. 4 C. 6 D. 10

91. What is the 6th term of G.P 2,4,8,16,...?

A. 64 B. 32 C. 128 D. 48

92. If P(A)=0.2, P(B)=0.5, and A and B are independent, what is P(A∩B)?

A. 0.1 B. 0.7 C. 0.3 D. 0.5

93. What is the mean of the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5?

A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

94. What is the value of cos 360°?

A. 1 B. 0 C. -1 D. 1/2

95. What is the period of tan x?

A. π B. 2π C. π/2 D. 2π

96. What is the phase shift of y = sin(x - π/2)?

A. π/2 to the right B. π/2 to the left C. No shift D. π shift

97. What is the value of sin(2π/3)?

A. √3/2 B. 1/2 C. √2/2 D. 1

98. What is the value of sin(π - x)?

A. sin x B. -sin x C. cos x D. -cos x

99. What is the cross product of (1,0,0) and (0,0,1)?

A. (0,-1,0) B. (0,1,0) C. (1,0,0) D. (0,0,1)

100. What is the condition for two vectors to be perpendicular?

A. Their dot product is zero B. Their cross product is zero C. Their sum is zero D. Their magnitudes are equal

Physics 30 MCQs

101. The internal resistance of a cell is due to:

A. Electrolyte resistance B. Plate resistance C. Both A and B D. External load

102. The direction of force on a positive charge moving in a magnetic field is given by:

A. Right-hand rule for cross product B. Left-hand rule C. Fleming's left-hand rule D. Lenz's law

103. Electric potential is defined as the:

A. Work done per unit charge B. Force per unit charge C. Charge per unit volume D. Energy per unit area

104. The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is given by:

A. C = ε₀ A / d B. C = ε₀ d / A C. C = A / (ε₀ d) D. C = ε₀ A d

105. The gravitational force between two masses is an example of:

A. Action at a distance B. Contact force C. Tension D. Friction

106. For a diatomic ideal gas, C_v = 5/2 R (at moderate T). The value of γ is:

A. 7/5 B. 5/3 C. 7/3 D. 4/3

107. The condition for translational equilibrium is:

A. ΣF = 0 B. Στ = 0 C. ΣF ≠ 0 D. Σv = 0

108. The SI unit of work is:

A. Joule B. Newton C. Watt D. Pascal

109. Power is defined as:

A. Work done per unit time B. Force per unit time C. Energy per unit distance D. Force × velocity

110. The SI unit of mass is:

A. Kilogram B. Gram C. Pound D. Ounce

111. The number 4.50 × 10³ has how many significant figures?

A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

112. The magnitude of the resultant of two vectors is minimum when the angle between them is:

A. 180° B. 0° C. 90° D. 45°

113. The components of a vector A in 2D are:

A. A_x = A cosθ, A_y = A sinθ B. A_x = A sinθ, A_y = A cosθ C. A_x = A tanθ D. A_x = A, A_y = A

114. When adding measurements, the result should have the same precision as the:

A. Least precise measurement B. Most precise measurement C. Average of measurements D. Sum of measurements

115. The minimum frequency required for photoelectric emission is called:

A. Threshold frequency B. Cut-off frequency C. Both A and B D. Resonant frequency

116. Planck's constant has the value:

A. 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ Js B. 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ eV s C. 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J/Hz D. All of the above

117. A concave lens is also called:

A. Diverging lens B. Converging lens C. Convex lens D. Plano lens

118. Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from:

A. Denser to rarer medium and angle of incidence > critical angle B. Rarer to denser medium C. Denser to rarer medium at any angle D. Rarer to denser medium at critical angle

119. The rotational kinetic energy is given by:

A. K_rot = ½ I ω² B. K_rot = ½ m v² C. K_rot = I ω D. K_rot = ½ I ω

120. The angular momentum L of a rotating rigid body is given by:

A. L = I ω B. L = m v C. L = I α D. L = r × F

121. The net torque acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its:

A. Angular momentum B. Angular velocity C. Moment of inertia D. Kinetic energy

122. In a longitudinal wave, the particle displacement is:

A. Parallel to the direction of propagation B. Perpendicular C. At 45° D. None

123. Sound waves are examples of:

A. Longitudinal waves B. Transverse waves C. Electromagnetic waves D. Standing waves

124. The points with zero displacement in a standing wave are called:

A. Nodes B. Antinodes C. Crests D. Troughs

125. The quality (timbre) of a sound is determined by its:

A. Harmonic content (overtones) B. Fundamental frequency C. Amplitude D. Speed

126. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a speed of 4 m/s. Its kinetic energy is:

A. 40 J B. 20 J C. 80 J D. 10 J

127. If the mass of a body is doubled and speed is halved, the kinetic energy becomes:

A. Half the original B. Same C. Double D. One quarter

128. The height from which a body must be dropped to achieve a speed v is:

A. v²/(2g) B. v/(2g) C. 2v²/g D. v²/g

129. A wire of length L and resistance R is stretched to double its length. What is the new resistance of the wire?

A. 4 times B. 2 times C. 8 times D. 16 times

130. Three resistors of 10Ω, 20Ω, and 30Ω are connected in series to a 120V battery. What are the voltage drops across each resistor?

A. 10V, 20V, 30V B. 20V, 30V, 50V C. 30V, 40V, 50V D. 20V, 40V, 60V

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