HAT Subject (Business Administration) FLP 1 Free Quiz

1. What is a collection of accounts?

A. Journal B. Trial balance C. Income statement D. Ledger

2. When are expenses recognized under accrual basis?

A. Cash basis B. When paid C. When incurred (accrual basis) D. When invoiced

3. What does the income statement show?

A. Balance sheet B. Cash flow statement C. Trial balance D. Income statement

4. What is a current asset?

A. Fixed asset B. Current asset C. Intangible asset D. Long-term investment

5. What is equity?

A. Liabilities B. Assets C. Equity D. Revenue

6. What is accounts receivable?

A. Accounts payable B. Notes payable C. Accrued expenses D. Accounts receivable

7. What is a fiscal year?

A. Calendar year B. Fiscal year C. Month D. Quarter

8. What is business economics?

A. Applies economic theory to business decisions B. Macroeconomics C. Microeconomics D. Managerial economics

9. What does macroeconomics study?

A. Individual firms B. Market behavior C. Business strategy D. Economy as a whole

10. What is demand?

A. Supply B. Demand C. Price D. Utility

11. What does the law of demand state?

A. Decreases B. Increases C. Constant D. Unrelated

12. What is supply?

A. Demand B. Price C. Supply D. Utility

13. What does the law of supply state?

A. Decreases B. Constant C. Unrelated D. Increases

14. What is the equilibrium price?

A. Supply greater than demand B. Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied C. Demand greater than supply D. Price is zero

15. What is a sunk cost?

A. Opportunity cost B. Sunk cost C. Fixed cost D. Variable cost

16. What is inflation?

A. Deflation B. Disinflation C. Inflation D. Hyperinflation

17. What does fiscal policy involve?

A. Monetary policy B. Fiscal policy C. Trade policy D. Industrial policy

18. What does monetary policy involve?

A. Monetary policy B. Fiscal policy C. Trade policy D. Industrial policy

19. What is a budget deficit?

A. Surplus B. Balanced C. Deficit D. Zero

20. What is business research?

A. Systematic collection and analysis of information B. Only data collection C. Only analysis D. Only interpretation

21. What type of research uses non-numerical data?

A. Quantitative B. Qualitative C. Mixed D. Experimental

22. What is a common method of collecting primary data?

A. Survey B. Experiment C. Observation D. Interview

23. What type of sample ensures equal chance of selection?

A. Systematic B. Random C. Stratified D. Convenience

24. What is reliability?

A. Validity B. Reliability C. Precision D. Accuracy

25. What type of scale measures attitudes on a scale?

A. Ratio B. Interval C. Likert D. Nominal

26. What test compares means between two groups?

A. ANOVA B. T-test C. Chi-square D. Regression

27. What is a p-value?

A. Effect size B. Confidence interval C. P-value D. Standard error

28. What is a confidence interval?

A. P-value B. Effect size C. Standard deviation D. Confidence interval

29. What combines results from multiple studies?

A. Case study B. Meta-analysis C. Survey D. Experiment

30. What does the time value of money state?

A. Inflation B. Risk C. Return D. Time value of money

31. What does capital budgeting involve?

A. Working capital B. Capital budgeting C. Short-term financing D. Cash management

32. What is NPV?

A. Net present value B. Internal rate of return C. Payback period D. Profitability index

33. What is working capital?

A. Long-term assets B. Current assets minus current liabilities C. Equity D. Debt

34. What is liquidity?

A. Liquidity B. Profitability C. Solvency D. Efficiency

35. What is the current ratio?

A. Profitability ratio B. Leverage ratio C. Current ratio D. Efficiency ratio

36. What does ROE measure?

A. Return on assets B. Return on equity C. Return on investment D. Return on sales

37. What does DuPont analysis break down ROE into?

A. Profit margin, asset turnover, financial leverage B. ROA C. ROI D. ROS

38. What is WACC?

A. Cost of debt B. WACC C. Cost of equity D. Cost of preference

39. What does the income statement show?

A. Balance sheet B. Cash flow statement C. Equity statement D. Income statement

40. What does the balance sheet show?

A. Income statement B. Balance sheet C. Cash flow statement D. Retained earnings

41. What is capital structure?

A. Working capital B. Liquidity C. Profitability D. Capital structure

42. What does leverage refer to?

A. Equity B. Leverage C. Liquidity D. Profitability

43. What does the Modigliani-Miller theorem suggest?

A. Capital structure irrelevance B. With taxes C. With bankruptcy D. With agency costs

44. What is a financial market?

A. Product market B. Labor market C. Financial market D. Service market

45. What does beta measure?

A. Alpha B. Standard deviation C. Beta D. Sharpe ratio

46. What is Human Resource Management?

A. Managing people in organizations B. Only recruitment C. Only training D. Only compensation

47. What does a job description list?

A. Job description B. Job specification C. Job design D. Job analysis

48. What is performance management?

A. Appraisal B. Feedback C. Coaching D. Performance management

49. What is a career path?

A. Job analysis B. Job design C. Job description D. Career path

50. What is HR planning?

A. HR planning B. Recruitment C. Selection D. Training

51. What is collective bargaining?

A. Arbitration B. Collective bargaining C. Mediation D. Conciliation

52. What links compensation to performance?

A. Performance-based pay B. Seniority-based pay C. Skill-based pay D. Flat-rate pay

53. What are the 4Ps of the marketing mix?

A. Product, Price, Place, People B. Product, Price, Place, Process C. Product, Price, Place, Promotion D. Product, Price, Place, Physical evidence

54. Which stage involves low sales and high costs?

A. Growth B. Introduction C. Maturity D. Decline

55. Which stage features rapid sales growth?

A. Growth B. Introduction C. Maturity D. Decline

56. What is penetration pricing?

A. Penetration pricing B. Skimming pricing C. Premium pricing D. Value pricing

57. What type of distribution channel involves no intermediaries?

A. Indirect B. Direct C. Multi-level D. Networked

58. What uses online channels to promote products?

A. Traditional B. Direct C. Personal D. Digital marketing

59. What gathers information about customers and the market?

A. Advertising B. Promotion C. Market research D. Distribution

60. What does the marketing environment include?

A. Internal B. Micro and macro C. Competitive D. Regulatory

61. What does PEST analysis stand for?

A. Political, Economic, Social, Technological B. Political, Environmental, Social, Technological C. Political, Economic, Social, Legal D. Political, Economic, Social, Trade

62. What is brand equity?

A. Price B. Quality C. Promotion D. Brand equity

63. What outlines how to achieve marketing objectives?

A. A tactic B. A marketing strategy C. A campaign D. A message

64. What does "marketing myopia" mean?

A. Marketing myopia B. Customer focus C. Competitor focus D. Pricing focus

65. What is operations management?

A. Administration of business practices for efficiency B. Only production C. Only logistics D. Only quality

66. What is a methodology for process improvement?

A. JIT B. Six Sigma C. TQM D. Lean

67. What does the supply chain include?

A. All steps in delivering a product B. Production only C. Distribution only D. Procurement only

68. What is safety stock?

A. EOQ B. Safety stock C. Reorder point D. Lead time

69. What is the critical path?

A. Critical path B. Shortest path C. Average path D. Optional path

70. What is the 5S methodology?

A. Kaizen B. 5S C. Lean D. Six Sigma

71. What is motivation?

A. Leadership B. Communication C. Motivation D. Perception

72. What are hygiene factors?

A. Motivators B. Growth factors C. Hygiene factors D. Achievement factors

73. What are motivators in Herzberg's theory?

A. Hygiene factors B. Maintenance factors C. Dissatisfiers D. Motivators

74. What is leadership?

A. Management B. Authority C. Leadership D. Power

75. What is groupthink?

A. Cohesion B. Groupthink C. Polarization D. Loafing

76. What is power in organizations?

A. Authority B. Leadership C. Control D. Power

77. How many bases of power are there?

A. Three B. Five C. Four D. Six

78. What is the halo effect?

A. Hawthorne effect B. Pygmalion effect C. Halo effect D. Placebo effect

79. What is a team?

A. A group B. A team C. A committee D. A task force

80. What is Henri Fayol known for?

A. Scientific management B. Bureaucratic management C. Human relations D. 14 principles of management

81. What is the span of control?

A. Chain of command B. Organizational structure C. Span of control D. Authority

82. What is decentralization?

A. Centralization B. Formalization C. Standardization D. Decentralization

83. What does contingency theory suggest?

A. Contingency B. Universal C. Fixed D. Permanent

84. What is responsibility?

A. Authority B. Responsibility C. Accountability D. Delegation

85. What school of management focuses on human behavior?

A. Scientific B. Administrative C. Bureaucratic D. Behavioral

86. Who is associated with the human relations movement?

A. Taylor B. Elton Mayo C. Fayol D. Weber

87. What type of system does not interact with its environment?

A. Open B. Dynamic C. Adaptive D. Closed

88. What function monitors performance and makes corrections?

A. Controlling B. Planning C. Organizing D. Leading

89. What is a strategy?

A. A tactic B. An objective C. A long-term plan for competitive advantage D. A policy

90. What is competitive advantage?

A. Cost advantage B. Differentiation C. Focus D. Competitive advantage

91. What model analyzes industry competitiveness?

A. SWOT B. Porter's Five Forces C. PEST D. BCG

92. What strategy targets a specific market segment?

A. Cost leadership B. Differentiation C. Diversification D. Focus

93. What strategy increases sales in existing markets?

A. Market development B. Product development C. Market penetration D. Diversification

94. What strategy enters new markets with existing products?

A. Penetration B. Product development C. Diversification D. Market development

95. Who is primarily responsible for strategic management?

A. CFO B. COO C. CEO D. HR manager

96. What is a merger?

A. Acquisition B. Merger C. Joint venture D. Alliance

97. What strategy defines how a firm competes?

A. Competitive B. Corporate C. Functional D. Operational

98. What strategy deals with day-to-day operations?

A. Corporate B. Operational C. Competitive D. Functional

99. What is a strategic plan?

A. A strategic plan B. A budget C. A forecast D. A report

100. What monitors the implementation of strategy?

A. Planning B. Evaluation C. Strategic control D. Formulation

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