HAT Subject (Business Administration) FLP 2 Free Quiz

1. What is accounting?

A. Recording, classifying, summarizing financial transactions B. Only recording C. Only classifying D. Only summarizing

2. What are the three categories in the cash flow statement?

A. Operating, investing, financing B. Operating only C. Investing only D. Financing only

3. What is accounts receivable?

A. Accounts payable B. Notes payable C. Accrued expenses D. Accounts receivable

4. What is net profit?

A. Gross profit B. Operating profit C. Net profit D. EBIT

5. What inventory method assumes first in, first out?

A. LIFO B. Weighted average C. Specific identification D. FIFO

6. What does the accounting cycle include?

A. Multiple steps B. Two steps C. Three steps D. Four steps

7. What entries are made at the end of the period?

A. Correcting entries B. Closing entries C. Adjusting entries D. Reversing entries

8. What basis matches revenues with expenses in the period?

A. Cash basis B. Modified basis C. Hybrid D. Accrual basis

9. What is business economics?

A. Applies economic theory to business decisions B. Macroeconomics C. Microeconomics D. Managerial economics

10. What does microeconomics study?

A. Economy as a whole B. International trade C. Individual markets and firms D. Fiscal policy

11. What does the law of demand state?

A. Decreases B. Increases C. Constant D. Unrelated

12. What does price elasticity of demand measure?

A. Price elasticity B. Income elasticity C. Cross-price elasticity D. Supply elasticity

13. What does inelastic demand mean?

A. More B. Equal C. Less D. Zero

14. What is fixed cost?

A. Variable cost B. Fixed cost C. Total cost D. Marginal cost

15. What is opportunity cost?

A. Accounting cost B. Economic cost C. Sunk cost D. Opportunity cost

16. What does monetary policy involve?

A. Monetary policy B. Fiscal policy C. Trade policy D. Industrial policy

17. What is a budget deficit?

A. Surplus B. Balanced C. Deficit D. Zero

18. What is a trade deficit?

A. Surplus B. Balanced C. Zero D. Deficit

19. What is secondary data?

A. Primary B. Original C. First-hand D. Secondary

20. What type of research uses non-numerical data?

A. Quantitative B. Qualitative C. Mixed D. Experimental

21. What type of research uses numerical data?

A. Quantitative B. Qualitative C. Descriptive D. Exploratory

22. What is a common method of collecting primary data?

A. Survey B. Experiment C. Observation D. Interview

23. What type of data collection method is an interview?

A. Quantitative B. Experimental C. Qualitative D. Observational

24. What is a pilot study?

A. Pilot study B. Main study C. Hypothesis test D. Sampling method

25. What type of scale measures attitudes on a scale?

A. Ratio B. Interval C. Likert D. Nominal

26. What is the independent variable?

A. Dependent B. Independent C. Control D. Moderator

27. What does correlation measure?

A. Correlation B. Causation C. Covariance D. Regression

28. What test compares means between two groups?

A. ANOVA B. T-test C. Chi-square D. Regression

29. What test compares means among three or more groups?

A. ANOVA B. T-test C. Chi-square D. Regression

30. What is a p-value?

A. Effect size B. Confidence interval C. P-value D. Standard error

31. What combines results from multiple studies?

A. Case study B. Meta-analysis C. Survey D. Experiment

32. What examines the content of communication?

A. Content analysis B. Survey C. Experiment D. Observation

33. What involves protecting participants and ensuring integrity?

A. Analysis B. Data collection C. Research ethics D. Reporting

34. What is the primary goal of financial management?

A. Profit maximization B. Market share C. Shareholder wealth maximization D. Revenue growth

35. What does the time value of money state?

A. Inflation B. Risk C. Return D. Time value of money

36. What does a positive NPV indicate?

A. Zero B. Negative C. Positive D. Uncertain

37. What is liquidity?

A. Liquidity B. Profitability C. Solvency D. Efficiency

38. What does the debt-to-equity ratio measure?

A. Liquidity B. Profitability C. Efficiency D. Debt-to-equity

39. What does DuPont analysis break down ROE into?

A. Profit margin, asset turnover, financial leverage B. ROA C. ROI D. ROS

40. What is WACC?

A. Cost of debt B. WACC C. Cost of equity D. Cost of preference

41. What is a financial ratio?

A. Absolute value B. Percentage C. Ratio D. Trend

42. What does the income statement show?

A. Balance sheet B. Cash flow statement C. Equity statement D. Income statement

43. What does the cash flow statement show?

A. Cash flow statement B. Income statement C. Balance sheet D. Equity statement

44. What is the relationship between risk and return?

A. Unrelated B. Positively correlated C. Negatively correlated D. Inversely related

45. What does diversification reduce?

A. Unsystematic risk B. Systematic risk C. Market risk D. Systemic risk

46. What is Human Resource Management?

A. Managing people in organizations B. Only recruitment C. Only training D. Only compensation

47. What is selection?

A. Recruitment B. Selection C. Interviewing D. Testing

48. What does training and development do?

A. Recruitment B. Selection C. Training and development D. Compensation

49. What is employee engagement?

A. Satisfaction B. Engagement C. Motivation D. Loyalty

50. What is 360-degree feedback?

A. Self-assessment B. 360-degree feedback C. Peer review D. Supervisor assessment

51. What type of interview uses predetermined questions?

A. Structured interview B. Unstructured interview C. Behavioral interview D. Situational interview

52. What type of interview focuses on hypothetical scenarios?

A. Behavioral B. Structured C. Unstructured D. Situational

53. What links compensation to performance?

A. Performance-based pay B. Seniority-based pay C. Skill-based pay D. Flat-rate pay

54. When are exit interviews conducted?

A. Performance appraisals B. Hiring interviews C. Exit interviews D. Promotion interviews

55. What is marketing?

A. Creating, communicating, delivering value B. Only advertising C. Only selling D. Only distribution

56. What is a target market?

A. Segmentation B. Target market C. Positioning D. Differentiation

57. What does branding create?

A. Branding B. Pricing C. Distribution D. Promotion

58. Which stage involves low sales and high costs?

A. Growth B. Introduction C. Maturity D. Decline

59. Which stage features rapid sales growth?

A. Growth B. Introduction C. Maturity D. Decline

60. What are distribution channels?

A. Promotion B. Pricing C. Product D. Distribution channels

61. What does promotion include?

A. Advertising, sales promotion, PR, personal selling B. Pricing C. Distribution D. Product

62. What is customer lifetime value?

A. Customer lifetime value B. Acquisition cost C. Retention cost D. Purchase frequency

63. What provides data for marketing decisions?

A. Advertising system B. Promotion system C. Distribution system D. Marketing information system

64. What is brand equity?

A. Price B. Quality C. Promotion D. Brand equity

65. What does "marketing myopia" mean?

A. Marketing myopia B. Customer focus C. Competitor focus D. Pricing focus

66. What is operations management?

A. Administration of business practices for efficiency B. Only production C. Only logistics D. Only quality

67. What involves managing stock levels and orders?

A. Capacity B. Inventory management C. Quality D. Scheduling

68. What inventory system aims to reduce holding costs?

A. Quality B. Scheduling C. Just-in-time D. Capacity

69. What uses statistical methods to monitor processes?

A. Statistical Process Control B. Quality control C. Quality assurance D. Inspection

70. What is the reorder point?

A. EOQ B. Safety stock C. Lead time D. Reorder point

71. What is lead time?

A. Lead time B. Reorder point C. Safety stock D. EOQ

72. What is a project management tool for scheduling?

A. Gantt B. PERT C. CPM D. WBS

73. What produces large quantities of standardized products?

A. Mass production B. Batch production C. Job production D. Lean production

74. What are motivators in Herzberg's theory?

A. Hygiene factors B. Maintenance factors C. Dissatisfiers D. Motivators

75. What is social loafing?

A. Groupthink B. Cohesion C. Conformity D. Social loafing

76. What is organizational culture?

A. Shared values, beliefs, norms B. Structure C. Strategy D. Climate

77. What is referent power?

A. Referent B. Expert C. Legitimate D. Reward

78. What is job satisfaction?

A. Commitment B. Job satisfaction C. Engagement D. Motivation

79. What is the halo effect?

A. Hawthorne effect B. Pygmalion effect C. Halo effect D. Placebo effect

80. How many conflict resolution strategies are there?

A. Two B. Three C. Five D. Six

81. What are the four functions of management?

A. Planning, organizing, leading, controlling B. Only planning C. Only organizing D. Only leading

82. Who is known as the father of scientific management?

A. Henri Fayol B. Peter Drucker C. Frederick Taylor D. Max Weber

83. What is Henri Fayol known for?

A. Scientific management B. Bureaucratic management C. Human relations D. 14 principles of management

84. What did the Hawthorne Studies highlight?

A. Scientific management B. Human relations C. Bureaucratic D. Administrative

85. What is the span of control?

A. Chain of command B. Organizational structure C. Span of control D. Authority

86. What does contingency theory suggest?

A. Contingency B. Universal C. Fixed D. Permanent

87. What is responsibility?

A. Authority B. Responsibility C. Accountability D. Delegation

88. What is a policy?

A. Policy B. Rule C. Procedure D. Strategy

89. What is competitive advantage?

A. Cost advantage B. Differentiation C. Focus D. Competitive advantage

90. What model analyzes industry competitiveness?

A. SWOT B. Porter's Five Forces C. PEST D. BCG

91. What defines the organization's purpose?

A. Vision B. Strategy C. Mission D. Objective

92. What strategy offers unique products or services?

A. Cost leadership B. Focus C. Differentiation D. Diversification

93. What strategy targets a specific market segment?

A. Cost leadership B. Differentiation C. Diversification D. Focus

94. What is diversification?

A. Focus B. Diversification C. Differentiation D. Cost leadership

95. What does the Balanced Scorecard include?

A. Four perspectives B. Financial only C. Customer only D. Internal only

96. Who is primarily responsible for strategic management?

A. CFO B. COO C. CEO D. HR manager

97. What is CSR?

A. Profit B. Shareholders C. Employees D. Corporate social responsibility

98. What strategy focuses on specific functions?

A. Corporate B. Competitive C. Operational D. Functional

99. What strategy deals with day-to-day operations?

A. Corporate B. Operational C. Competitive D. Functional

100. What is a strategic plan?

A. A strategic plan B. A budget C. A forecast D. A report

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