HAT Subject (Business Administration) FLP 3 Free Quiz

1. What is the accounting equation?

A. Assets = Liabilities - Equity B. Assets = Equity - Liabilities C. Assets = Liabilities + Equity D. Assets + Liabilities = Equity

2. What does a credit do to a liability account?

A. Increases assets B. Increases liabilities C. Decreases liabilities D. Decreases equity

3. What lists all accounts with their balances?

A. Income statement B. Trial balance C. Balance sheet D. Cash flow statement

4. What method spreads cost evenly over the asset's life?

A. Declining balance B. Sum-of-years C. Units of production D. Straight-line

5. What inventory method assumes first in, first out?

A. LIFO B. Weighted average C. Specific identification D. FIFO

6. What entries are made at the end of the period?

A. Correcting entries B. Closing entries C. Adjusting entries D. Reversing entries

7. What is a fiscal year?

A. Calendar year B. Fiscal year C. Month D. Quarter

8. What does GAAP stand for?

A. Global Accounting B. Government Accounting C. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles D. General Accounting

9. What is business economics?

A. Applies economic theory to business decisions B. Macroeconomics C. Microeconomics D. Managerial economics

10. What does microeconomics study?

A. Economy as a whole B. International trade C. Individual markets and firms D. Fiscal policy

11. What does inelastic demand mean?

A. More B. Equal C. Less D. Zero

12. What is a monopoly?

A. Perfect competition B. Monopoly C. Oligopoly D. Monopolistic competition

13. What is an oligopoly?

A. Perfect competition B. Monopoly C. Oligopoly D. Monopolistic competition

14. What is marginal cost?

A. Total cost B. Average cost C. Variable cost D. Marginal cost

15. What is fixed cost?

A. Variable cost B. Fixed cost C. Total cost D. Marginal cost

16. What is variable cost?

A. Variable cost B. Fixed cost C. Total cost D. Average cost

17. What is GDP?

A. GDP B. GNP C. NNP D. NDP

18. What is a budget deficit?

A. Surplus B. Balanced C. Deficit D. Zero

19. What is secondary data?

A. Primary B. Original C. First-hand D. Secondary

20. What type of research uses non-numerical data?

A. Quantitative B. Qualitative C. Mixed D. Experimental

21. What is a common method of collecting primary data?

A. Survey B. Experiment C. Observation D. Interview

22. What type of sample ensures equal chance of selection?

A. Systematic B. Random C. Stratified D. Convenience

23. What sampling method selects groups?

A. Stratified B. Random C. Cluster D. Systematic

24. What test compares means between two groups?

A. ANOVA B. T-test C. Chi-square D. Regression

25. What test compares means among three or more groups?

A. ANOVA B. T-test C. Chi-square D. Regression

26. What is a p-value?

A. Effect size B. Confidence interval C. P-value D. Standard error

27. What is a confidence interval?

A. P-value B. Effect size C. Standard deviation D. Confidence interval

28. What examines the content of communication?

A. Content analysis B. Survey C. Experiment D. Observation

29. What involves protecting participants and ensuring integrity?

A. Analysis B. Data collection C. Research ethics D. Reporting

30. What is the IRR?

A. Cost of capital B. Payback period C. Profitability index D. IRR

31. What does the debt-to-equity ratio measure?

A. Liquidity B. Profitability C. Efficiency D. Debt-to-equity

32. What does DuPont analysis break down ROE into?

A. Profit margin, asset turnover, financial leverage B. ROA C. ROI D. ROS

33. What does dividend policy determine?

A. Investment policy B. Financing policy C. Dividend policy D. Budgeting policy

34. What does the cash flow statement show?

A. Cash flow statement B. Income statement C. Balance sheet D. Equity statement

35. What is operating cash flow?

A. Investing cash flow B. Financing cash flow C. Operating cash flow D. Non-operating cash flow

36. What is capital structure?

A. Working capital B. Liquidity C. Profitability D. Capital structure

37. What does leverage refer to?

A. Equity B. Leverage C. Liquidity D. Profitability

38. What does diversification reduce?

A. Unsystematic risk B. Systematic risk C. Market risk D. Systemic risk

39. What does compensation include?

A. Only salary B. Only bonuses C. Only benefits D. Salary, wages, bonuses, benefits

40. What is job analysis?

A. Job design B. Job analysis C. Job description D. Job specification

41. What does a job description list?

A. Job description B. Job specification C. Job design D. Job analysis

42. What is performance management?

A. Appraisal B. Feedback C. Coaching D. Performance management

43. What type of interview focuses on hypothetical scenarios?

A. Behavioral B. Structured C. Unstructured D. Situational

44. What is a career path?

A. Job analysis B. Job design C. Job description D. Career path

45. What is mentoring?

A. Coaching B. Mentoring C. Training D. Counseling

46. What involves interactions between management and unions?

A. Employee relations B. Community relations C. Public relations D. Labor relations

47. What is collective bargaining?

A. Arbitration B. Collective bargaining C. Mediation D. Conciliation

48. What is marketing?

A. Creating, communicating, delivering value B. Only advertising C. Only selling D. Only distribution

49. What is market segmentation?

A. Targeting B. Positioning C. Differentiation D. Segmentation

50. What does branding create?

A. Branding B. Pricing C. Distribution D. Promotion

51. What is skimming pricing?

A. Penetration B. Competitive C. Skimming D. Discount

52. What are distribution channels?

A. Promotion B. Pricing C. Product D. Distribution channels

53. What builds a positive image and manages communication?

A. Advertising B. Personal selling C. Public relations D. Sales promotion

54. What is customer lifetime value?

A. Customer lifetime value B. Acquisition cost C. Retention cost D. Purchase frequency

55. What involves moral principles in marketing practices?

A. Strategy B. Segmentation C. Marketing ethics D. Distribution

56. What involves managing stock levels and orders?

A. Capacity B. Inventory management C. Quality D. Scheduling

57. What is a methodology for process improvement?

A. JIT B. Six Sigma C. TQM D. Lean

58. What is the bullwhip effect?

A. Inventory B. Scheduling C. Capacity D. Bullwhip effect

59. What uses statistical methods to monitor processes?

A. Statistical Process Control B. Quality control C. Quality assurance D. Inspection

60. What determines the optimal order quantity?

A. Inventory B. Scheduling C. Economic order quantity D. Capacity

61. What is the reorder point?

A. EOQ B. Safety stock C. Lead time D. Reorder point

62. What is lead time?

A. Lead time B. Reorder point C. Safety stock D. EOQ

63. What is a visual tool for scheduling tasks?

A. PERT B. CPM C. Flowchart D. Gantt chart

64. What breaks down a project into smaller components?

A. Gantt B. PERT C. WBS D. CPM

65. What is the 5S methodology?

A. Kaizen B. 5S C. Lean D. Six Sigma

66. What produces items in groups?

A. Mass B. Job C. Batch D. Lean

67. What produces custom products?

A. Mass B. Batch C. Lean D. Job production

68. What is the arrangement of physical resources?

A. Facility layout B. Process layout C. Product layout D. Cellular layout

69. How many levels are in Maslow's hierarchy?

A. Two levels B. Three levels C. Four levels D. Five levels

70. What are motivators in Herzberg's theory?

A. Hygiene factors B. Maintenance factors C. Dissatisfiers D. Motivators

71. What theory assumes employees are motivated and seek responsibility?

A. Theory Y B. Theory X C. Theory Z D. McGregor

72. What is leadership?

A. Management B. Authority C. Leadership D. Power

73. What dimensions did the Ohio State Studies identify?

A. Initiating structure and consideration B. Task vs relationship C. Directive vs participative D. Autocratic vs democratic

74. What is groupthink?

A. Cohesion B. Groupthink C. Polarization D. Loafing

75. What is organizational culture?

A. Shared values, beliefs, norms B. Structure C. Strategy D. Climate

76. What is power in organizations?

A. Authority B. Leadership C. Control D. Power

77. How many bases of power are there?

A. Three B. Five C. Four D. Six

78. What did the Hawthorne Studies highlight?

A. Scientific management B. Human relations C. Bureaucratic D. Administrative

79. What is decentralization?

A. Centralization B. Formalization C. Standardization D. Decentralization

80. What defines the purpose of an organization?

A. Vision B. Mission C. Strategy D. Objective

81. What does SWOT stand for?

A. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats B. Strengths, Weaknesses, Options, Threats C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Tactics D. Strengths, Weaknesses, Objectives, Threats

82. What organizational structure groups employees by specialty?

A. Divisional B. Matrix C. Functional D. Flat

83. What does contingency theory suggest?

A. Contingency B. Universal C. Fixed D. Permanent

84. What approach focuses on the entire organization?

A. Scientific B. Human relations C. Administrative D. Bureaucratic

85. What is authority?

A. Responsibility B. Accountability C. Power D. Authority

86. What school of management focuses on human behavior?

A. Scientific B. Administrative C. Bureaucratic D. Behavioral

87. What does the systems perspective view the organization as?

A. Interrelated parts B. Closed system C. Open system D. Fixed system

88. What is the first function of management?

A. Organizing B. Planning C. Leading D. Controlling

89. What function monitors performance and makes corrections?

A. Controlling B. Planning C. Organizing D. Leading

90. What is CSR?

A. Profit maximization B. Shareholder value C. Corporate social responsibility D. Market share

91. What is strategic management?

A. Formulating and implementing strategies B. Only planning C. Only implementation D. Only evaluation

92. What is competitive advantage?

A. Cost advantage B. Differentiation C. Focus D. Competitive advantage

93. What strategy targets a specific market segment?

A. Cost leadership B. Differentiation C. Diversification D. Focus

94. What matrix includes market penetration, development, product development, diversification?

A. Ansoff's matrix B. Porter C. BCG D. PEST

95. What strategy enters new markets with existing products?

A. Penetration B. Product development C. Diversification D. Market development

96. What does the Balanced Scorecard include?

A. Four perspectives B. Financial only C. Customer only D. Internal only

97. Who is primarily responsible for strategic management?

A. CFO B. COO C. CEO D. HR manager

98. What is CSR?

A. Profit B. Shareholders C. Employees D. Corporate social responsibility

99. What theory considers all stakeholders?

A. Shareholder B. Stakeholder C. Profit D. Market

100. What strategy deals with day-to-day operations?

A. Corporate B. Operational C. Competitive D. Functional

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