HAT Subject (Software Engineering) FLP 1 Free Quiz

HAT Subject (Software Engineering) – FLP 1

120:00

Answered: 0 / 100

Remaining: 100

Softwa

HAT Subject (Software Engineering) – FLP 1 consists of 100 MCQs covering 1 subjects. You have 120 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Software Engineering 100 MCQs

1. What is a sprint in Scrum?

A. A meeting B. A time-boxed iteration C. A release D. A backlog

2. What is the daily stand-up in Scrum?

A. A design review B. A testing meeting C. A retrospective D. A daily stand-up

3. What does CI/CD stand for?

A. Construction Integration B. Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery C. Development Integration D. Deployment Integration

4. What ensures code changes are ready for release?

A. Integration B. Deployment C. Continuous Delivery D. Monitoring

5. What automatically deploys changes to production?

A. Integration B. Delivery C. Testing D. Continuous Deployment

6. What is Infrastructure as Code?

A. Manual B. Infrastructure as Code C. Automated D. Scripted

7. What collects logs from multiple sources?

A. Integration B. Deployment C. Log aggregation D. Testing

8. What notifies teams about system anomalies?

A. Monitoring B. Testing C. Deployment D. Alerting

9. What does the DevOps lifecycle include?

A. Only build B. Plan, code, build, test, release, deploy, operate, monitor C. Only test D. Only deploy

10. What is pair programming?

A. Two developers together B. Solo C. Mob D. Remote

11. What does agile estimation often use?

A. Hours B. Story points C. Days D. Months

12. What is Object-Oriented Analysis and Design (OOAD)?

A. Using objects and classes for analysis and design B. Only design C. Only analysis D. Only implementation

13. What is "polymorphism" in OOAD?

A. Encapsulation B. Inheritance C. Polymorphism D. Abstraction

14. What does a class diagram in OOAD show?

A. Class diagram B. Sequence diagram C. Activity diagram D. State diagram

15. What does "association" mean in OOAD?

A. Inheritance B. Composition C. Aggregation D. Association

16. What is "multiple inheritance" in OOAD?

A. Multiple inheritance B. Single inheritance C. Encapsulation D. Abstraction

17. What is GRASP in OOAD?

A. A design pattern B. A framework C. A set of patterns for assigning responsibilities D. A method

18. What does a state diagram in OOAD model?

A. A class diagram B. A state diagram C. A sequence diagram D. An activity diagram

19. What is Software Configuration Management (SCM)?

A. Managing changes to software artifacts B. Only version control C. Only build management D. Only release management

20. What is a branch in version control?

A. A commit B. A tag C. A branch D. A merge

21. When does a conflict occur in version control?

A. Overlapping changes B. A bug C. A feature D. A tag

22. What ensures configuration items are consistent with documentation?

A. Audit B. Build C. Test D. Release

23. What creates separate lines of development?

A. Tagging B. Committing C. Merging D. Branching

24. What automates the build, test, and deployment process?

A. A pipeline B. A repository C. A branch D. A tag

25. What architecture organizes a system into layers?

A. Monolithic B. Client-server C. Layered D. Peer-to-peer

26. What pattern separates data, UI, and control logic?

A. MVC B. Layered C. Client-server D. Peer-to-peer

27. Which pattern helps decouple dependencies?

A. Singleton B. Factory C. Observer D. Dependency injection

28. What are the SOLID principles?

A. A testing framework B. A set of design principles C. A coding standard D. A development tool

29. What architecture structures an application as a collection of loosely coupled services?

A. Monolithic B. Microservices C. Client-server D. Layered

30. What does a class diagram in UML show?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. An activity diagram D. A state diagram

31. What does a sequence diagram in UML show?

A. Sequence diagram B. Class diagram C. Activity diagram D. State diagram

32. What does an activity diagram in UML model?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. An activity diagram D. A state diagram

33. What does a deployment diagram in UML show?

A. A sequence diagram B. A deployment diagram C. A class diagram D. A component diagram

34. What does a state diagram in UML model?

A. State diagram B. Sequence diagram C. Class diagram D. Activity diagram

35. What does a package diagram in UML do?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. A package diagram D. A deployment diagram

36. What is the first phase of the SDLC?

A. Design B. Implementation C. Requirements gathering and analysis D. Testing

37. What is the waterfall model?

A. Agile B. Iterative C. Spiral D. Linear sequential

38. Which phase of the SDLC involves correcting defects and enhancing functionality?

A. Design B. Implementation C. Maintenance D. Testing

39. What is a "sprint" in Scrum?

A. A meeting B. A release C. A time-boxed period D. A backlog

40. What model releases software in pieces?

A. Big bang B. Incremental C. Waterfall D. V-model

41. What is RUP?

A. Rational Unified Process B. Waterfall C. Agile D. Spiral

42. What is a common criticism of the waterfall model?

A. Flexibility B. Adaptability C. Rigidity and inability to accommodate change D. Speed

43. Which model is useful when requirements are unclear?

A. Prototyping B. Waterfall C. V-model D. Spiral

44. What approach follows a detailed plan with defined stages and deliverables?

A. Plan-driven B. Agile C. Lean D. DevOps

45. What approach adapts to changes and feedback throughout development?

A. Waterfall B. V-model C. Change-driven D. Spiral

46. What is software engineering?

A. Application of engineering principles to software B. Writing code only C. Testing only D. Design only

47. What is a software process?

A. A product B. A tool C. A set of activities D. A programming language

48. What are the main phases of software engineering?

A. Only coding B. Requirements, design, implementation, testing, maintenance C. Only design D. Only testing

49. How does the cost of fixing a defect change as it moves to later stages?

A. Increases exponentially B. Decreases C. Remains the same D. Is unpredictable

50. What is the "waterfall" model?

A. Iterative B. Spiral C. Sequential D. Agile

51. How does IEEE define software engineering?

A. Only development B. Only operation C. Only maintenance D. Development, operation, and maintenance

52. What is the software lifecycle?

A. Only coding B. Only testing C. Conception to retirement D. Only deployment

53. What do software engineering ethics require?

A. Only profit B. Public interest and confidentiality C. Only speed D. Only innovation

54. What is a "milestone" in software project management?

A. A significant event marking progress B. A bug C. A feature D. A tool

55. What is the "V-model" in software engineering?

A. Agile B. Spiral C. V-model D. Prototype

56. What does the "software engineering landscape" include?

A. Only tools B. Only methods C. Only processes D. Tools, methods, and processes

57. Which professional organization publishes standards for software engineering?

A. ISO B. ANSI C. IEEE D. ACM

58. What is software maintenance?

A. Modifying after delivery to correct, improve, or adapt B. Only debugging C. Only upgrading D. Only adding features

59. What type of maintenance fixes defects and errors?

A. Adaptive B. Perfective C. Preventive D. Corrective

60. What type of maintenance adapts to environmental changes?

A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Perfective D. Preventive

61. What does the second law of software evolution state?

A. Decreases B. Remains constant C. Increases over time D. Fluctuates

62. What does the fifth law of software evolution state?

A. Statistically regular B. Irregular C. Random D. Unpredictable

63. What is a legacy system?

A. A new system B. A test system C. An old system still in use D. A prototype

64. What is software aging?

A. Improvement B. Static C. Degradation over time D. Acceleration

65. What affects maintenance effort?

A. Only age B. Only size C. Only complexity D. Age, size, and complexity

66. What is software retirement?

A. Decommissioning B. Enhancement C. Bug fixing D. Refactoring

67. What development model is useful for adaptable systems?

A. Waterfall B. V-model C. Evolutionary D. Big bang

68. What assesses the effects of a change in maintenance?

A. A design review B. Impact analysis C. A test plan D. A user manual

69. Which type of maintenance involves software improvement?

A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Perfective D. Preventive

70. What does risk management include?

A. Identification, analysis, mitigation B. Identification only C. Analysis only D. Mitigation only

71. Who is responsible for planning, executing, and closing the project?

A. The developer B. The project manager C. The tester D. The analyst

72. What is agile project management?

A. Iterative and adaptive B. Sequential and rigid C. V-shaped D. Spiral

73. What contains tasks to be completed in a sprint?

A. Product backlog B. Sprint backlog C. Release backlog D. None

74. What is PERT used for?

A. A Gantt chart B. A WBS C. A method for scheduling with uncertainty D. A risk plan

75. What does the project closure phase involve?

A. Planning B. Execution C. Monitoring D. Project closure

76. What is requirements engineering?

A. Eliciting, analyzing, specifying, and validating B. Only eliciting C. Only specifying D. Only validating

77. What do non-functional requirements describe?

A. Features B. Functions C. Behaviors D. Quality attributes

78. Who is a stakeholder in requirements engineering?

A. Only users B. Anyone with a vested interest C. Only developers D. Only managers

79. What is an SRS?

A. A test plan B. A design document C. A Software Requirements Specification D. A user manual

80. What describes a sequence of actions to achieve a goal?

A. A test case B. A use case C. A design pattern D. A data flow

81. What does the "INVEST" criteria stand for?

A. A testing method B. A design pattern C. A project management tool D. Criteria for user stories

82. What maps requirements to design, code, and test cases?

A. A design tool B. A traceability matrix C. A test plan D. A code review

83. What does a "post-condition" in a use case specify?

A. Before B. After C. Optional D. During

84. What can lead to misinterpretation and defects in requirements?

A. Ambiguity B. Clarity C. Precision D. Completeness

85. What makes a well-written requirement?

A. Vague B. Untestable C. Unambiguous, testable, traceable D. Non-traceable

86. What is a use case diagram?

A. A test plan B. A design pattern C. A code structure D. A visual representation of actors and use cases

87. What is a requirement?

A. A feature B. A statement of what a system must do or have C. A design D. A test

88. Which standard provides guidelines for writing software requirements specifications?

A. ISO 9001 B. ISO 25010 C. IEEE 830 D. IEEE 12207

89. What is software testing?

A. Evaluating to find defects and ensure quality B. Only debugging C. Only code review D. Only deployment

90. What is Quality Assurance?

A. Testing only B. Debugging only C. Activities to ensure quality in process D. Deployment only

91. What type of testing tests individual components?

A. Integration B. System C. Acceptance D. Unit

92. What type of testing tests the complete system?

A. System B. Unit C. Integration D. Acceptance

93. What type of testing verifies user requirements?

A. Unit B. Integration C. Acceptance D. System

94. What type of testing tests without internal code knowledge?

A. White-box B. Gray-box C. Black-box D. Unit

95. What testing ensures new changes don't break existing functionality?

A. Unit B. Regression C. Integration D. Acceptance

96. What type of testing checks behavior under expected load?

A. Stress B. Load C. Performance D. Unit

97. What documents a defect found during testing?

A. Bug report B. Test case C. Test plan D. Test suite

98. What is CMMI?

A. A testing tool B. A process improvement framework C. A coding standard D. A design pattern

99. What is SPICE?

A. SPICE B. CMMI C. ISO 9001 D. IEEE 830

100. What does the "validation" process ensure?

A. Verification B. Testing C. Validation D. Debugging

Home Quick Quizzes Medical Colleges

Full Length Papers Free Quiz

For Daily Updates Follow Us

Country Wise Scholarships

🇵🇰 Pakistan's Scholarships 🇺🇸 USA's Scholarships 🇬🇧 UK's Scholarships 🇨🇦 Canada's Scholarships 🇨🇳 China's Scholarships 🇸🇦 Saudi Arabia's Scholarships 🇦🇪 UAE's Scholarships 🇲🇾 Malaysia's Scholarships 🇪🇺 Europe's Scholarships 🇰🇷 South Korea's Scholarships

MBBS BDS in China

"Past Paper and Practice Test Free Quiz"

Entry Tests Preparation

Free Online Quiz

Cadet Colleges Test

Online Practice English Gen Knowledge General Science Intelligence Mathematics

ECAT

Practice Test Chemistry Computer Science English Maths Physics

ECAT FLP 1 ECAT FLP 2

FAST

Entry Test Advanced Maths Analytical Skills Basic Maths English

FAST FLP 1 FAST FLP 2

GIKI

Practice Test English Maths Physics

GIKI FLP 1 GIKI FLP 2

HAT General

HEC Aptitude Test Analytical Reasoning Quantitative Reasoning Verbal Reasoning English

HAT General FLP 1 HAT General FLP 2

HAT Subject

HEC Aptitude Test Agriculture Biotechnology Business Administration Chemical Engineering Chemistry

HAT Subject FLP 1 HAT Subject FLP 2

HEC ETC

USAT A Entry Test USAT COM Entry Test USAT CS Entry Test USAT E Entry Test USAT GS Entry Test USAT M Entry Test

HEC ETC FLP 1 HEC ETC FLP 2

HEC LAT

Practice Test English General Knowledge Islamiat Pak Studies Urdu

HEC LAT FLP 1 HEC LAT FLP 2

IELTS

Practice Test Grammar Reading Vocabulary

IELTS FLP 1 IELTS FLP 2

Intelligence Test

AFNS ISSB PAF Pak Army Age Problem Blood Relations

ISSB Initial Tests

Academic Test Intelligence Test Chemistry English Physics Verbal

ISSB Initial Tests FLP 1 ISSB Initial Tests FLP 2

Join PAF

Academic Test Intelligence Test English Maths Physics Verbal

Join PAF FLP 1 Join PAF FLP 2

KMU CAT

Entry Test Biology Chemistry English Physics

MDCAT

BUMHS Past Papers DUHS Past Papers ETEA Past Papers IBA Past Papers NMDCAT Past Papers NUMS Past Papers PMC Past Papers Practice Test SZABMU Past Papers UHS Past Papers

MDCAT FLP 1 MDCAT FLP 2

NCAT

Practice Test Biology Chemistry English Logical Reasoning Physics

NCAT FLP 1 NCAT FLP 2

NTS

NAT IA Test NAT ICOM Test NAT ICS Test NAT IE Test NAT IGS Test NAT IM Test

NTS FLP 1 NTS FLP 2

NTS GAT General

Aptitude Test Analytical Reasoning Quantitative Reasoning Verbal Reasoning English

NTS GAT General FLP 1 NTS GAT General FLP 2

NTS GAT Subject

Aptitude Test Agriculture Biotechnology Business Administration Chemical Engineering Chemistry

NTS GAT Subject FLP 1 NTS GAT Subject FLP 2

NUST NET

Practice Test English Maths Physics

NUST NET FLP 1 NUST NET FLP 2

OET

Practice Test Grammar Reading Vocabulary

OET FLP 1 OET FLP 2

PU AHS

Entry Test English General Knowledge Islamiat Pak Studies Quantitative Reasoning

PU COM

Entry Test Accounting Commerce Economics English Quantitative Reasoning

PU CSS

Entry Test Computer Science English Maths Physics Quantitative Reasoning

PU E

Entry Test Chemistry English Logical and Analytical Thinking Maths Physics

PU GS

Entry Test English General Science Quantitative Reasoning

PU M

Entry Test Biology Chemistry English Physics Quantitative Reasoning

SZABMU AHS

Entry Test Biology Chemistry English Islamic Studies Pakistan Studies

View All Tests →

Facebook YouTube WhatsApp Instagram

Stay updated with latest news & updates

Aggregate Calculator

Calculate your MDCAT aggregate for MBBS admissions

Calculate Now →