HAT Subject (Software Engineering) FLP 2 Free Quiz

1. What does the Agile Manifesto value?

A. Processes over individuals B. Tools over individuals C. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools D. Both

2. What is the sprint backlog?

A. Product backlog B. Release backlog C. Sprint backlog D. None

3. What is the daily stand-up in Scrum?

A. A design review B. A testing meeting C. A retrospective D. A daily stand-up

4. What is the sprint review?

A. Sprint review B. Retrospective C. Daily stand-up D. Backlog grooming

5. What architecture enables independent deployment?

A. Monolithic B. Layered C. Microservices D. Client-server

6. What packages applications with dependencies for consistent environments?

A. Virtualization B. Emulation C. Simulation D. Containerization

7. What manages containers and their interactions?

A. Integration B. Orchestration C. Deployment D. Testing

8. What collects logs from multiple sources?

A. Integration B. Deployment C. Log aggregation D. Testing

9. What notifies teams about system anomalies?

A. Monitoring B. Testing C. Deployment D. Alerting

10. What is pair programming?

A. Two developers together B. Solo C. Mob D. Remote

11. What is test-driven development?

A. Code first B. Test after C. Tests before code D. No tests

12. What is backlog grooming?

A. A meeting B. A retrospective C. Backlog grooming D. A review

13. What is a "class" in OOAD?

A. An object B. A method C. A blueprint for creating objects D. A property

14. What is a "use case" in OOAD?

A. A class B. A use case C. An object D. A method

15. What does "association" mean in OOAD?

A. Inheritance B. Composition C. Aggregation D. Association

16. What does "composition" mean in OOAD?

A. Association B. Composition C. Aggregation D. Inheritance

17. What does "aggregation" mean in OOAD?

A. Aggregation B. Composition C. Association D. Inheritance

18. What is an "interface" in OOAD?

A. A class B. An interface C. An object D. A method

19. What is GRASP in OOAD?

A. A design pattern B. A framework C. A set of patterns for assigning responsibilities D. A method

20. What is the "controller" pattern in OOAD?

A. Singleton B. Factory C. Observer D. Controller

21. What is UML in OOAD?

A. A programming language B. A framework C. A database D. A standard notation for OOAD

22. What does a state diagram in OOAD model?

A. A class diagram B. A state diagram C. A sequence diagram D. An activity diagram

23. What does an activity diagram in OOAD model?

A. Activity diagram B. Class diagram C. Sequence diagram D. State diagram

24. What is Software Configuration Management (SCM)?

A. Managing changes to software artifacts B. Only version control C. Only build management D. Only release management

25. What is a key component of SCM that tracks changes to source code?

A. Testing B. Design C. Version control D. Deployment

26. What is a baseline in SCM?

A. A branch B. A tag C. A release D. A formally approved version

27. What is a branch in version control?

A. A commit B. A tag C. A branch D. A merge

28. What combines changes from different branches?

A. A commit B. A merge C. A tag D. A branch

29. What is another distributed version control system?

A. SVN B. Git C. Mercurial D. CVS

30. What is a release in SCM?

A. Build B. Test C. Release D. Commit

31. What defines the SCM processes for a project?

A. A test plan B. A configuration management plan C. A design document D. A user manual

32. What reverts to a previous version after a failure?

A. Commit B. Merge C. Rollback D. Tag

33. What architecture organizes a system into layers?

A. Monolithic B. Client-server C. Layered D. Peer-to-peer

34. Which pattern provides an interface for creating objects?

A. Singleton B. Observer C. Strategy D. Factory

35. Which pattern defines a one-to-many dependency?

A. Singleton B. Observer C. Factory D. Strategy

36. Which pattern helps decouple dependencies?

A. Singleton B. Factory C. Observer D. Dependency injection

37. What are the SOLID principles?

A. A testing framework B. A set of design principles C. A coding standard D. A development tool

38. What does the "Single Responsibility Principle" state?

A. Single Responsibility B. Open-closed C. Liskov Substitution D. Interface Segregation

39. What is a design pattern?

A. A code snippet B. A library C. A reusable solution D. A framework

40. What is SOA?

A. Service-Oriented Architecture B. Microservices C. Monolithic D. Client-server

41. What does a class diagram in UML show?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. An activity diagram D. A state diagram

42. What does an activity diagram in UML model?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. An activity diagram D. A state diagram

43. What does a component diagram in UML show?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. An activity diagram D. A component diagram

44. What does a deployment diagram in UML show?

A. A sequence diagram B. A deployment diagram C. A class diagram D. A component diagram

45. What does a package diagram in UML do?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. A package diagram D. A deployment diagram

46. What is the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

A. A framework describing activities at each stage B. A tool C. A programming language D. A final product

47. What is the first phase of the SDLC?

A. Design B. Implementation C. Requirements gathering and analysis D. Testing

48. What model creates a working model to refine requirements?

A. Waterfall B. V-model C. Spiral D. Prototyping

49. What SDLC model is based on iterative development and customer collaboration?

A. Agile B. Waterfall C. V-model D. Spiral

50. What is the "build and fix" model?

A. Waterfall B. Agile C. Spiral D. Build and fix

51. What is a "sprint" in Scrum?

A. A meeting B. A release C. A time-boxed period D. A backlog

52. What is a "backlog" in agile development?

A. A tool B. A document C. A meeting D. A prioritized list of features

53. What model releases software in pieces?

A. Big bang B. Incremental C. Waterfall D. V-model

54. What methodology focuses on eliminating waste and delivering value quickly?

A. Waterfall B. V-model C. Lean D. Spiral

55. What approach follows a detailed plan with defined stages and deliverables?

A. Plan-driven B. Agile C. Lean D. DevOps

56. What approach adapts to changes and feedback throughout development?

A. Waterfall B. V-model C. Change-driven D. Spiral

57. What is a software process?

A. A product B. A tool C. A set of activities D. A programming language

58. What are the main phases of software engineering?

A. Only coding B. Requirements, design, implementation, testing, maintenance C. Only design D. Only testing

59. What is a "milestone" in software project management?

A. A significant event marking progress B. A bug C. A feature D. A tool

60. What does the "separation of concerns" principle advocate?

A. Duplication B. Distinct features with minimal overlap C. Complexity D. Coupling

61. What is the "big bang" model?

A. Waterfall B. Agile C. Big bang D. Spiral

62. What does the "evolving" nature of software mean?

A. Static B. Fixed C. Unchanging D. Continuously improved and adapted

63. What is a software engineer?

A. Only coding B. All stages of development C. Only testing D. Only design

64. What is a "project" in software engineering?

A. A routine task B. A temporary endeavor with defined start and end C. A permanent organization D. A tool

65. What are the four types of software maintenance?

A. Only corrective B. Only adaptive C. Corrective, adaptive, perfective, preventive D. Only perfective

66. What type of maintenance adapts to environmental changes?

A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Perfective D. Preventive

67. What type of maintenance prevents future problems?

A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Preventive D. Perfective

68. What are Lehman's laws?

A. A testing method B. Laws describing software evolution C. A design pattern D. A coding standard

69. What does the third law of software evolution state?

A. Accelerates B. Is constant C. Unpredictable D. Self-regulating with declining growth

70. What is reverse engineering?

A. Building B. Reverse engineering C. Testing D. Deploying

71. What does MTBF measure?

A. Maintainability B. Usability C. Portability D. Reliability

72. What is software project management?

A. Application of knowledge, skills, and techniques B. Only scheduling C. Only budgeting D. Only risk management

73. What is a project charter?

A. A budget B. A schedule C. A risk plan D. A project charter

74. What is "scope creep"?

A. Fixed scope B. Uncontrolled changes to scope C. Reduced scope D. Completed scope

75. What is a PERT chart?

A. A Gantt chart B. A PERT chart C. A WBS D. A risk plan

76. What is a stakeholder?

A. Only team members B. Only customers C. Anyone with an interest D. Only sponsors

77. Who is responsible for planning, executing, and closing the project?

A. The developer B. The project manager C. The tester D. The analyst

78. What is agile project management?

A. Iterative and adaptive B. Sequential and rigid C. V-shaped D. Spiral

79. What agile method visualizes work in progress?

A. Scrum B. Waterfall C. Lean D. Kanban

80. What is Earned Value Management?

A. A schedule B. A budget C. A risk plan D. A method to measure performance

81. What is a deliverable?

A. A milestone B. A deliverable C. A task D. A risk

82. What is the WBS?

A. A hierarchical decomposition of work B. A schedule C. A budget D. A risk plan

83. What do non-functional requirements describe?

A. Features B. Functions C. Behaviors D. Quality attributes

84. What does the "INVEST" criteria stand for?

A. A testing method B. A design pattern C. A project management tool D. Criteria for user stories

85. What is a "quality attribute"?

A. A functional requirement B. A quality attribute C. A use case D. A user story

86. What is a "scenario" in requirements engineering?

A. A test case B. A use case C. A scenario D. A user story

87. What can lead to misinterpretation and defects in requirements?

A. Ambiguity B. Clarity C. Precision D. Completeness

88. What is the requirements document?

A. Official record of requirements B. A test plan C. A design document D. A user manual

89. What is software testing?

A. Evaluating to find defects and ensure quality B. Only debugging C. Only code review D. Only deployment

90. What type of testing tests individual components?

A. Integration B. System C. Acceptance D. Unit

91. What type of testing verifies user requirements?

A. Unit B. Integration C. Acceptance D. System

92. What is Beta testing?

A. Internal B. External users C. Developers D. Testers

93. What is gray-box testing?

A. White-box only B. Black-box only C. Unit only D. Combines both

94. What is sanity testing?

A. Full B. Regression C. Sanity D. Smoke

95. What type of testing evaluates speed and responsiveness?

A. Unit B. Integration C. Acceptance D. Performance

96. What type of testing checks behavior under extreme conditions?

A. Stress B. Load C. Performance D. Unit

97. What type of testing identifies vulnerabilities?

A. Performance B. Load C. Security D. Unit

98. What does the defect lifecycle include?

A. Only new B. Only fixed C. New, assigned, fixed, closed D. Only closed

99. Which standard defines quality models for software?

A. ISO 9001 B. IEEE 830 C. ISO 12207 D. ISO 25010

100. What does the "validation" process ensure?

A. Verification B. Testing C. Validation D. Debugging

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