MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 1 Free Quiz

Navigator180 Q

Biology

Chemistry

English

Logical Reasoning

Physics

Biology 81 MCQs

1. The cisternae breaks up into vesicles from of Golgi complex:

A. Convex, maturing face B. Convex, forming face C. Concave, forming face D. Concave, maturing face

2. Which of the following contain hydrolytic enzymes?

A. Vacuole B. Mitochondria C. Lysosome D. Chloroplast

3. The enzyme required for Kreb cycle founds in :

A. F1 particles B. Cytoplasm C. Lysosome D. Matric

4. In mitochondria ATP synthase is located on its:

A. Outer membrane B. inner membrane space C. inner membrane D. Matrix

5. The chloroplasts contain:

A. proteins only B. small circular DNA only C. ribosomes only D. Proteins, ribosomes and small circular DNA

6. The chemical compound has the same percentage(%) in the bacterial as well as the mammalian cell:

A. Carbohydrate B. Proteins C. Lipids D. Water

7. Mono-saccharides have a general formula represented by :

A. Cn(H2O)n B. C2(H2O)n C. C(H2O)n D. Cn(H2O)n

8. Which of the following compound is considered as the precursor of many hormones like testosterone, progesterone and estrogens?

A. Wax B. cholesterol C. Phospholipids D. Acylglycerol

9. The structure of fibrous protein comprises a polypeptide chain in the form of:

A. Clusters B. Flat uncoiled chains C. Spherical D. Long strands or fibrils

10. An enzyme and substrate reacts through a special feature or site present on:

A. Building site B. Active site C. Catalyst site D. Inhibitory site

11. If the co-factor is tightly, permanently and covalently bonded to enzyme then it is called:

A. Co enzyme B. Activator C. Prosthetic group D. Apo enzyme

12. Enzymes are derived from:

A. Proteins B. Nucleic acids C. Carbohydrates D. Vitamins

13. Induced fit model of enzyme activity suggests that an enzyme:

A. Cannot modify its active sites B. Can bind to a single substrate C. Can catalyse related reaction D. Usually belongs to non-regulatory enzyme

14. Lactase converts lactose into:

A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Galactose D. Glucose and galactose

15. In virus, a combined structure formed by core(nucleic acid) and capsid is:

A. Nucleocapsid B. Prion C. Envelope D. Capsomeres

16. Example of viruses having polyhedral capsid that is with 252 capsomeres is :

A. Adenovirus B. Tobacco mosaic virus C. Influenza virus D. Bacteriophage

17. Through which of the following does rabies spread?

A. Cat B. Fox C. Dog D. Pig

18. What does the term bacteriophage refer to?

A. A virus that infects bacteria B. A bacterium that infects virus C. A virus which behaves as bacteria D. Combination of Bacterium & virion

19. Disease caused by which virus that remain asymptomatic for 2 years?

A. HCV B. HIV C. HIV-2 D. HAV

20. Rabies is caused by :

A. Paramyxovirus B. Rhinovirus C. Arbovirus D. Rhabdovirus

21. Bacterial genome becomes diploid:

A. After fertilization of gametes B. Before spore formation C. During binary fission D. After binary fission

22. Which component is present only in the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria but Not in Gram-negative bacteria?

A. Teichoic acid B. Lipids C. Peptidoglycan D. Periplasmic space

23. The nervous system develops from which of the following layer during embryonic development:

A. Mesoderm B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm and endoderm

24. Which of the following belongs to chordates:

A. Spider B. Earthworm C. Trout Fish D. Star fish

25. In the journey of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I plastocyanin is reduced by:

A. Plastoquinone B. Cytochrome complex C. P700 D. Primary electron acceptor of PS-I

26. ATP is best defined as:

A. ATP B. The molecule that has no role in muscle contraction C. The molecule that releases energy when phosphate molecule is added D. The molecule that is only present inside the nucleus

27. Cellulose is:

A. Polyhexose B. polyketose C. polypentose D. polytriose

28. Food enters from stomach into small intestine through:

A. Pyloric sphincter B. Cardiac sphincter C. Semilunar valve D. Diaphragm

29. Label 'a' in the following diagram:

A. Cardiac sphincter B. sinoatrial valve C. stomach valve D. pyloric sphincter

30. Which enzyme is secreted in an inactive state, to prevent it from digesting its own cells?

A. Lactase B. Sucrase C. Maltase D. Pepsin

31. Lipid emulsification is done by:

A. pancreatic enzymes B. bile salts C. gastric juice D. salivary glands

32. The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into blood stream at?

A. Abdominal vein B. jugular vein C. Subclavian vein D. Bile duct

33. Antibodies are manufactured in:

A. T lymphocytes B. Red Blood cells C. Platelets D. B lymphocytes

34. Mature bone cells are called:

A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. osteoclasts D. Chondrocytes

35. Hip and shoulder joints are the joints that allow movement in several directions are e.g of:

A. Hinge joints B. Ball and socket joints C. Synovial joints D. Cartilaginous joints

36. Which of the following is highly inflammatory type of arthritis?

A. Gouty arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Acute arthritis

37. Taste buds on the tongue are of:

A. Pressure Receptors B. Chemoreceptors C. thermoreceptors D. Photoreceptors

38. It is the Seat of all conscious activities.

A. Hind Brain B. Cortex C. Spinal Cord D. Mid brain

39. L-dopa or levo dopa is used to get relief from:

A. Epilepsy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Parkinson's disease D. dementia

40. In human females, what is the small,pear shaped, muscular, distensible, sac-like organ where gestation takes place?

A. Uterus B. stomach C. Kidney D. Fallopian tube

41. Fertilization of ovum takes place in rabbit, man and other placental mammals in:

A. Ovary B. Uterus C. Cervix D. Fallopian tube

42. The particular array of chromosomes that an individual possesses is called the:

A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Karyotype D. Allele

43. Phenotype is:

A. The genetic complement i.e the genes in an individual for a particular trait B. Partner of gene pair C. The form of appearance of a trait D. The position of a gene on the chromosome

44. The basis of Lamarck theory of inheritance is:

A. Survival of the fittest B. Selection by nature C. Inheritance of acquired character D. Theory of special creation

45. The raw material that is used by natural selection for better survival is/are:

A. Variation only B. Mutation only C. Similarity D. Variation and mutation

46. The gene which control ABO group has how many alleles in an individual:

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

47. An oligosaccharide is made up of at least:

A. two saccharide units B. ten saccharide units C. three to ten saccharide units D. more than ten saccharide units

48. The main cause of acute kidney failure is:

A. Less sweating, B. Hypothermia C. Liver failure D. Drinking of excess water

49. If a round seeded pea plant is self-fertilized and all of its offspring are also round seeded:

A. Both parents and offspring must be true breed B. Both parents and offspring may be true breed C. Only parents but not offspring will be true breed D. Only offspring but not parents will be true breed

50. Atrioventricular valve closed during which phase of cardiac cycle:

A. Ventricular systole B. Ventricular diastole C. Atrial systole D. Atrial diastole

51. If fertilization does not occur, which part of uterus degenerate?

A. Myometrium B. Endometrium C. Perimetrium D. Cervix

52. Which property of water allows it to stick to polar surface like wood?

A. Density B. Adhesion C. Cohesion D. Non-polar attraction

53. What is the outcome of the lytic cycle?

A. Integration into host genome B. Production of new virions and lysis C. Host cell survival D. No new viruses

54. Which is endothermic and which is exothermic?

A. Endothermic, exothermic B. Exothermic, endothermic C. Both endothermic D. Both exothermic

55. What property do lipids have?

A. Hydrophobic B. Hydrophilic C. Water‑soluble D. Polymers

56. What bases are found in RNA?

A. A, G, C, T B. A, G, T, U C. A, G, C, U D. A, C, T, U

57. Which type of RNA carries amino acids?

A. tRNA B. mRNA C. rRNA D. DNA

58. What stabilizes secondary protein structure?

A. Covalent bonds B. Ionic bonds C. Hydrogen bonds D. Hydrophobic interactions

59. What is the characteristic of prokaryotic cells?

A. Have a nucleus B. Lack a nucleus C. Have many organelles D. Are larger

60. What are the phases of the cell cycle?

A. Interphase only B. Mitotic phase only C. Interphase and mitotic phase D. No phases

61. What does the autonomic nervous system control?

A. Involuntary functions B. Voluntary movements C. Skeletal muscles D. Sensation

62. Where are photoreceptors located?

A. Lens B. Retina C. Cornea D. Iris

63. What are the parts of the small intestine?

A. Duodenum and ileum B. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum C. Jejunum and ileum D. Duodenum only

64. What do villi and microvilli do?

A. Decrease surface area B. Increase surface area C. Do not affect D. Reduce absorption

65. What does the ileocecal valve separate?

A. Small intestine from stomach B. Small intestine from large intestine C. Stomach from esophagus D. Esophagus from mouth

66. Where does the substrate bind on an enzyme?

A. Allosteric site B. Active site C. Regulatory site D. Inhibitor site

67. What does a low Km indicate?

A. High affinity B. Low affinity C. No affinity D. Infinite affinity

68. What are the types of enzyme inhibitors?

A. Only reversible B. Only irreversible C. Reversible or irreversible D. None

69. What is the stored form of glucose in animals?

A. Starch B. Glycogen C. Cellulose D. Sucrose

70. What is gluconeogenesis?

A. Synthesis of glycogen B. Synthesis of glucose C. Breakdown of glucose D. Breakdown of glycogen

71. What are the first line defenses?

A. Physical barriers B. Chemical barriers C. Immune cells D. Antibodies

72. What can separate linked genes?

A. Crossing over B. Independent assortment C. Segregation D. Mutation

73. What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A. XXY B. XYY C. XXX D. XO

74. How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?

A. 23 pairs B. 22 pairs C. 24 pairs D. 46 pairs

75. Where does external fertilization occur?

A. Outside body B. Inside body C. In the uterus D. In the oviduct

76. How many ATP are produced by the electron transport chain?

A. 32 ATP B. 34 ATP C. 36 ATP D. 38 ATP

77. Where is NADH produced?

A. Glycolysis and Krebs cycle B. Only glycolysis C. Only Krebs cycle D. Electron transport chain

78. What is a component of the electron transport chain?

A. Cytochrome c B. NADH C. FADH₂ D. Oxygen

79. How many bones does the human skeleton have?

A. 206 B. 200 C. 212 D. 180

80. What is the theory of muscle contraction?

A. Sliding filament theory B. Cross‑bridge theory C. Contractile theory D. None

81. What are the functions of the skeleton?

A. Support, protection, movement B. Support only C. Protection only D. Movement only

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. The formula showing the simplest whole-number ratio of atoms in a compound is:

A. Ionic formula B. Structural formula C. Empirical formula D. Molecular formula

83. Percentage composition by mass in CO2 is:

A. 30% C & 70% O B. 25% C & 75% O C. 27.27% C & 72.72% O D. 40% C & 60% O

84. 1 mol of any substance contains -------- particles:

A. 6.02 × 10²³ B. 6.02 × 10²⁴ C. 6.02 × 10²² D. 3.01 × 10²³

85. Which gas obeys all gas laws?

A. Ideal gas B. CO2 C. O2 D. Cl2

86. The kinetic molecular theory of gases explains:

A. Mass number B. The behaviour of gases C. Atoms number D. Electron

87. Proton is --- times heavier than electron.

A. 1840 B. 1836 C. 1936 D. 2036

88. The value of Azimuthal quantum number "l" for 4p orbital is:

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

89. Which element has ground state electronic configuration of 1s2 ,2s2 2p6 , 3s2 3p6?

A. Ar B. Na C. Cl D. S

90. Unit of equilibrium constant for the reversible reaction H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI is:

A. No unit B. mol/dm³ C. mol•dm⁻³ D. mol'dm³

91. What is the proton (atomic number) of an element that has four unpaired electrons in its ground state?

A. 6 B. 21 C. 22 D. 26

92. Superoxide of group IA has formula:

A. M₂O B. MO₂ C. MO₂ D. M₂O₂

93. When potassium superoxide reacts with carbon dioxide, following products are formed:

A. K₂CO₃ + O₂ B. K₂CO₃ + CO C. KO₂ + CO₂ + [O] D. KO₂

94. Dehydrohalogenation of alkylhalide is carried out in presence of :

A. Alcoholic KOH B. Concentrated H2SO4 C. Aqueous KOH D. Zn Dust

95. Phenol and ethanol react with Na metal to form salt and ----.

A. Both form H B. Both form water C. H₂ and phenol form water D. H and Na oxide

96. Which of the following compounds is most acidic?

A. Water B. Ethanol C. Phenol D. Cyclohexanol

97. When CH₃-CH₂-OH is oxidized in the presence of K₂Cr₂O₇ and H₂SO₄, the product formed is:

A. CH₃-COOH B. H-COOH C. CH₃-C-OCH₃ D. CH₃-C-OCH₃

98. General formula of aldehyde is:

A. RCOOH B. RCOR C. RCOH D. ROR

99. Acetic acid is a weak acid than sulphuric acid because of which of the following reasons?

A. It decomposes on increasing temperature B. It has -COOH group C. It has less degree of ionization D. It has more inductive effect

100. Which of the following represents the functional group of acid halides?

A. R–OH B. R–COX C. R–X D. R–COOH

101. Ratio of sigma bonds and pi bonds present in benzene are:

A. 4:1 B. 1:4 C. 2:3 D. 6:1

102. The percentage of carbon in CH₄ is:

A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 80%

103. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is:

A. Δx.Δp ≤ h/2π B. Δx.Δp ≥ h/4π C. Δx.Δp = h D. Δx + Δp ≥ h

104. The cooling of gas upon expansion through a porous plug is:

A. Effusion B. Diffusion C. Brownian motion D. Joule-Thomson effect

105. Pressure of a gas is caused by:

A. Collisions with walls B. Molecular speed C. Molecular mass D. Intermolecular forces

106. The second law of thermodynamics states:

A. ΔS_universe > 0 B. ΔS_universe < 0 C. ΔS_universe = 0 D. ΔG = 0

107. The Law of Mass Action states:

A. Rate is constant B. Rate is independent of concentration C. Rate ∝ product of reactant concentrations D. Rate ∝ product of product concentrations

108. A very large Kc means:

A. Favors products B. Favors reactants C. Reaction is slow D. No reaction occurs

109. A catalyst has what effect on equilibrium?

A. No effect on equilibrium position B. Shifts equilibrium to right C. Shifts equilibrium to left D. Increases Kc

110. K_sp expression for AgCl is:

A. [Ag⁺][Cl⁻] / [AgCl] B. [Ag⁺][Cl⁻] C. [AgCl] / [Ag⁺][Cl⁻] D. [Ag⁺] + [Cl⁻]

111. Order of a reaction is:

A. m × n B. m + n C. m + n D. a + b

112. Mass deposited during electrolysis:

A. m = (M I t) / (n F) B. m = (n F I t) / M C. m = (M n F) / (I t) D. m = (I t) / (n F M)

113. Galvanization is coating with:

A. Coating with zinc B. Coating with copper C. Coating with tin D. Coating with chromium

114. A single bond in Lewis structure is:

A. One electron B. Two electrons C. Two electrons per bond (single) D. Four electrons per bond

115. Alkynes are also called:

A. Acetylenes B. Olefins C. Paraffins D. Arenes

116. Friedel-Crafts acylation adds:

A. Alkyl group B. Nitro group C. Sulfonic acid D. Acyl group

117. The functional group of carboxylic acids is:

A. -COOH B. -CHO C. -OH D. -COO-

118. The suffix for carboxylic acids is:

A. -al B. -one C. -oic acid D. -ol

119. Benzene has how many delocalized π-electrons?

A. 6 π-electrons B. 4 π-electrons C. 8 π-electrons D. 10 π-electrons

120. Alkyl fluorides are:

A. Most reactive B. Least reactive C. Reactive like iodides D. Reactive like bromides

121. CFCs are used as:

A. As fertilizers B. As food additives C. As refrigerants and propellants D. As fuels

122. IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂OH is:

A. Methanol B. Propanol C. Ethanol D. Butanol

123. Alcohol + Na gives:

A. No reaction B. Sodium salts and H₂O C. Sodium alkoxides and H₂ D. Sodium alkoxides and O₂

124. Malic acid is found in:

A. Found in apples B. Found in grapes C. Found in oranges D. Found in lemons

125. General formula of amino acids is:

A. R-CH₂-COOH B. R-CH₂-NH₂ C. R-CH(NH₂)-COOH D. R-CH(OH)-COOH

126. The region on an enzyme where substrate binds is:

A. Substrate B. Active site C. Product D. Coenzyme

English 9 MCQs

127. Spot the error: You have put your life in his hands many a times.

A. You have put your life in his hands B. many a times C. No error D. No error

128. Select the synonym for: Aghast

A. Critical B. Happy C. Reluctant D. Horrified

129. During the heavy rain, the sky (grew) dark. The underlined verb is:

A. Non-Finite B. Transitive C. Di-transitive D. Linking

130. Punctuate the given sentence correctly. The teacher asked did you complete your homework:

A. The teacher asked, did you complete your homework? B. The teacher asked, "Did you complete your homework?" C. The teacher asked, "did you complete your homework". D. The teacher asked, did you complete your homework.

131. Choose the correct tense to fill in the blank. When I opened my eyes, I__a straight line.

A. am seeing B. have seen C. was seen D. saw

132. What is the formal equivalent of "I'm gonna"?

A. I am going to B. I gonna C. I will gonna D. I am gonna

133. I would like some ____ after dinner.

A. Dessert B. Desert C. Desert D. Deserted

134. What does "cumbersome" mean in: "The cumbersome luggage was a burden to carry."

A. Light and easy B. Elegant C. Small D. Heavy and awkward

135. What does "intricate" mean in: "The intricate design was a masterpiece of art."

A. Simple B. Plain C. Detailed and complex D. Rough

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. How to reduce theft effectively?

A. Install CCTV cameras B. Increase police patrols C. Issue fines D. Reduce working hours

137. How to deter criminals?

A. Increase police patrols B. Install CCTV cameras C. Issue fines D. Reduce working hours

138. What reduces crime in streets?

A. Install CCTV cameras B. Increase police patrols C. Increase street lighting D. Issue fines

139. What external factor could explain growth?

A. Favorable world market B. Policy only C. No external factors D. Random chance

140. What comes next: Z, Y, W, V, T, ?

A. S B. R C. T D. U

141. What comes next: A, B, E, J, Q, Z, ?

A. K B. K C. J D. L

142. What is an O‑proposition?

A. Some S are not P B. All S are P C. Some S are P D. No S are P

143. If P then Q. Not Q. What follows?

A. Not P B. P C. Q D. Not Q

144. All squares are rectangles. All rectangles have four sides. What follows?

A. Squares have four sides B. Squares have three sides C. Rectangles are squares D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. The instantaneous velocity along the curved path is:

A. Along the tangent B. Perpendicular to the slope C. Parallel to radius D. Anti-parallel to the radius

146. Which of the following pairs correctly matches a physical quantity with its SI unit?

A. Energy – Newton B. Power – Watt C. Force – Joule D. Velocity – m/s

147. What is the time rate of change of linear momentum?

A. Acceleration B. Force C. Velocity D. Work

148. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Reaction force on a body is always balanced by the action force B. Reaction and action forces are always equal C. Action and reaction forces never act on the same body D. Newton's third law is always valid in all situations

149. Electricity consumption is calculated commercially in:

A. Kilo-watt B. Kilo-watt hour C. Mega Watt D. Giga watt

150. Four bulbs of 100W each, two bulbs of 100W, each works for 2 hours daily. The energy consumed in 30 days will be:

A. 4Kwh B. 1Kwh C. 2Kwh D. 36Kwh

151. Kilowatt hour is a unit of:

A. Energy B. Energy × time C. Power D. (power)(energy)

152. If period of mass M is 1s, period of 16M is:

A. 1 s B. 2 s C. 3 s D. 4 s

153. First law of thermodynamics concerns with the conservation of:

A. Heat B. Momentum C. Work D. Energy

154. 1 becquerel is equal to:

A. One decay per second B. Two decays per second C. Three decays per second D. Four decays per second

155. Radioactive decay is directly proportional to the stability of the:

A. Zener effect B. Atmosphere C. Isotopes D. Half-life

156. 1 Gy is equal to:

A. 1 Jkg B. 1 Jkg⁻¹ C. 1 J⁻¹kg D. J⁻¹K⁻¹

157. Which of the following is the longest wavelength of radiation for the Paschen series?

A. 187000000 m B. 0.00000187 m C. 187000000/m D. 0.00000187 /m

158. The protons in the nucleus of an atom DO NOT exit due to :

A. Electromagnetic force B. Gravitational Force C. Weak Nuclear Force D. Strong Nuclear Force

159. The magnetic flux through a loop of 1 m² in a 0.5T magnetic field is same as magnetic flux through a loop of 0.5 m² in a magnetic field of:

A. 1.0 T at 0° B. 1.0 T at 60° C. 2.0 T at 90° D. 0.5 T at 90°

160. During the drilling of a metal surface the drill bit heats up. This heat comes from the:

A. Vibration of the tool B. Work done against friction C. Flow of electric current D. Compression of air

161. The voltage across the capacitor in a series RLC circuit at resonance is:

A. In quadrature with source voltage B. In phase with source voltage C. 180° out of phase D. 90° out of phase

162. Ohm's law states that the current through a conductor is directly proportional to:

A. Voltage B. Resistance C. Power D. Charge

163. Kirchhoff's first law (junction rule) is based on the conservation of:

A. Charge B. Energy C. Momentum D. Mass

164. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting:

A. A high resistance in series B. A low resistance in parallel C. A high resistance in parallel D. A low resistance in series

165. The quantum of electromagnetic radiation is called:

A. Photon B. Electron C. Proton D. Neutron

166. The induced EMF in a coil rotating in a uniform magnetic field is given by:

A. E = E₀ sin ωt B. E = E₀ cos ωt C. E = E₀ tan ωt D. E = E₀

167. Eddy currents are minimized in transformer cores by:

A. Laminating the core B. Using thick core C. Using high conductivity material D. Using a solid core

168. A current of 5 A in a coil produces a magnetic flux of 0.2 Wb through the coil. The self-inductance is:

A. 0.04 H B. 1 H C. 0.2 H D. 25 H

169. If the magnetic flux through a coil is constant, the induced EMF is:

A. Zero B. Non-zero constant C. Infinite D. Alternating

170. The ratio of magnetic field on axial line to equatorial line at the same distance from a short dipole is:

A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:1 D. 4:1

171. A magnetic circuit is analogous to an electric circuit where the magnetomotive force (MMF) is analogous to:

A. EMF B. Current C. Resistance D. Conductance

172. In a p-type semiconductor, the majority charge carriers are:

A. Holes B. Electrons C. Protons D. Neutrons

173. The electric field due to a point charge q at distance r is:

A. E = k q / r² B. E = k q / r C. E = k q r D. E = k q / r³

174. The lift on an airplane wing is due to:

A. Bernoulli's principle B. Archimedes' principle C. Pascal's law D. Continuity equation

175. The acceleration of an object is inversely proportional to:

A. Mass B. Force C. Velocity D. Time

176. The force that keeps a satellite in orbit around Earth is:

A. Gravity B. Magnetic force C. Electric force D. Thrust

177. The nucleus that is most stable (highest binding energy per nucleon) is:

A. Iron-56 B. Uranium-238 C. Hydrogen-1 D. Carbon-12

178. The number of revolutions per unit time is called:

A. Frequency (f) B. Period (T) C. Angular velocity D. Speed

179. A flywheel has a large moment of inertia to store rotational energy. The energy stored is proportional to:

A. I ω² B. I ω C. ω² D. I²

180. At the highest point, the potential energy of the ball is:

A. Maximum B. Minimum C. Zero D. Equal to kinetic

For Daily Updates Follow Us

MBBS BDS in China

"Past Paper and Practice Test Free Quiz"

Country Wise Scholarships

Entry Tests Preparation

Follow Us

Aggregate Calculator