MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 10 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 10 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Chemically cell wall of fungi is made up of:

A. Cellulose B. Lignin C. Chitin D. Murein

2. In a typical compound microscope the resolution is 2um, which is about that of naked eye:

A. 200X B. 300X C. 400X D. 500X

3. Lipid synthesis and metabolism takes place in which of the following organelle?

A. Mitochondria B. Vacuole C. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

4. Which of following cells does not have nucleus:

A. Muscle cell B. Nerve cell C. WBC D. RBC

5. Which of the following is absent from membrane of prokaryotes?

A. Glycolipid B. Cholesterol C. Glycoprotein D. Phopholipid

6. How much temperature rise (°C) will be observed, as per definition of specific capacity, if energy is used to raise the temperature of 1gram of a substance?

A. 1°C B. 2°C C. 3°C D. 4°C

7. The most abundant carbohydrate in nature:

A. Waxes B. Starch C. GlyceroI D. Cellulose

8. Fatty acids are the organic compounds containing hydrogen, oxygen and one of the following:

A. –COOH B. 0 C. Acyl D. Sucrose

9. The number and sequence of amino acids along a polypeptide chain is called _ structure of a protein:

A. Quaternary B. Tertiary C. Primary D. Secondary

10. Which one of the following is found in both messenger RNA and DNA of a mammalian cell?

A. Double helical structure B. Ribose sugar C. Thymine D. Sugar-phosphate backbone

11. Enzymes are __________ in nature

A. Proteins B. Lipds C. Carbohydrates D. Vitamins

12. Enzyme works by lowering the ___ of the reaction they catalyze:

A. Kinetic energy B. Activation energy C. Heat energy D. Potential energy

13. Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by:

A. Increasing temperature B. Decreasing pH C. Decreasing activation energy D. Increasing activation energy

14. Most enzymes have an optimum temperature of around

A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 20

15. Competitive inhibitors compete with?

A. Enzyme B. Substrate C. Product D. Coenzyme

16. Enzymatic activity can be inhibited by:

A. Heavy metal ions B. Methane C. Mutase D. Noble gases

17. Cyanides are potent poisons of living organisms and can kill by inhibiting essential for cellular respiration:

A. Cytochrome Oxidase B. Dehydrogenase C. Hydrolases D. Nucleases

18. Which of the following is a rod-shaped virus?

A. Bacteriophage B. Herpes virus C. Hepatitis virus D. Tobacco mosaic virus

19. Which of the following is not true about viruses?

A. Can contain DNA B. Can infect bacteria C. Can replicate on their own D. They have a sub-cellular structure

20. Which of the following is not related to enveloped virus?

A. They survive for a short time. B. Their envelope is sensitive to sunlight C. They are tolerant to anti-bodies D. Envelope is derived from host

21. Which statement about bacteria is true:

A. Gram positive bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall B. Gram negative bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall C. Lipids are absent in cell wall of both gram +ve and -ve D. Both have equal amount of lipids

22. In which phase of bacterial growth, do they divide at exponential rate?

A. Lag phase B. Log phase C. Stationary phase D. Decline phase

23. Which of the following is NOT true about plasmids found in streptococci?

A. Carry fewer genes than the chromosome B. Replicate autonomously from the chromosome C. They are considered as genetic element D. The bacterial chromosome depends on plasmids for replication

24. Which of the following bacteria produces endospores?

A. Gram Negative B. Gram Positive C. Both D. Myobacterium

25. Which of the following are the genetically engineered bacteria that are used to make growth hormone and insulin for diabetics?

A. Pneumococcus B. E.coli C. Rhizobium D. Nostoc

26. Which of following statement is true about Amoeba?

A. They have flagella B. They are multicellular C. They don't cause disease in humans D. move by forming cytoplasmic projection called pseudopodia

27. Pseudo-coelomates have a body cavity but it is not true coelom. Which of the following is included in the group?

A. Planaria B. Tapeworm C. Earthworm D. Ascaris

28. Earthworm is an example of

A. Detritivores B. fluid feeder C. microphagous D. microphagous

29. Cephalothorax is present in:

A. Class crustacean B. Class insecta C. Class gastropoda D. class myriapoda

30. Which part of chlorophyll molecule absorbs light?

A. Phytol B. Pyrrole ring C. Porphyrin ring D. Thylakoid membrane

31. Which scientist among the following hypothesized that plants split water to release oxygen as a product?

A. Van Niel B. Lysenko C. Calvin D. Kreb

32. Which mechanism would be compromised in the absence of cytochrome complex during light reactions of photosynthesis?

A. Reduction of reaction center chlorophyll B. Photolysis of water C. Oxidation of primary electron receptor D. Establishment of proton gradient across thylakoid membrane

33. The emulsification of fats is the role of:

A. Saliva B. Pancreatic juice C. Gastrin D. Bile

34. Smooth muscles are found in all mentioned below except :

A. Trachea B. Bronchioles C. Bronchi D. Alveoli

35. Carnivorous adaptation of plants, due to relatively low content of:

A. Nitrogen B. Potassium C. Sulphur D. Calcium

36. Right atrium is separated from right ventricle by:

A. Tricuspid valve B. Bicuspid valve C. Semilunar valve D. Septum

37. What directly triggers the activation of natural killer cells?

A. Free radicals B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Interferons D. Oxygen

38. The system that drains blood back from the body to the circulatory system is :

A. Lymphatic system B. Digestive system C. Cardiovascular system D. Immune system

39. Which of the following is true about bradykinin?

A. It is produced at the site of tissue injury B. It has no role in the leakage of fluids into the tissues in inflammation C. It destroys phagocytes D. It produces interferon gamma

40. Which type of joint is present between ribs and vertebrae?

A. Fixed joints B. Moveable joints C. Ball and socket joints D. partially moveable joints

41. Myofibrils within the muscle fibers contain thick and thin filaments made up of ------ and ------ respectively

A. Myosin and actin B. Globulin and Albumin C. Troponin and tropomyosin D. Fibrin and fibrinogen

42. A muscle with characters like single nucleus per cell and no control over contraction is:

A. skeletal muscle B. smooth muscle C. cardiac muscle D. visceral muscle

43. The part of neuron fibre which conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is:

A. Dendron B. dendrites C. Axon D. Peripheral branch

44. The nerve impulse which travels from node to node in myelinated neurons is called as:

A. Resting membrane Potential B. Saltatory nerve impulse C. Threshold stimulus D. Initial nerve impulse

45. The value of the active membrane potential of the neuron is:

A. 0.01 Volts B. 0.05 Volts C. 0.02 Volts D. 0.07 Volts

46. The gap between neurons at a synapse is:

A. Synaptic knob B. Synaptic cleft C. Synaptic delay D. synaptic vesicle

47. The CNS is protected by:

A. 3layers of meninges B. 1 layer of meninges C. 4 layers of meninges D. 2 layers of meninges

48. Which of the following is known as master gland?

A. Pituitary B. Adrenaline C. Insulin D. Thyroxin

49. Which hormone is chemically a steroid?

A. ADH B. Thyroxine C. cortisone D. Insulin

50. The function of hyaluronidase enzyme is:

A. Penetration of sperm into the ovum B. entrance of sperm into the Fallopian tube C. Inactivation of sperm after their failure to fertilize ovum D. None of these

51. Due to the process of follicle atresia:

A. Follicles reach maximum size B. Follicle degenerates C. Graafian follicle ovulates D. follicle starts to mature

52. When humans purposefully apply selection pressure to populations, the process is known as:

A. Natural selection B. Evolution C. Artificial selection D. Genetic Drift

53. This theory says that "mitochondria and chloroplasts are ancient bacteria which now live inside the larger cells":

A. Darwin's theory of evolution B. Lamarckinism C. Neo-darwinism D. Endosymbiontic theory

54. Phenotype for both TT and Tt is tall, so the allele T is known as:

A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Homozygous D. Heterozygous

55. Which part of the brain contains central chemoreceptors that monitor CO2 levels in blood?

A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Hypothalamus D. Medulla oblongata

56. Which of the following is the correct pathway of nerve impulse?

A. Receptors--- CNS--- Effectors B. Effectors--- Receptors --- CNS C. CNS--- Effectors--- Receptors D. Effectors --- CNS --- Receptors

57. The joints which cause rotational movements are

A. Hinge B. Ball and Socket C. Cartilage D. Sutures

58. A person in hot weather is unable to maintain body temperature. Which physiological process has failed?

A. Vasodilation & sweating B. Vasoconstriction C. Shivering D. Renin secretion

59. The other name for Interstitial cells in male testes is:

A. Laying cell B. Spermatogonia cell C. Sertoli cell D. Spermatocyte

60. What are the products of the Krebs cycle?

A. Only ATP B. Only NADH C. CO₂, ATP, NADH, FADH₂ D. Only CO₂

61. What is the role of cellulose in plants?

A. Energy storage B. Structural support C. Cell membrane component D. Enzyme

62. Which type of RNA carries amino acids?

A. tRNA B. mRNA C. rRNA D. DNA

63. What type of bond links monosaccharides?

A. Peptide bonds B. Glycosidic bonds C. Phosphodiester bonds D. Hydrogen bonds

64. How does gel electrophoresis separate DNA fragments?

A. Based on charge B. Based on size C. Based on sequence D. Based on color

65. What is synthetic biology?

A. Designing new biological systems B. Studying existing organisms C. Cloning existing organisms D. Modifying existing systems

66. What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A. Modifies and packages proteins B. Synthesizes proteins C. Synthesizes lipids D. Digests waste

67. What is the function of platelets?

A. Blood clotting B. Carry oxygen C. Fight infection D. Transport hormones

68. What are chemical messengers at synapses called?

A. Hormones B. Neurotransmitters C. Enzymes D. Antibodies

69. What does lipase digest?

A. Lipids into fatty acids and glycerol B. Proteins into amino acids C. Starch into glucose D. Nucleic acids into nucleotides

70. What is segmentation?

A. Moves food forward B. Mixes food C. Absorbs nutrients D. Secretes enzymes

71. How old are the oldest fossils?

A. Billions of years old B. Millions of years old C. Thousands of years old D. Recent

72. What does the glomerulus do?

A. Filters blood B. Reabsorbs water C. Secretes ions D. Carries urine

73. What happens in autoimmune diseases?

A. Self‑tolerance fails B. Self‑tolerance is strong C. Non‑self tolerance fails D. No tolerance

74. What can separate linked genes?

A. Crossing over B. Independent assortment C. Segregation D. Mutation

75. What is implantation?

A. Embedding of embryo B. Release of egg C. Fertilization D. Formation of placenta

76. What is double fertilization?

A. Double fertilization B. Single fertilization C. Triple fertilization D. No fertilization

77. Which mammals lay eggs?

A. Monotremes B. Marsupials C. Placental mammals D. None

78. What is the total ATP yield from aerobic respiration?

A. 30‑32 B. 34‑36 C. 36‑38 D. 40‑42

79. In which cells does lactic acid fermentation occur?

A. Muscle cells B. Yeast C. Plant cells D. Bacteria

80. Why is respiration essential?

A. Provides energy B. Produces oxygen C. Produces glucose D. None

81. What protects the brain?

A. Skull B. Rib cage C. Vertebral column D. Pelvis

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. 0.5 molar solution of NaOH contains:

A. 40g NaOH in 1 dm³ B. 80g NaOH in 1 dm³ C. 10g NaOH in 1 dm³ D. 20g NaOH in 1 dm³

83. Solids which are more volatile:

A. Ionic B. Covalent C. Molecular D. Metallic

84. The two crystals NaNO₃ & CaCO₃ are both trigonal, they are:

A. Isomers B. Polymorphs C. Allotropes D. Enantiomers

85. The bond which is based on attractive forces between oppositely charged ions is:

A. Covalent bond B. Dative bond C. Ionic bond D. Metallic bond

86. First law of thermodynamics is represented as:

A. ΔH = q + w B. ΔE = q + w C. ΔH = ΔE + W D. ΔH = ΔE + q

87. At equilibrium in a reversible reaction:

A. Rate of backward reaction > rate of forward reaction B. Rate of forward reaction > rate of backward reaction C. Rate of forward reaction = rate of backward reaction D. Rate of forward = backward & concentrations are constant

88. In which of the following does oxygen show a fractional oxidation number?

A. OF₂ B. Na₂O₂ C. KO₂ D. Cl₂O₇

89. The rate of reaction:

A. Increases as the reaction proceeds B. Decreases as the reaction proceeds C. Remains the same as the reaction proceeds D. Remains the same initially & then increases

90. Which one of the following elements has the largest second ionization energy?

A. K B. Ca C. Cl D. Bi

91. Element with highest boiling point is:

A. Mn B. Sc C. V D. Zn

92. Which of the following is not a thermosetting polymer?

A. Synthetic varnish B. Epoxy resins C. PVC D. Both a & b

93. The isomers of a substance must have:

A. Same molecular mass B. Same chemical properties C. Same structural formula D. Same functional group

94. The final substitution product in chlorination of methane (with UV light & excess Cl₂) is:

A. Methylene chloride B. Carbon tetrachloride C. Methylene dichloride D. Chloroform

95. Which compound is obtained by the dehydrohalogenation of bromopropane?

A. Propene B. Butene C. Ethene D. Propane

96. Consider the reaction given below: CH₃CH₂Br → H₂C=CH₂ + HBr Mechanism followed by the reaction is:

A. E2 B. E1 C. SN1 D. SN2

97. Which process is used to convert alcohol into ether?

A. Dehydration B. Oxidation C. Hydrolysis D. Hydrogenation

98. Which one of the following reagents is used to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones?

A. Alkaline iodine B. Tollen's reagent C. Bromine D. 2,4-DNPH

99. The blue color of Fehling's solution changes to red when warmed with an aldehyde due to the formation of:

A. NO₂ B. Cu₂O C. Ag D. SO₂

100. Ketones undergo reduction to form:

A. Primary alcohol B. Secondary alcohol C. Tertiary alcohol D. Both b & c

101. Oxidation numbers of X,Y,Z are +6, -2, & -1 respectively, possible molecular formula when atoms combine:

A. XYZ B. XYZ2 C. XYZ3 D. XYZ2

102. Consider the given reaction: N2+3H2→2NH3. If 56 g of N2 reacts with 12 g of H2 and produces 51 g of NH3, what is the theoretical yield (TY) of NH3 and the percentage yield (PY) of the reaction? (Molar mass of N2 = 28 g/mol, H2 = 2 g/mol and NH3 = 17 g/mol)

A. TY = 68 g and PY = 75% B. TY = 34 g and PY = 67% C. TY = 68 g and PY = 33% D. TY = 34 g and PY = 75%

103. The mass of one mole of electrons is:

A. 1.008 mg B. 0.55 mg C. 9.1 x 10⁻²⁸ g D. 1.67 x 10⁻²⁴ g

104. The volume occupied by 1 mole of any gas at STP is known as:

A. Molar volume B. Molecular volume C. Atomic volume D. Specific volume

105. The empirical formula of glucose is:

A. CH₂O B. C₆H₁₂O₆ C. C₂H₄O₂ D. C₃H₆O₃

106. Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?

A. H₂ B. O₂ C. O₃ D. N₂

107. The empirical formula of hydrogen peroxide is:

A. HO B. H₂O₂ C. H₂O D. H₂

108. Surface tension is defined as:

A. Force per unit area B. Force per unit length C. Energy per unit area D. Pressure per unit area

109. Schottky defect involves:

A. Cation vacancy only B. Interstitial atom C. Anion vacancy only D. Pair of cation and anion vacancies

110. p-type semiconductor is formed by doping with:

A. Pentavalent impurity B. No impurity C. Trivalent impurity (e.g., B) D. Divalent impurity

111. Kc changes only with:

A. Concentration B. Temperature C. Pressure D. Catalyst

112. Pure solids in Kc expression:

A. Included with concentration 0 B. Included with concentration 1 C. Not included (activity = 1) D. Included as solids

113. Electrolysis of molten NaCl produces:

A. Na⁺ to Na at anode B. Cl⁻ to Cl₂ at cathode C. Na⁺ to Na₂ at cathode D. Na⁺ to Na at cathode, Cl⁻ to Cl₂ at anode

114. White phosphorus is stored under:

A. Is not reactive B. Stored under oil C. Stored under water D. Stored in air

115. Crystal field theory explains:

A. Splitting of d-orbitals B. Splitting of s-orbitals C. Splitting of p-orbitals D. Splitting of f-orbitals

116. Lanthanides predominantly show:

A. Only +3 B. +2 and +3 C. +3 and +4 D. Predominantly +3, but variable

117. Electronegativity difference determines:

A. Only ionic B. Ionic, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent C. Only covalent D. Only metallic

118. Formal charge is:

A. Actual charge on atom B. Oxidation number C. Ionic charge D. Charge assuming equal sharing

119. The essential element in all organic compounds is:

A. Oxygen B. Hydrogen C. Carbon D. Nitrogen

120. The suffix for aldehydes is:

A. -al B. -ol C. -one D. -oic acid

121. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl is:

A. 1-chloropropane B. 2-chloropropane C. Chloropropane D. 1-chlorobutane

122. Aspirin is prepared by:

A. Acetylation of salicylic acid B. Hydrolysis of salicylic acid C. Oxidation of salicylic acid D. Reduction of salicylic acid

123. Quaternary structure involves:

A. Single chain 3D shape B. Multiple subunits arrangement C. Linear sequence D. α-helix

124. Saturated fatty acids:

A. Have double bonds B. Have no double bonds C. Are liquid at room temperature D. Have no double bonds (solid)

125. Tollens' test is positive for:

A. Ketones give silver mirror B. Aldehydes give silver mirror C. Both give silver mirror D. Aldehydes give silver mirror

126. Carbonyl oxygen is:

A. Acidic B. Basic C. Neutral D. Amphoteric

English 9 MCQs

127. Choose the correct sentence:

A. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed in the job B. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed by the job C. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed on the job D. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed for the job

128. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Shahid battered Anwar down submission B. Shahid battered Anwar into submission C. Shahid down battered Anwar into submission D. Shahid was battered Anwar down submission

129. Select the synonym for: Faux

A. Blunder B. Indiscretion C. Mistake D. FALSE

130. Identify the error in the sentence: "His the car is red."

A. It is a correct sentence. B. The article "His" is unnecessary. C. The word order is incorrect; it should be "His car is red." D. The adjective "red" should be "blue."

131. I am as much intelligent as _____.

A. he B. himself C. him D. his

132. What is the meaning of "diligent" in: "The diligent student studied for hours every day, determined to achieve the highest grade."

A. Lazy B. Forgetful C. Hard-working D. Careless

133. What does "hesitated" mean in: "She hesitated at the door, unsure if she should enter the room."

A. Paused B. Rushed C. Laughed D. Cried

134. Which sentence is more formal in tone?

A. There are many examples, e.g., apples, oranges, and bananas. B. There are many examples, such as apples, oranges, and bananas. C. There are many examples including apples, oranges, and bananas. D. There are many examples like apples, oranges, and bananas.

135. Choose the correct preposition: "The secret was shared ____ the two friends."

A. The secret was shared among the two friends. B. The secret was shared among the two friends. C. The secret was shared between the two friends. D. The secret was shared between the two friends.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What do subsidies result in?

A. Increased industrial output B. Economic growth C. Stagnation D. Hyperinflation

137. What might be wrong with the survey method?

A. The sample is representative B. Selection bias possible C. Data is irrelevant D. The survey is too large

138. What is the nature of the claim in "everyone believes it"?

A. Unsubstantiated claim B. Substantiated claim C. Evidence based D. Logical

139. What comes next: A, J, S, B, K, ?

A. T B. T C. S D. U

140. How does Boolean interpretation treat universal propositions?

A. Existential import B. No existential import C. Both D. None

141. What conclusion follows from two affirmative premises?

A. Affirmative conclusion B. Negative conclusion C. Either D. No conclusion

142. If A is left of B, and C is right of B, where is C relative to A?

A. C is right of A B. A is right of C C. B is left of A D. C is left of A

143. If a number is even, it is divisible by 2. 10 is divisible by 2. What can you conclude?

A. 10 is even B. 10 is odd C. 10 is divisible by 2 D. No conclusion

144. All vehicles have wheels. Bicycles are vehicles. What follows?

A. Bicycles have wheels B. Bicycles do not have wheels C. Some vehicles have wheels D. Wheels are for vehicles

Physics 36 MCQs

145. The escape velocity of a body in the gravitational field of Earth is dependent on:

A. Launch angle B. Mass & angle both C. Mass of Earth D. Mass of the body

146. If slope of velocity-time graph is not constant at different points then body is moving with:

A. Uniform velocity B. Average acceleration C. Increasing acceleration D. Constant acceleration

147. The product of force and time is equal to:

A. Angular momentum B. Force C. Change in momentum D. Velocity

148. A nurse is pushing a wheelchair with an 80 Kg patient sitting on it. How much work is done by the patient's weight?

A. Half of the work B. Minimum work C. Maximum work D. No work

149. The product of force and velocity is:

A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Power D. Work done

150. The relation between angular and linear velocity is:

A. v = r/w B. v = rw C. w = v/r D. w = v/r

151. If during circular motion, tangential velocity of a body becomes double, the centripetal force:

A. same B. double C. four times D. eight times

152. The speed of sound in air is 332m/s. The speed of sound at 22°C will be:

A. 345.2m/s B. 340 m/s C. 350 m/s D. 330 m/s

153. First law of thermodynamics is manifestation of:

A. Law of conservation of charge B. Law of conservation of mass C. Law of conservation of momentum D. Law of conservation of energy

154. Which law explains the relation between amount of charges and force between them?

A. Ohm's law B. Lenz's law C. Coulomb's law D. Ampere's law

155. The SI unit of electric potential is:

A. Volt B. Coulomb C. Ampere D. Ohm

156. A capacitor of capacitance 'C' has a charge 'Q' and stored energy is 'w'. If the charge is increased to '2Q'. The stored energy will be:

A. 2W B. W/4 C. 4W D. W/2

157. The SI unit of capacitance is:

A. Watt B. Henry C. Farad D. Joule

158. The induced current will flow in a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces it is statement of:

A. Ampere's law B. Faraday's law C. Lenz's law D. Joule's law

159. Lenz' law is a form of the:

A. Law of conservation of momentum B. Law of conservation of charge C. Law of conservation of angular momentum D. Law of conservation of energy

160. The radiation emitted by warm-blooded animals lies in the region of:

A. Visible B. Ultraviolet C. Infrared D. X-rays

161. The path difference between two sound waves coming from a coherent source of wavelength 50 cm at a point is 100 cm. The superposition of the waves at that point produces:

A. Beats B. Echo C. Loudness D. Silence

162. The energy level diagram of hydrogen shows that energy levels are:

A. Negative and discrete B. Positive and discrete C. Continuous D. Zero

163. The principle of complementarity in quantum mechanics was introduced by:

A. Bohr B. Einstein C. Heisenberg D. Schrodinger

164. An ideal transformer has efficiency:

A. 100% B. 0% C. 50% D. Depends on load

165. A current loop placed in a magnetic field tends to align its magnetic moment:

A. Parallel to the field B. Anti-parallel to the field C. Perpendicular to the field D. At any angle

166. A flip-flop is a circuit that can store:

A. One bit of data B. One byte C. One word D. Multiple bits

167. A dielectric material inserted between capacitor plates:

A. Increases capacitance B. Decreases capacitance C. Has no effect D. Destroys the capacitor

168. The electrostatic force between two charges in a medium of dielectric constant K is:

A. F = F₀ / K B. F = F₀ K C. F = F₀ D. F = F₀ / K²

169. For an incompressible fluid, the product of cross-sectional area and velocity is:

A. Constant B. Variable C. Zero D. Infinite

170. In a perfectly inelastic collision, the objects:

A. Stick together after collision B. Bounce apart C. Move separately D. Lose all momentum

171. The force of gravity between two masses is given by:

A. F = G m1 m2 / r² B. F = G m1 m2 / r C. F = G m1 m2 r² D. F = G (m1+m2)/r²

172. When an object moves in a circle at constant speed, its velocity:

A. Changes direction B. Is constant C. Is zero D. Increases

173. For a thin rod of length L rotating about one end, the moment of inertia is:

A. 1/3 m L² B. 1/12 m L² C. m L² D. 2/3 m L²

174. For a diatomic ideal gas, C_v = 5/2 R (at moderate T). The value of γ is:

A. 7/5 B. 5/3 C. 7/3 D. 4/3

175. The scalar projection of vector A on vector B is given by:

A. |A| cosθ B. |A| sinθ C. |A| D. |B| cosθ

176. The phase difference between two points separated by half a wavelength is:

A. π radians (180°) B. 2π radians (360°) C. π/2 D. 0

177. If two sound waves have frequencies 256 Hz and 260 Hz, the beat frequency is:

A. 4 Hz B. 516 Hz C. 2 Hz D. 8 Hz

178. Work is defined as the product of force and displacement in the direction of the force. The SI unit of work is:

A. Joule B. Newton C. Watt D. Pascal

179. The kinetic energy of an object of mass m moving with speed v is given by:

A. K = ½ m v² B. K = m v C. K = m v² D. K = ½ m v

180. The unit of energy in SI is the same as that of work, which is:

A. Joule B. Newton C. Watt D. Pascal

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