MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 11 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 11 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane states that protein molecules float in a fluid-layer:

A. Galactose B. Glucose C. Phospholipids D. Carbohydrates

2. Intracellular digestion of food is done by the organelle:

A. Vacuole B. Lysosome C. Golgi apparatus D. ribosome

3. Chromosomes present in the nucleus have __ function in the cell;

A. Hereditary B. Secretory C. Power house D. Food synthesis

4. Sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain of Protein molecules corresponds to the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA for a human protein is 993 nucleotide including a stop codon at the end. How many amino acids would be incorporated in the polypeptide chain?

A. 331 B. 993 C. 393 D. 330

5. Two amino acids form a dipeptide through:

A. Condensation reaction B. Ionic bond formation C. Hydrolysis D. Hydrogen bonding

6. Sickle cell anaemia results from?

A. Reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin B. Linkage between the polypeptide chains C. Single amino acid substitution in the haemoglobin molecule D. Viral infection of RNA viruses

7. Which enzyme is different from others?

A. Pepsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Trypsin D. Lactase

8. Most enzymes have optimum temperature of around:

A. 30°C B. 40°C C. 50°C D. 20°C

9. Most enzymes work best at the following temperature:

A. 30°C B. 50°C C. 40°C D. 20°C

10. Competitive inhibitors are:

A. Homologous to substrate B. Analogous to substrate C. Smaller than substrate D. Larger than substrate

11. The complex, mature and infection virus is known as:

A. Venome B. Genome C. Virion D. Capsid

12. The genetic code of ___ is bounded by a lipid membrane?

A. Enterovirus B. Hepatitis A virus C. Flu virus D. Polio virus

13. A virus enters into the body of host and intends to produce DNA from RNA. Which enzyme is required for this process?

A. Transcriptase B. reverse transcriptase C. Oxido reductase D. Ligase

14. Germ theory of diseases was proposed by :

A. Robert Koch B. Louis pasteur C. Walther flemming D. Edward Jenner

15. Structure formed by invagination of plasma membrane and involved in cell division and DNA replication of prokaryotic cell:

A. Lysosomes B. Mesosomes C. Golgi bodies D. Phragmoplasts

16. In bacteria the resistance against heat is provided by:

A. Granules B. Cysts C. spores D. plasmids

17. ........ is used in the production of human insulin?

A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Fungi D. Virus

18. All animals begin life as a:

A. Multicellular fertilized egg B. Single fertilized egg C. Hollow blastula D. Gastrula

19. Trypanosoma is transmitted in human beings by:

A. Plasmodium B. Anopheles C. House fly D. Tsetse fly

20. Most flatworms are:

A. ectoparasites B. free living C. endoparasites D. not parasites

21. Photosystem-I has chlorophyll "a" molecule which absorbs maximum light of:

A. 680 nm B. 780 nm C. 700 nm D. 580 nm

22. The PS II during light reactions receives electrons from splitting:

A. Water B. Plastoquinone C. Ferridoxin D. None of Above

23. Oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from:

A. CO2 B. SO2 C. H2O D. Glucose

24. In which part of the chloroplast fixation of carbon dioxide results formation of sugars?

A. Grana B. Stroma C. Intergrunum D. outer membrane of chloroplast

25. The pathway to the breakdown of glucose, carried out by micro-organisms, is called

A. Cellular respiration B. Lactic acid fermentation C. Alcoholic fermentation D. None of the above

26. Which enzyme is secreted in the active form?

A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Peptidase D. Protease

27. Which one of the following part of human respiratory system forms the gas exchange surface?

A. Trachea B. Larynx C. Bronchioles D. Alveoli

28. What will happen with the addition of salt to water?

A. Water potential will increase B. Osmotic potential will decrease C. Water potential will remain same D. Osmotic potential will remain same

29. Four chambered heart with right systemic arch only is present in ?

A. Amphibians B. Birds C. Reptiles D. mammals

30. Large lymph vessels ultimately form larger lymph duct, which drains its lymph into:

A. Carotid and Aorta B. Vena cava and Aorta C. Subclavian vein D. Subclavian artery

31. The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into blood stream at?

A. Abdominal vein B. jugular vein C. Subclavian vein D. Bile duct

32. Which of the following is not a non-specific immune response:

A. HCL B. Mucus C. T Cells D. Spermines

33. Which may NOT be a possible action of interferons:

A. Belongs to cytokines B. Activate natural killer cells C. Activate immune cells D. Secrete interleukin

34. During Covid-19 epidemic the plasma of recovered patients was injected in covid patients. This proved quite effective. Which component of plasma do you think was responsible for this:

A. Plasminogen B. Interferons C. Antibodies D. Interleukin-1

35. A joint in which ends of bones are covered with hyaline cartilage and held together by surrounding tube like capsule of dense fibrous tissue:

A. Cartilaginous joints B. Synovial joints C. Fibrous joints D. Immovable joints

36. Which of the following is found at end of long bones, in the nose and larynx and trachea?

A. Elastic cartilage B. Fibrous cartilage C. Hyaline Cartilage D. both a & c

37. Hinge joint is present between which of the following bones?

A. Humerus and radio-ulna B. Femur and tibia C. Femur and acetabulum D. Atlas and axis

38. __ is the inflammation of joints.

A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Osteosclerosis D. Arteriosclerosis

39. Irregular striations and involuntary control is related to ?

A. cardiac muscle cells B. skeletal muscle cells C. Fibro-elastic cartilage cell D. smooth muscle cells

40. Tetany is caused by ------ in blood.

A. Low Ca++ B. High Ca++ C. Low Mg++ D. High Mg++

41. Node of ranvier is also known as:

A. Myelin sheath B. neurofibril node C. myofibril node D. none of above

42. An automatic involuntary response to any change, external or internal is called:

A. Reflex B. Instinct C. Taxis D. tropism

43. Which option given below characterizes refractory period?

A. Reversal of charges across the neural membrane B. Change in the type of ions across the membrane C. Next impulse can be conducted D. Membrane potential +50mV

44. The molecule responsible for conveying messages from one neuron to the next are called:

A. Hormones B. Activators C. neurotransmitters D. Enzymes

45. Hormones called gonadotropins are secreted by:

A. Hypothalamus B. Testes C. Ovaries D. Pituitary Gland

46. In human males, inhibin hormone is produced by

A. Leydig cells B. Hensen's node cells C. Sertoli cells D. Interstitial cells

47. Test cross is made to check the genotype of a trait. Which of the following crosses is a test cross?

A. Unknown x At B. Unknown x tt C. Unknown x AB D. Unknown x TT

48. Wings of birds and that of flying lizards provide the evidence of:

A. Convergent evolution B. No evolution C. Divergent evolution D. Same origin

49. The formula calculating the frequency of genotype and alleles in a population gene pool is known as

A. Hardy-Weinberg Equation B. Lamerc Equation C. Darwin Equation D. James Hutton Equation

50. The gene which control ABO group has how many alleles in an individual:

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

51. An oligosaccharide is made up of at least:

A. two saccharide units B. ten saccharide units C. three to ten saccharide units D. more than ten saccharide units

52. Which part of human brain is involved in maintaining the posture and balance of the body?

A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Hypothalamus D. Medulla oblongata

53. Overconsumption of which of the following foods increases the risk of calcium oxalate stone?

A. Leafy vegetables B. Fruits contain Vitamin C C. Fruits contain high fiber D. Whole grains

54. How many NADH are produced, when one Acetyl co-A is oxidized during Krebs's cycle?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6

55. At least how many saccharide units must be present in polysaccharide?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 10 D. 11

56. Which process uses mRNA to make protein at ribosomes?

A. Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. Cell fractionation

57. Are viruses affected by antibiotics?

A. They are affected B. They are not affected C. They are killed by antibiotics D. They are inhibited

58. What does ATP synthase use to produce ATP?

A. Uses light energy B. Uses proton gradient C. Uses glucose directly D. Uses NADH

59. What is photorespiration?

A. Fixes CO₂ efficiently B. Fixes O₂ instead of CO₂ C. Produces glucose D. Consumes ATP

60. What type of biological molecule are enzymes?

A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Lipids D. Nucleic acids

61. What are the sugars in DNA and RNA respectively?

A. Deoxyribose and ribose B. Ribose and deoxyribose C. Both ribose D. Both deoxyribose

62. What are blunt ends?

A. Straight cut B. Staggered cut C. Single‑stranded cut D. No cut

63. What is gene cloning?

A. Isolating and copying a gene B. Isolating and mutating a gene C. Isolating and sequencing a gene D. Isolating and deleting a gene

64. Who first coined the term "biotechnology"?

A. Watson and Crick B. Karl Ereky C. Mendel D. Darwin

65. What is the function of capillaries?

A. Exchange of gases B. Exchange of nutrients and wastes C. Transport blood D. Store blood

66. What does pepsin digest?

A. Proteins into peptides B. Starch into maltose C. Lipids into fatty acids D. Nucleic acids into nucleotides

67. What is trypsin?

A. Amylase B. Trypsin C. Lipase D. Nuclease

68. What does evolution explain?

A. Diversity of life B. Origin of life C. Extinction D. Adaptation

69. What does glucagon do?

A. Lowers blood glucose B. Raises blood glucose C. Has no effect on glucose D. Releases glucose

70. What is the stored form of glucose in animals?

A. Starch B. Glycogen C. Cellulose D. Sucrose

71. What is the function of the urethra?

A. Carries urine from kidney B. Carries urine to outside C. Stores urine D. Filters blood

72. What do cytotoxic T cells do?

A. Activate B cells B. Kill infected cells C. Produce antibodies D. Present antigens

73. Who is the father of genetics?

A. Darwin B. Mendel C. Lamarck D. Watson

74. What is polygenic inheritance?

A. Multiple genes B. One gene C. Two genes D. No genes

75. What is epistasis?

A. One gene masks another B. Genes interact C. Genes are linked D. Genes are independent

76. What is genetic counseling?

A. Understand inherited conditions B. Treat genetic disorders C. Predict future diseases D. All of these

77. What is spermatogenesis?

A. Sperm production B. Egg production C. Embryo development D. Fertilization

78. Is exhalation active or passive?

A. Active process B. Passive process C. Requires muscles D. None

79. Why is respiration essential?

A. Provides energy B. Produces oxygen C. Produces glucose D. None

80. What is cardiac muscle?

A. Involuntary and striated B. Voluntary and non‑striated C. Involuntary and non‑striated D. Voluntary and striated

81. What is the boundary of a sarcomere?

A. Z‑line B. M‑line C. A‑band D. I‑band

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. The efficiency of a chemical reaction can be expressed as:

A. Theoretical yield B. Actual yield C. Percent yield D. Maximum yield

83. The SI unit for pressure is:

A. mm of Hg B. bar C. Pascal D. Torr

84. Air is a mixture of gases. The molecules of air do not settle down due to:

A. Different molar mass B. Presence of dust particles in air C. Non polar nature of gases D. Elastic collision of gas molecules

85. Water shows maximum density at:

A. 0°C B. 4°C C. 5°C D. 100°C

86. Which of the following has highest boiling point?

A. C₆H₁₄ B. C₅H₁₂ C. C₁₀H₂₂ D. C₃H₈

87. If the external pressure is reduced to half, the boiling point of ethanol will be:

A. Greater than 78°C B. Less than 78°C C. Equal to 78°C D. Reduced to half

88. 10 pascal is equal to:

A. 0.000098atm B. 1.98 atm C. 10.019kpa D. 4.014 psi

89. If value of azimuthal quantum number is 2 then total values of magnetic quantum number will be:

A. 3 B. 10 C. 5 D. 7

90. Maximum number of electrons which can be placed in one orbital is:

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

91. The unhybridized p orbital in sp² hybridization is:

A. Perpendicular to sp2 orbitals B. Along the hybrid orbitals C. In the same plane as hybrid orbitals D. Forms only sigma bonds

92. What is the reason for energy changes in a chemical reaction?

A. Bond formation B. Bond breakage C. Bond formation & breakage D. Ionic bonds

93. Heat of formation (ΔH°f) for CO₂ is:

A. –394 kJ/mol B. 394 kJ/mol C. –294 kJ/mol D. –390 kJ/mol

94. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte in solution?

A. Acetic acid B. Carbonic acid C. Ammonium hydroxide D. Potassium iodide

95. During electrolysis of concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl, which ion is NOT discharged at cathode?

A. Na⁺ B. Cl⁻ C. H⁺ D. OH⁻

96. In a rate equation, rate = k[A][B], the reaction is:

A. Zero order B. First order C. Second order D. Third order

97. Identify which method is used to prepare Alkynes?

A. Dehalogenation of vicinal dihalides B. Dehydration of alcohol in the presence of Al₂O₃ at 340–450°C C. Electrolysis of dicarboxylic acid salt D. Dehalogenation of vicinal dihalides in the presence of strong base

98. Acetophenone can be formed by which of the following reaction of benzene?

A. Alkylation B. Halogenation C. Acylation D. Nitration

99. Lucas test is used for the identification of:

A. Alkyl halides B. Alcohols C. Alkenes D. Carboxylic acids

100. Benedict's solution is the combination of:

A. Cu(OH)₂ + NaOH + Tartaric acid (C₄H₆O₆) B. Cu(OH)₂ + NaOH + Citric acid (C₆H₈O₇) C. Ag(NH₃)₂OH + NaOH + H₂SO₄ D. NaCl + NaOH + Citric acid

101. Hexanoic acid is IUPAC name of:

A. Adipic acid B. Propionic acid C. Formic acid D. Caproic acid

102. K is called specific rate constant because it is:

A. Rate per unit concentration B. Temperature independent C. Depends on concentration D. Unitless

103. The molecular mass of H₂SO₄ is:

A. 98 amu B. 98 g C. 49 amu D. 196 amu

104. The SI unit of pressure is:

A. Pascal (Pa) B. Atm C. mmHg D. Bar

105. Graham's law of diffusion is:

A. r ∝ √M B. r ∝ 1/√M C. r ∝ M D. r ∝ 1/M

106. Vapor pressure of a liquid:

A. Decreases with temperature B. Increases with temperature C. Remains constant D. First increases then decreases

107. 1 poise is equal to:

A. 1 Pa·s B. 10 Pa·s C. 0.01 Pa·s D. 0.1 Pa·s

108. For FCC, atomic radius (r) in terms of edge length (a) is:

A. r = a/2 B. r = a√3/4 C. r = a√2/4 D. r = a√2/4

109. Integrated rate law for second-order is:

A. ln[A] = ln[A]₀ - kt B. [A] = [A]₀ - kt C. 1/[A] = 1/[A]₀ + kt D. [A] = [A]₀ e^(-kt)

110. Anodic reaction in rusting is:

A. Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe B. O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻ → 4OH⁻ C. Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ (anode) D. Fe²⁺ + O₂ → Fe₂O₃

111. Which alkaline earth metals do not give flame color?

A. Be and Mg B. Ca and Sr C. Ba and Ra D. All of them

112. Which alkali metal is the hardest and least reactive?

A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Lithium D. Rubidium

113. HF is:

A. Strong acid B. Weak acid but etches glass C. Does not etch glass D. Very strong base

114. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂Br is:

A. Bromomethane B. Bromoethane C. Bromobutane D. Bromoethane

115. CH₃Cl + NaOH (aq) gives:

A. Methanol B. Chloromethane C. Methane D. Ethene

116. IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂CH₂OH is:

A. Propan-2-ol B. Propanol C. Butanol D. Propan-1-ol

117. Esterification reaction is:

A. R-OH + R'-COOH ⇌ R-COOH + R'-OH B. R-OH + R'-COOH ⇌ R'-COO-R + H₂O C. R-OH + R'-COOH ⇌ R-O-R' + H₂O D. R-OH + R'-CHO ⇌ R'-COO-R

118. pKa values of phenol and ethanol:

A. Phenol (pKa ~10) > Ethanol (pKa ~16) B. Ethanol (pKa ~10) > Phenol (pKa ~16) C. Both have same pKa D. Neither is acidic

119. Nitration of phenol gives:

A. Only meta-nitrophenol B. Ortho and para nitrophenols C. Only ortho-nitrophenol D. Only para-nitrophenol

120. DNA contains:

A. Ribose in DNA, deoxyribose in RNA B. Deoxyribose in DNA, ribose in RNA C. Both contain ribose D. Both contain deoxyribose

121. Which acid is called the "King of Chemicals"?

A. Hydrochloric acid B. Sulfuric acid C. Nitric acid D. Acetic acid

122. Detergents differ from soap because they:

A. Form scum in hard water B. Are made only from vegetable oils C. Do not form scum in hard water D. Do not form scum in hard water

123. IUPAC name of CH3CHO is:

A. Methanal B. Propanal C. Ethanal D. Butanal

124. HCN + aldehyde/ketone gives:

A. Cyanohydrins B. Alcohols C. Carboxylic acids D. Amines

125. Aldehydes are prepared by:

A. Oxidation of secondary alcohols B. Oxidation of primary alcohols C. Hydrolysis of esters D. Both oxidation of primary alcohols and ozonolysis of alkenes

126. Acetone is commonly used as:

A. Solvent only B. Fuel only C. Solvent in nail polish remover and labs D. Disinfectant

English 9 MCQs

127. Because of his _____ habits, he could not save much money.

A. Extravagant B. frugal C. unsavory D. bad

128. Choose the correct sentence:

A. The space programme has been battered in bureaucratic wrangling B. The space programme has been battered into bureaucratic wrangling C. The space programme has been battered by bureaucratic wrangling D. The space programme has been battered to bureaucratic wrangling

129. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Both parents of Jameel were then long died B. Both parents of Jameel were then long dead C. Both parents of Jameel were by then long dead D. Both parents of Jameel were by then long died

130. Choose the correct sentence:

A. These rings came of his fingers five time a day before ablutions B. These rings came from his fingers five times day before ablutions C. These rings came by his fingers fives times a day before ablutions D. These rings came off his fingers five times a day before ablutions

131. Select the synonym for: Feckless

A. Useless B. Careless C. Dauntless D. Fearless

132. Select the synonym for: Empathy

A. Fictitious B. Facility C. Ability D. Felicity

133. Choose the correct preposition: "She is interested ____ music."

A. for B. at C. in D. about

134. Which sentence is the most concise and correct?

A. Due to the fact that it was raining, we stayed inside. B. Because of the fact that it was raining, we stayed inside. C. Because it was raining, we stayed inside. D. On account of the rain, we stayed inside.

135. Which sentence is correctly punctuated with "however"?

A. However, I decided to go anyway. B. However I decided to go anyway. C. However; I decided to go anyway. D. However I, decided to go anyway.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the primary cause of darkness during an outage?

A. Power outage B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

137. What does heavy rain cause?

A. Transport disruptions B. Widespread flooding C. No significant change D. Complete reversal

138. What do subsidies cause?

A. Lower prices B. Economic growth C. Stagnation D. Hyperinflation

139. Is a sample of 100 sufficient to conclude about all customers?

A. 100 is sufficient B. 100 may be insufficient C. 100 is irrelevant D. 100 is too large

140. What could make the survey flawed?

A. Unbiased B. Biased C. Neutral D. Perfect

141. What is the issue with "everyone believes it"?

A. Logical fallacy B. Valid reasoning C. Sound argument D. None

142. What comes next: Z, X, U, Q, L, ?

A. F B. E C. G D. H

143. Is the converse of "All S are P" necessarily true?

A. All P are S B. Some P are S C. No P are S D. All S are P

144. All fish swim. Salmon is a fish. What follows?

A. Salmon swim B. Salmon do not swim C. Some fish swim D. Swimming is for fish

Physics 36 MCQs

145. Which of the following is the fractional change in resistance per kelvin?

A. Conductivity B. Resistivity C. Temperature coefficient of resistivity D. Temperature coefficient of resistance

146. Four cells of emf 3V are connected in series to form a battery. Net emf of the combination is:

A. 12 V B. 1.33 V C. 9 V D. 7 V

147. Which of the following materials have negative temperature coefficient?

A. Germanium & Silicon B. Germanium and Iron C. Iron and Silicon D. Iron and Copper

148. Temperature coefficient of resistance is defined as increase in resistance per ohm original resistance per:

A. Degree rise in temperature B. Unit decrease in capacitance C. Unit increase in electric current D. Degree drop in temperature

149. The resistance of a wire is 6Ω at 50°C and 8Ω at 100°C. The resistance at 0°C is:

A. 5Ω B. 4Ω C. 3Ω D. 2Ω

150. An electric bulb is marked 200W, 220V. If the same bulb is connected to 110V supply line, the power consumed by it is:

A. 100W B. 75W C. 50W D. 25W

151. To improve jumping record the long jumper should jump at an angle of:

A. 30° B. 45° C. 60° D. 90°

152. The area under force-displacement graph gives us

A. Displacement B. Power C. Work D. Acceleration

153. A car of mass 800Kg accelerates from 20 to 30ms⁻¹. Increase in K.E is:

A. 2J B. 200KJ C. 200J D. 2KJ

154. The number of revolutions in 3π radians is:

A. Jan-60 B. 2-Mar C. 2 D. 6

155. The mechanical waves are not generated by:

A. Electric and magnetic fields B. Coil of springs C. Ropes D. Water

156. Correct Doppler equation when source approaches observer (f₀ = observed freq, fₛ = source freq):

A. f₀ = v/(v−vₛ) • fₛ B. f₀ = (v+vₛ)/v • fₛ C. f₀ = (v−vₛ)/v • fₛ D. f₀ = (v−vₛ)/(v+vₛ) • fₛ

157. The bicycle pump works on the basis of:

A. 1st law of thermodynamics B. 2nd law of thermodynamics C. Law of conservation of energy D. Law of entropy

158. If the dielectric material between the plates of a capacitor is removed, what happens to the electric field between the plates?

A. Become zero B. increases C. Decreases D. Remains the same

159. Leptons are the group of particles which are:

A. Less massive than the lightest hadrons B. More massive than the lightest hadrons C. Less massive than the heaviest hadrons D. More massive than the heaviest hadrons

160. The work done by the gravitational force on an object as it moves from a reference level to a higher point is:

A. Always positive B. Always negative C. Zero D. Depends on the path taken

161. The increase in kinetic energy associated with decreased pressure of a fluid in a horizontal pipe is a consequence of the:

A. Bernoulli's Principle B. Equation of continuity C. Pascal's principle D. Torricelli's theorem

162. The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce:

A. Eddy current losses B. Hysteresis losses C. Copper losses D. Flux leakage

163. The shortest wavelength in the Lyman series corresponds to the transition from:

A. n=∞ to n=1 B. n=2 to n=1 C. n=3 to n=1 D. n=4 to n=1

164. Ohm's law states that the current through a conductor is directly proportional to:

A. Voltage B. Resistance C. Power D. Charge

165. The potential difference across a resistor is 10 V and current is 2 A. The power dissipated is:

A. 20 W B. 5 W C. 40 W D. 10 W

166. The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on:

A. Frequency of incident light B. Intensity of incident light C. Both frequency and intensity D. Only intensity

167. Lenz's law is a consequence of the conservation of:

A. Energy B. Charge C. Momentum D. Angular momentum

168. Mutual inductance is the property by which a changing current in one coil induces EMF in another coil. It depends on:

A. Both coils' geometry and coupling B. Only the primary coil C. Only the secondary coil D. The resistance of coils

169. The energy stored in an inductor of inductance L carrying current I is:

A. 1/2 L I² B. L I² C. 1/2 L I D. L I

170. In a transformer, if the primary voltage is 220 V and turns ratio Ns/Np = 2, the secondary voltage is:

A. 440 V B. 110 V C. 220 V D. 660 V

171. The self-inductance of a coil is proportional to:

A. Square of number of turns B. Number of turns C. Area D. All of the above

172. The SI unit of pressure is:

A. Pascal B. Newton C. Joule D. Watt

173. A fluid flows through a pipe of varying cross-section. At the narrowest point, the velocity is highest and the pressure is:

A. Lowest B. Highest C. Same D. Zero

174. Nuclear fission is the splitting of a heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei, accompanied by the release of:

A. Energy and neutrons B. Protons C. Electrons D. Alpha particles

175. For an adiabatic process of an ideal gas, the relation between P and V is:

A. PV^γ = constant B. PV = constant C. T/V^(γ-1) = constant D. Both A and C

176. In a PV diagram, an adiabatic curve is steeper than an isothermal curve because:

A. γ > 1 B. γ < 1 C. γ = 1 D. γ = 0

177. The torque is defined as the cross product of position vector and force:

A. τ = r × F B. τ = r · F C. τ = F · r D. τ = r + F

178. The center of gravity of a body is the point where the entire weight of the body can be considered to act. For uniform gravity, it coincides with the:

A. Center of mass B. Geometric center C. Edge D. Top

179. The period of a wave with frequency 25 Hz is:

A. 0.04 s B. 25 s C. 0.4 s D. 2.5 s

180. A 3 kg block slides 2 m on a surface with friction force 5 N. The work done by friction is:

A. -10 J B. 10 J C. -15 J D. 15 J

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