MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 12 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 12 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Which of the following best describes the plasma membrane?

A. Adhesible B. Permeable C. impermeable D. semipermeable

2. Which of following combination is not a part of an animal cell:

A. Central vacuole, cell membrane, ribosomes B. Chloroplast, Ribosome, Mitochondria C. Cell wall, Chloroplast, Central vacuole D. Ribosome, Mitochondria, cell wall

3. How many triplets of microtubules are present in centrioles:

A. 10 B. 8 C. 9 D. 7

4. Cyclosis and amoeboid movements are due to :

A. Microtubules B. Microfilaments C. Cilia D. Intermediate filaments

5. Which is the factory for synthesis of sugars in autotrophic eukaryotes?

A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplast C. Ribosome D. Amyloplasts

6. Which monosaccharide will form a gluco pyranose ring in solution ?

A. Fructose B. Ribose C. Glucose D. Deoxyribose

7. Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid:

A. Acetic acid B. Butyric acid C. Oleic acid D. Palmitic acid

8. Waxes are formed by combination of fatty acids with :

A. Alcohol B. Glycerol C. Serine D. Cysteine

9. Sara is a chemistry student who is carrying out an experiment between acetic acid and alcohol in the laboratory. The product formed at the end of the experiment will be:

A. Glucose and oxygen B. Glycogen and water molecule C. An ester and water molecule D. Glycerol and sulphuric acid

10. All enzymes are-

A. Fibrous proteins B. Low molecular weight proteins C. Lipoproteins D. Globular Proteins

11. Haemoglobin is a:

A. Carbohydrate B. Protein C. Nucleic acid D. Enzyme

12. An enzyme and substrate reacts through a special feature or site present on:

A. Building site B. Active site C. Catalyst site D. Inhibitory site

13. Non protein but inorganic detachable σ-factor is called:

A. Activator B. Prosthetic group C. Co-enzyme D. Apoenzyme

14. All of the following are the postulates of lock and key model, EXCEPT?

A. Active site has a rigid structure B. Enzymes are non regulatory C. One specific key can only open specific lock D. Substrates combines with an enzyme to induces change in enzyme structure

15. Which of the following is an example of hydrolase.

A. Transmethylase B. Oxygenases C. Peroxidase D. Phosphatase

16. The enzyme which can work on pH 7 of the medium is?

A. Pepsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Trypsin D. Pancreatic lypase

17. Most enzymes have an optimum temperature of around

A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 20

18. Virus Cannot __________

A. Crystalise B. Exercise C. Infect Bacteria D. Mutate

19. The complete, mature and infectious virus particle is known as:

A. Venome B. Virion C. Genome D. Capsid

20. Corona virus is enveloped virus. Hand sanitizers and surface cleaners were recommended to avoid covid epidemic. Which property of corona virus made these products reactive?

A. pH sensitivity B. Heat sensitivity C. ss RNA genome D. Hypotonicity

21. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) particles surround with a coat known as the viral envelope or membrane made up of:

A. Glycoprotein B. Glycolipid C. Lipoprotein D. Sulpholipid

22. The smallest known bacteria belong to the genus:

A. Mycoplasma B. Escherichia C. Streptococcus D. Bacillus

23. Functional mesosomes can be compared with:

A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Polysomes D. Golgi bodies

24. Which of following antibiotic can cause permanent discoloration in young children if misused:

A. Penicillin B. Streptomycin C. Sulfonamide D. Tetracycline

25. The body of diploblastic organisms lack which layer?

A. endoderm B. ectoderm C. mesoderm D. mesenchyme

26. Ascaris is:

A. Diploblastic B. Triploblastic C. Haploid D. Acoelomates

27. Oxidative phosphorylation, synthesis of ATP in the presence of oxygen occurs in:

A. All types of cell B. All anaerobic cells C. All primitive cells D. All aerobic cells

28. Immediate product formed after CO2 fixation in Calvin cycle is:

A. Unstable 6-Carbon compound B. Unstable 5-Carbon compound C. Unstable 4-Carbon compound D. Unstable 3-Carbon compound

29. Glycolysis takes place in the ----- of cell:

A. Golgi complex B. Nucleus C. Cytoplasm D. Mitochondria

30. Fats and proteins can be used as respiratory fuel. Which of the following serves as common molecule produced through their catabolism?

A. Acetyl CoA B. Pyruvate C. G3P D. Lactate

31. Which is true about the cells found in gastric glands lining the stomach wall?

A. Chief cells secrete gastrin B. Mucus cells secrete mucin C. Hormone cells secrete intrinsic factor D. Parietal cells secrete pepsinogen

32. Enzyme trypsinogen is activated by:

A. Trypsin B. Pepsin C. Enterokinase D. None

33. Carnivorous adaptation of plants, due to relatively low content of:

A. Nitrogen B. Potassium C. Sulphur D. Calcium

34. The cells which play very important role in developing immunity are:

A. Monocytes B. Neutrophil C. Lymphocytes D. Thrombocytes

35. Regarding structure of human heart, Chordae tendinae are present in:

A. Atria B. Pulmonary valve C. Ventricles D. Aortic valve

36. Which of the following would not be compromised in the absence of Lymphatic system?

A. Blood Pressure B. Oxygen carrying capacity of blood C. Blood composition D. Defense mechanism

37. Which of following blood vessels have the highest pressure of blood:

A. Aorta B. Pulmonary arteries C. Pulmonary veins D. Vena cava

38. The method which helps in developing immunity against bacteria is:

A. Radiotherapy B. Chemotherapy C. Vaccination D. Antibiotics

39. The cells which play very important role in developing immunity:

A. Lymphocytes B. Neutrophils C. Monocytes D. Thrombocytes

40. During Covid-19 epidemic the plasma of recovered patients was injected in covid patients. This proved quite effective. Which component of plasma do you think was responsible for this:

A. Plasminogen B. Interferons C. Antibodies D. Interleukin-1

41. Cartilage cells contain small cavities distributed in the matrix and are called:

A. Shaft B. Periosteum C. Perichondrium D. Lacunae

42. Which of the following protein establishes the matrix of bone and cartilage?

A. Elastin B. Collagen C. keratin D. Histone

43. Which feature is possessed by smooth muscles?

A. Multinucleate cells B. contractile sarcomeres C. Uninucleate cells D. Striated appearance

44. The part of neuron fibre which conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body is:

A. Dendron B. dendrites C. Axon D. Peripheral branch

45. The nerve impulse which travels from node to node in myelinated neurons is called as:

A. Resting membrane Potential B. Saltatory nerve impulse C. Threshold stimulus D. Initial nerve impulse

46. In a typical nerve , the action potential duration is:

A. 1 milli second B. 1 second C. 1 micro second D. 1 minute

47. The hypothalamus produces the signalling molecule like:

A. Granzyme B. Pyrogen C. Spermin D. Prostaglandin

48. Which of the following is known as master gland?

A. Pituitary B. Adrenaline C. Insulin D. Thyroxin

49. Insulin converts glucose into:

A. Vitamins B. Minerals C. lipids D. Cortisone

50. Insufficient thyroxine in adults causes ------- disease.

A. Cretinism B. Graves disease C. hyperthyroidism D. Myxoedema

51. Which one of the following cells have haploid number of chromosomes?

A. Sperm cell B. Mesophyll cell C. Muscular cell D. Skin cell

52. Feeding by living in or on the other organism (host) belonging to different species is called:

A. Mineral nutrition B. Saprophytic nutrition C. Parasitic nutrition D. Symbiotic nutrition

53. FSH stimulates the production of estrogen hormone which has two targets ------ and ------

A. Uterus and posterior pituitary B. Uterus and anterior pituitary C. Ovaries and Uterus D. Ovaries and Hypothalamus

54. After fertilization, the ovum formed is:

A. haploid B. diploid C. polyploidy D. may be haploid or diploid

55. Homozygous means:

A. similar alleles B. different alleles C. different traits D. different genes

56. Who proposed the concept that an organism can pass on acquired modifications to its offspring?

A. Lamarck B. Darwin C. Malthus D. Aristotle

57. According to Neo-Darwinism, Which of the following is a cause of evolution?

A. Reproductive isolation B. Infinite large population C. Environmental Stability D. a and b

58. Which statement best explains the difference between humoral and cell mediated immune response?

A. Humoral immunity involves B-Lymphocytes and cell mediated immunity involves T-Lymphocytes B. Humoral immunity destroys viruses and cell mediated immunity destroys bacteria C. Humoral immunity is specific and cell mediated immunity is nonspecific D. Humoral immunity uses antibodies and cell mediated immunity does not involve immune cells

59. Which part of human brain is involved in maintaining the posture and balance of the body?

A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Hypothalamus D. Medulla oblongata

60. Which changes occur in the endometrium during the proliferate phase of the menstrual cycle?

A. It begins to shed B. It regenerates and thickens C. It becomes secretory D. No change occurs

61. What is the genetic material of influenza virus?

A. RNA B. DNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. Protein only

62. Which surface proteins are found on influenza virus?

A. Reverse transcriptase B. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin C. Protease D. Integrase

63. Where is the electron transport chain located?

A. Inner mitochondrial membrane B. Outer mitochondrial membrane C. Cytoplasm D. Matrix

64. What are cilia and flagella involved in?

A. Cell movement B. Cell division C. Protein synthesis D. Nutrient storage

65. What is the function of the nucleolus?

A. DNA replication B. Ribosomal RNA synthesis C. Protein synthesis D. Lipid synthesis

66. What are the phases of the cell cycle?

A. Interphase only B. Mitotic phase only C. Interphase and mitotic phase D. No phases

67. What type of blood does the pulmonary artery carry?

A. Oxygenated blood B. Deoxygenated blood C. Nutrient‑rich blood D. Waste‑rich blood

68. What is the function of the spleen?

A. Filters lymph B. Filters blood C. Produces hormones D. Stores bile

69. What is the function of the ear?

A. Hearing and balance B. Hearing only C. Balance only D. Vision

70. How do hormones travel?

A. Through the blood B. Through nerves C. Through synapses D. Through direct contact

71. What does lipase digest?

A. Lipids into fatty acids and glycerol B. Proteins into amino acids C. Starch into glucose D. Nucleic acids into nucleotides

72. What does the ileocecal valve separate?

A. Small intestine from stomach B. Small intestine from large intestine C. Stomach from esophagus D. Esophagus from mouth

73. What do enzymes do to activation energy?

A. Increase activation energy B. Lower activation energy C. Do not affect activation energy D. Change the reaction equilibrium

74. What are prosthetic groups?

A. Loosely bound B. Tightly bound C. Not bound D. Reversibly bound

75. What does glucagon do?

A. Lowers blood glucose B. Raises blood glucose C. Has no effect on glucose D. Releases glucose

76. What type of immunity do NK cells belong to?

A. Adaptive immunity B. Innate immunity C. Humoral immunity D. Cell‑mediated immunity

77. Where are MHC class II molecules found?

A. All cells B. Antigen‑presenting cells C. B cells only D. T cells only

78. What is homozygous?

A. Two different alleles B. Two identical alleles C. One allele D. No alleles

79. What are autosomes?

A. Sex chromosomes B. Non‑sex chromosomes C. Mitochondrial chromosomes D. Chloroplast chromosomes

80. What type of joint is the elbow?

A. Hinge B. Pivot C. Ball‑and‑socket D. Gliding

81. What does bone marrow produce?

A. Blood cells B. Bone cells C. Cartilage cells D. Muscle cells

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. One mole of an ideal gas at STP has volume in dm³:

A. 22.414 B. 22412 C. 224.4 D. 2244.1

83. The actual volume of gas molecules is considered negligible of following pressure:

A. 2atm B. 6atm C. 4atm D. 8atm

84. Which of the following factor does not affect the magnitude of vapor pressure?

A. amount of liquid B. temperature of liquid C. Size of molecule D. intermolecular forces

85. Molar heat of vaporization of water is:

A. 40.7 cal / mol B. 40.7 kcal / mol C. 40.7 J / mol D. 40.7 kJ / mol

86. The greater Lattice energy is shown by:

A. NaCl B. NaI C. NaBr D. NaF

87. Which gas in the discharge tube has the highest e/m ratio?

A. Oxygen B. Helium C. Nitrogen D. Hydrogen

88. The value of Azimuthal quantum number "l" for 4p orbital is:

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

89. Which of the following has the highest value of electronegativity?

A. I B. Br C. Cl D. F

90. Lattice energy of an ionic crystal is the enthalpy of:

A. Combustion B. Dissociation C. Dissolution D. Formation

91. Reaction of water with quick lime results in the rise of temperature of the system. Using the concept of energy change, indicate the nature of the reaction:

A. Third-order reaction B. Non-spontaneous reaction C. Endothermic reaction D. Exothermic reaction

92. Consider the equilibrium: BiCl₃ + H₂O ⇌ BiOCl + 2HCl Addition of which chemical will turn the cloudy solution clear?

A. BiCl₃ B. H₂O C. BiOCl D. HCl

93. In the production of SO₃ from SO₂ and O₂, the yield of SO₃ is increased by:

A. Adding a catalyst B. Increasing temperature C. Adding more SO₃ D. Removing oxygen

94. The effect of temperature on the rate of a reaction is given by:

A. Henderson's equation B. General gas equation C. Arrhenius equation D. Van der Waal's equation

95. In metals, why does electric conductivity decrease with the increase of temperature?

A. Electron movement decreases B. Metal ion oscillation hinders electrons C. Electron direction changes D. Collision of electrons causes heat flow

96. The first ionization energy of Al is less than Mg. This is due to:

A. Electron in 3p of Al B. Al is less metallic than Mg C. Mg comes first than Al D. Ionization energy from Mg to Al decreases

97. The trends in melting points of element of third period are depicted in figure below. The sharp decreases observed from Si to P is due to :

A. Decrease in atomic radius from Si to P B. Change in bonding and structure of two elements C. Different oxidation number of two elements D. Increase in Electron density from Si to P

98. Homocyclic organic compounds are subdivided into two types namely:

A. Alicyclic and Aromatic B. Open chain and Branched chain C. Aromatic & Non-aromatic D. Antiaromatic & Antialicyclic

99. The following has correct IUPAC name:

A. 2,3-tetramethylpentane B. 2,2,3,3-tetramethylpentane C. 3,3,4,4-tetramethylpentane D. 3,4-bis(dimethylbutane)

100. Which of the following compound is more acidic?

A. Alkane B. Alkene C. Alkyne D. Cycloalkane

101. Which method is generally used to prepare alkynes?

A. Dehydrohalogenation of vicinal dihalides B. Hydrolysis C. Hydrogenation of alkene D. Hydration of alkene

102. The species which are produced by heterolytic bond breaking and can act as electron pair donors are known as:

A. Nucleophiles B. Free Radicals C. Cations D. Anions

103. Which of the following will give iodoform reaction on treatment with Na₂CO₃ and I₂?

A. Methanol B. Acetic acid C. Acetic anhydride D. Acetone

104. The identification test for ketone is:

A. Benedict's solution test B. Fehling's solution test C. Sodium nitroprusside test D. Tollen's test

105. If carboxylic acid and ketone groups C=O are present in a chain then final name will be given as:

A. oxo, oic acid B. Both 1 and 2 C. one, oic acid D. None of these

106. Which product is formed by the reaction of carboxylic acid with alcohol?

A. Alkane B. Ether C. Aldehydes D. Ester

107. Flavour of benzyl acetate is:

A. Banana B. Raspberry C. Jasmine D. Orange

108. The molecular mass of H₂SO₄ is:

A. 98 amu B. 98 g C. 49 amu D. 196 amu

109. STP conditions are:

A. 273 K and 1 atm B. 298 K and 1 atm C. 273.15 K and 1 atm D. 0°C and 1 atm

110. Liquid droplets are spherical due to:

A. Gravity B. Viscosity C. Surface tension D. Vapor pressure

111. For FCC, atomic radius (r) in terms of edge length (a) is:

A. r = a/2 B. r = a√3/4 C. r = a√2/4 D. r = a√2/4

112. The structure of NaCl is:

A. Simple cubic B. FCC C. BCC D. HCP

113. n-type semiconductor is formed by doping with:

A. Trivalent impurity (e.g., B) B. Pentavalent impurity (e.g., P) C. No impurity D. Divalent impurity

114. Enthalpy of neutralization (strong acid + strong base) is:

A. -10 kJ/mol B. -30 kJ/mol C. -57.1 kJ/mol D. -100 kJ/mol

115. Lattice enthalpy is for:

A. Separate solid into gaseous ions B. Form solid from gaseous ions C. Break covalent bonds D. Vaporize solid

116. Increasing T favors the:

A. Exothermic direction B. No effect C. Endothermic direction D. Depends on pressure

117. ΔG° and K are related as:

A. ΔG° = -RT ln K B. ΔG° = RT ln K C. ΔG° = -RT log K D. ΔG° = -RT

118. A catalyst:

A. Is consumed and changes K B. Is consumed but changes K C. Is not consumed but changes K D. Is not consumed and does not change K

119. Weak electrolytes:

A. Completely dissociate B. Partially dissociate C. Do not dissociate D. Form precipitates

120. General valence configuration of alkaline earth metals is:

A. ns¹ B. ns² np¹ C. ns² np² D. ns²

121. Catalyst used in the Contact process is:

A. Iron B. Platinum C. Nickel D. V₂O₅

122. Isomers of butane are:

A. n-butane and isobutane B. Butane and butene C. Butane and butyne D. Butane and cyclohexane

123. In tertiary alcohol, C-OH carbon is:

A. Attached to one carbon B. Attached to two carbons C. Attached to three carbons D. Attached to no carbon

124. Reduction of carboxylic acid to primary alcohol requires:

A. LiAlH₄ B. NaBH₄ C. H₂/Ni D. Zn/HCl

125. pKa of formic acid is:

A. 3.77 (stronger than acetic) B. 4.76 (weaker than acetic) C. 1.0 D. 5.0

126. Copper extraction involves:

A. Reduction with coke only B. Smelting and electrolytic refining C. Leaching only D. Electrolysis of aqueous solution

English 9 MCQs

127. Choose the correct option.

A. Gulliver travels was written to Swift. B. Gulliver travels was written at Swift. C. Gulliver's Travels was written by Swift. D. Gullivers travels was written by Swift.

128. Spot the error: They did not guess how closely he had kept in touch with across the road.

A. They did not guess B. how closely he had kept in touch C. with across the road D. No error

129. Spot the error: There was a big rally on the Mall, but as the crowd disintegrated, chaos and confusion ruled everywhere.

A. There was a big rally on the Mall B. but as the crowd disintegrated, chaos and confusion ruled everywhere C. No error D. No error

130. Select the synonym for: Faux

A. Blunder B. Indiscretion C. Mistake D. FALSE

131. Select the synonym for: Facile

A. Fallacy B. Delicate C. Depict D. Superficial

132. I do not know ____ I should go or stay.

A. Weather B. Weather C. Wether D. Whether

133. The police conducted an ____ investigation.

A. Exhausting B. Exhaustive C. Exhaustive D. Exhausting

134. What is the meaning of "profound" in: "The encounter had a profound effect on her, altering her worldview in ways she could not fully explain."

A. Simple and basic B. Insignificant C. Shallow D. Significant and deep

135. What is the meaning of "grim" in: "The grim reality of the situation slowly dawned on them."

A. Cheerful B. Bright C. Optimistic D. Gloomy and harsh

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the effect of deforestation?

A. Loss of topsoil B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

137. What is essential to deter thieves in high‑crime areas?

A. Install CCTV cameras B. Increase police patrols C. Issue fines D. Reduce working hours

138. What is the most urgent action during a flood?

A. Evacuate all residents B. Distribute relief goods C. Conduct awareness seminars D. Wait for rescue teams

139. What fallacy is "everyone believes it"?

A. Ad populum fallacy B. Ad hominem C. Straw man D. Slippery slope

140. What comes next: Z, Y, W, T, P, ?

A. K B. K C. J D. L

141. What comes next: M, K, H, D, Y, ?

A. S B. R C. S D. T

142. All X are Y. All Y are Z. Which conclusion follows?

A. All X are Z B. All Y are X C. No Y are X D. Some Z are X

143. What is the major term in a syllogism?

A. Subject of conclusion B. Predicate of conclusion C. Middle term D. Both subject and predicate

144. If a student studies, they pass. Tom passed. What can you conclude?

A. Tom studied B. Tom did not study C. Tom passed D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. The slope of displacement-time graph:

A. Velocity B. Displacement C. Acceleration D. Distance

146. Which of the following best describes inertia?

A. The force of gravity acting on an object B. The resistance of an object to a change in its state of motion C. The weight of an object D. The acceleration of an object due to applied force

147. If a flywheel is rotating at 3 rad/s, the time it takes to complete one revolution is about:

A. 0.67 s B. 1 s C. 1.3 s D. 2.1 s

148. The relationship between linear displacement and angular displacement is:

A. θ = sr B. s = rθ C. s = r/θ D. θ = r/s

149. In SHM, a ∝ −x, the negative sign indicates that:

A. Acceleration is decreasing B. Acceleration is directed away from equilibrium C. Acceleration is directed towards equilibrium D. Acceleration is zero at extreme position

150. Number of wavelengths per unit time is:

A. Speed B. Velocity C. Displacement D. Frequency

151. The intensity level (sound level) of faintest audible intensity is:

A. 160 decibel B. Zero decibel C. 140 decibel D. 120 decibel

152. For longitudinal waves:

A. The particles oscillate perpendicular to propagation B. Particles remain stationary C. The particles oscillate along direction of propagation D. Velocity is enhanced in vacuum

153. The thermodynamic process during which volume of the system remains constant is called:

A. Isothermal B. Isobaric C. Isochoric D. Adiabatic

154. First law of thermodynamics is mathematically represented as:

A. ΔQ – ΔW = ΔU B. ΔW = ΔQ + ΔU C. ΔW = ΔQ - ΔU D. ΔQ = ΔW - ΔU

155. A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy stored is U. After disconnecting battery another capacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel to the first capacitor. Then energy stored in each capacitor is:

A. U/2 B. U/4 C. 4U D. 2U

156. A neutron having mass equal to a proton (mₚ = 1.6 × 10⁻²⁷ kg) is moving in a magnetic field of intensity 1.2 × 10⁻³ T with a speed of 2 × 10⁷ m/s. What is the maximum force experienced by the neutron?

A. 3.84 × 10⁻¹⁵ N B. 0 C. 3.84 × 10⁻¹² N D. 38.4 × 10⁻¹⁵ N

157. In beta positive decay, the nuclear number is;

A. Conserved B. Not conserved C. Unstable D. Stable

158. Which one is not the unit of radioactivity?

A. Becquerel B. Decay/second C. Tesla/m D. Curie

159. The work done by the gravitational force on an object as it moves from a reference level to a higher point is:

A. Always positive B. Always negative C. Zero D. Depends on the path taken

160. A body is projected with speed v making an angle 0 with the horizontal and covers horizontal range R. If its speed is doubled, the new range will be:

A. R/2 B. R C. 2R D. 4R

161. The electric field at a point due to a point charge is 200N/C. If suppose a -4C test charge is placed at that point then the magnitude of electric field and electric force on it is:

A. 200N/C and 50N B. 200N/C and 200N C. 200N/C and 800N D. 800N/C and 800N

162. If A=(a²+b²) and B=4(a²+b²), magnitude of A×B =

A. 4(a²+b²) B. 4abk C. 8(a+b) D. 0

163. If the frequency of AC is increased, the capacitive reactance will:

A. Decrease B. Increase C. Remain same D. Become zero

164. The rms value of AC current is 10 A. Its peak value is:

A. 14.14 A B. 10 A C. 7.07 A D. 20 A

165. The efficiency of an ideal transformer is:

A. 100% B. 0% C. 50% D. Depends on load

166. The advantage of a potentiometer over a voltmeter is:

A. It draws no current from the source B. It has high resistance C. It is cheap D. It is portable

167. Length contraction occurs along the direction of:

A. Motion B. Perpendicular to motion C. Both D. None

168. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a particle is inversely proportional to its:

A. Momentum B. Mass C. Velocity D. Energy

169. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:

A. 3 × 10⁸ m/s B. 3 × 10¹⁰ m/s C. 3 × 10⁶ m/s D. 3 × 10⁹ m/s

170. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:

A. Weber B. Tesla C. Henry D. Farad

171. A magnetic flux of 2 Wb through a coil changes to 4 Wb in 0.1 s. The induced EMF (magnitude) is:

A. 20 V B. 2 V C. 40 V D. 0.2 V

172. A coil of 100 turns, area 0.1 m², rotates in a magnetic field of 0.5 T at 50 rad/s. The peak EMF is:

A. 250 V B. 25 V C. 500 V D. 100 V

173. In a transformer, the power is transferred from primary to secondary through:

A. Magnetic flux B. Electric current C. Direct contact D. Radiation

174. The SI unit of mutual inductance is:

A. Henry B. Weber C. Tesla D. Farad

175. A MOSFET has a metal gate insulated from the channel by an oxide layer. The term MOS stands for:

A. Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor B. Metal-Oxide-Silicon C. Metal-Oxide-Substrate D. Metal-Organic-Semiconductor

176. The work-energy theorem states that net work done equals:

A. Change in kinetic energy B. Change in potential energy C. Change in total energy D. Force × distance

177. In uniform circular motion, the speed is constant but the velocity is continuously changing because:

A. Direction changes B. Magnitude changes C. Acceleration is zero D. Force is zero

178. The dot product of two unit vectors along x and y axes (i · j) is:

A. 0 B. 1 C. -1 D. i

179. The principle of superposition states that when two waves meet, the resultant displacement is the:

A. Vector sum of individual displacements B. Scalar sum C. Product D. Difference

180. The speed of sound in air increases with temperature because:

A. Molecular motion increases, speeding up collisions B. Density increases C. Pressure decreases D. Humidity decreases

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