MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 13 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 13 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Plasma membrane is chemically composed of:

A. Phospholipids Only B. Lipids and carbohydrates C. Lipids and Proteins D. Glycoproteins

2. The ability to distinguish between two separate points is:

A. Magnification B. Fractionation C. Centrifugation D. Resolution

3. Liposomes have:

A. Lipid Bilayer B. Fluid in center C. carrier for drugs D. All of these

4. If water has high latent heat of vaporization, how this property of water could be helpful to plants and animals:

A. With release of large amount of water vapors,a small amount of heat loss will take place B. No cooling effect with the release of even large amount of water vapors C. It will keep their temperature very high D. With the release of small amount of water vapors,a great amount of heat loss can take place

5. Triose and glycerol is used in the synthesis of :

A. Carbohydrate B. Protein C. Lipid D. Fatty acid

6. Which function is not performed by proteins?

A. Providing structural support to cell B. catalyzing biochemical reactions C. transporting materials across cell membran D. providing insulation against heat loss

7. Enzymes are derived from:

A. Proteins B. Nucleic acids C. Carbohydrates D. Vitamins

8. Most enzymes have optimum temperature of around:

A. 30°C B. 40°C C. 50°C D. 20°C

9. If another molecule, having a shape very similar to the enzyme's substrate, binds to its active site, it would then — the enzymes' function:

A. Fasten B. Inhibit C. Reverse D. Decrease

10. All viruses are:

A. Autotrophs B. Heterotrophs C. Parasites D. Predators

11. The cavity between body wall and alimentary canal is:

A. Coelom B. Mesoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoglea

12. Fasciola is endoparasite of:

A. Colon B. Liver C. Small intestine D. Bile duct

13. Malpighian tubules are found in

A. Earthworm B. Leech C. Grasshopper D. Slug

14. Ancient species belong to class:

A. cyclostomata B. chondrichthyes C. osteichthyes D. both a & c

15. Mammals become dominant in:

A. Cenozoic Period B. Jurassic Period C. Mesozoic Period D. Paleozoic Period

16. The most common protein in nature is:

A. Collagen B. Rubisco C. DNAase D. Keratin

17. In the non-cyclic electron transport of light reaction, the deficit of electrons occurs in the chlorophyll, as it absorbs energy.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

18. How many ATPs are required to form glucose molecule?

A. 9 B. 18 C. 36 D. 24

19. Each carrier in Electron Transport chain is first -----and then-----.

A. Broken-down, Regenerate B. Generated, Broken down C. Oxidized, reduced D. Reduced, Oxidized

20. In Electron transport chain, ATP synthesis takes place when electrons move from:

A. Primary electron acceptor to plastoquinone B. Plastoquinone to cytochrome C. Cytochrome to plastocyanin D. Plastocyanin to Photosystem-I

21. Which of following hormone stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice from pancreas:

A. Secretin B. Pepsinogen C. Gastrin D. Both A and C

22. Food is diverted in the esophagus by:

A. Glottis B. Tongue C. Cheeks D. Epiglottis

23. Trypsinogen is released by acini cells of pancreas. It is activated into trypsin by --- enzyme.

A. Amylase B. enterokinase C. ribonuclease D. lipase

24. Emulsification of large fat globules is facilitated by:

A. trypsin B. Bile salts C. Chymotrypsin D. None

25. The example of Carnivorous plants is:

A. Funnaria hygrometrica B. Polypodium glycorrhiza C. Pinus gerardiana D. Dionaea muscipula

26. In the human heart, left atrium receives:

A. The superior vena cava B. The inferior vena cava C. The coronary sinus D. The four pulmonary veins

27. Thoracic lymph duct of the lymphatic system opens into:

A. Superior vena cava B. Subclavian vein C. Inferior vena cava D. Renal vein

28. Which of the following would not be compromised in the absence of Lymphatic system?

A. Blood Pressure B. Oxygen carrying capacity of blood C. Blood composition D. Defense mechanism

29. The cells which secrete the antibodies:

A. T lymphocyte B. B lymphocyte C. T Helper cells D. T Helper cells

30. First vertebrae of cervical region of vertebral column is known as:

A. Atlas B. Sacral C. Thoracic D. Axis

31. Carpometacarpal joint is an example of:

A. Hinge joint B. Gliding joint C. Saddle joint D. Ball and socket joint

32. The value of the active membrane potential of the neuron is:

A. 0.01 Volts B. 0.05 Volts C. 0.02 Volts D. 0.07 Volts

33. Which type of neurons form brain and spinal cord?

A. Sensory neurons B. motor neurons C. interneurons D. dendrites

34. Vasopressin is an example of----- hormone

A. Steroid B. Catecholamine C. peptide hormone D. Glycopeptide

35. A condition characterized by hypothyroidism and enlargement of thyroid gland is known as:

A. Graves disease B. Exophthalmia C. Goiter D. Thyroid gland

36. Process ensuring the survival of species over long periods of time, even through individual members of the species die:

A. Reproduction B. Adaptability C. Mitosis D. Respiration

37. Main function of the epididymis is to:

A. Transport sperms B. Produce semen C. Connect Urethra D. Hold the process of spermatogenesis

38. The cell in our body are all genetically identical , apart from the

A. Somatic Cell B. Reproductive Cell C. Muscle cells D. White blood Cells

39. The terminal portion of the male duct system is:

A. Vasa efferentia B. Vasa deferens C. Urethra D. Epididymis

40. Which of the following would be produced as a result of reduction division during gametogenesis:

A. Oogonium B. Primary oocyte C. Primary spermatocyte D. Secondary oocyte

41. At the beginning of the menstrual phase the ………are at the lowest level.

A. Follicle stimulating hormone B. Gonadotropins C. Ovarian hormone D. None of these

42. Luteinizing hormone , which is produced by the pituitary gland, promotes ovulation and stimulate the ovaries to produce:

A. Estrogen B. estrogen & Progesterone C. Progesterone D. Oxytocin

43. Which of the following is a physical relationship of genes present on same chromosomes?

A. Epistasis B. linkage C. crossing over D. pleiotropy

44. Nissis granule is a specialized structure in neuron formed by modification of:

A. Golgi bodies & Smooth ER B. Peroxisome & Nitochondria C. Lysosome & Vacuole D. Ribosoma & Rough ER

45. Once an action potential reaches the membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber, what is the first event that occurs in the contraction process?

A. Actin and myosin form a cross bridge B. Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum C. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum D. ATP is hydrolyzed by troponin

46. Which type of joint is present in pubis?

A. Fibrous joints B. Immoveable joints C. Cartilaginous joints D. Freely moveable joints

47. What is the chemical composition of chromosomes?

A. RNA and lipids B. DNA and proteins C. Carbohydrates and nucleic acids D. Proteins and carbohydrates

48. Which of the following surrounds myofibril in skeletal muscle that stores and distributes calcium ions during muscle functioning?

A. Sarcodermna B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum C. Transverse tubules D. Sarcoplasm

49. The function which is common between Cerebellum and Hippocampus is;

A. Equilibrium B. Memory formation C. Body positioning D. Sexual arousal

50. Linkage of genes in Drosophila was first discovered by:

A. Thomas Hunt Morgan B. Alfred Sturtevant C. Gregor Mendel D. Hugo de Vries

51. Which phenomenon increases the chances of variations?

A. Crossing Over B. Linkage C. Epistasis D. Dominance

52. When antibodies produced by B-cells, kill the antigens then it is called:

A. Cell mediated response B. Passive response C. Humoral response D. Cells collaborated response

53. Which infectious agent is composed only of protein?

A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Prions

54. What property do lipids have?

A. Hydrophobic B. Hydrophilic C. Water‑soluble D. Polymers

55. What is the tertiary structure of a protein?

A. Sequence B. Local folding C. Overall 3D shape D. Multiple subunits

56. What determines the primary structure of a protein?

A. Environmental factors B. Gene sequence C. pH D. Temperature

57. What is biotechnology?

A. Use of living organisms for products B. Study of life C. Breeding organisms D. Environmental science

58. What is the role of vectors?

A. Transfer foreign DNA B. Amplify DNA C. Cut DNA D. Sequence DNA

59. What is synthetic biology?

A. Designing new biological systems B. Studying existing organisms C. Cloning existing organisms D. Modifying existing systems

60. In which fields is biotechnology applied?

A. Only medicine B. Only agriculture C. Multiple fields D. Only industry

61. What does the right ventricle do?

A. Pumps to the body B. Pumps to the lungs C. Receives blood from the body D. Receives blood from the lungs

62. What is the function of red blood cells?

A. Carry oxygen B. Carry carbon dioxide C. Fight infection D. Clot blood

63. How is carbon dioxide transported in the blood?

A. Only dissolved in plasma B. As bicarbonate ions C. Bound to hemoglobin D. All of these

64. What is the parasympathetic nervous system responsible for?

A. Fight‑or‑flight B. Rest and digest C. Voluntary movement D. Sensation

65. What is the function of bile?

A. Digests proteins B. Emulsifies fats C. Digests carbohydrates D. Activates enzymes

66. What does the pancreas secrete?

A. Digestive enzymes and bicarbonate B. Bile C. HCl D. Insulin

67. What is the function of the rectum?

A. Absorbs water B. Stores feces C. Digests food D. Produces enzymes

68. Why are enzymes specific?

A. Due to pH B. Due to temperature C. Due to active site shape D. Due to cofactors

69. Where do non‑competitive inhibitors bind?

A. Active site B. Allosteric site C. Regulatory site D. Cofactor site

70. How does substrate concentration affect reaction rate?

A. Increases indefinitely B. Increases until saturation C. Decreases D. No change

71. What does natural selection lead to?

A. Adaptation B. Mutation C. Genetic drift D. Gene flow

72. What is the liver's role in glucose homeostasis?

A. Glucose metabolism B. Protein synthesis C. Lipid storage D. Waste removal

73. What is immunity?

A. Resist infection B. Cause infection C. Spread infection D. Cure infection

74. What is genotype?

A. Physical appearance B. Genetic makeup C. Phenotype D. Trait

75. What are examples of X‑linked traits?

A. Hemophilia and color blindness B. Cystic fibrosis C. Sickle cell anemia D. Huntington's disease

76. What is epistasis?

A. One gene masks another B. Genes interact C. Genes are linked D. Genes are independent

77. Carriers of X‑linked traits are usually which sex?

A. Male B. Female C. Both D. Neither

78. What is ovulation?

A. Release of egg B. Release of sperm C. Fertilization D. Implantation

79. What does the appendicular skeleton include?

A. Limbs and girdles B. Skull and vertebral column C. Rib cage and sternum D. Pelvis and ribs

80. What theory explains muscle contraction?

A. Sliding filament theory B. Cross‑bridge theory C. Contractile theory D. None

81. What contains bone marrow?

A. Medullary cavity B. Periosteum C. Endosteum D. Articular cartilage

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. The average weight of atoms of an element compared to the weight of one atom of ----- is called atomic weight.

A. Carbon B. Hydrogen C. Helium D. Nitrogen

83. Gases deviate from ideal behavior more:

A. At low temperature & high pressure B. Both temperature & pressure low C. Both temperature & pressure High D. At high temperature & low pressure

84. Correct order of boiling points of the given liquid is:

A. H₂O>HF>HCL> NH₃ B. H₂O>HF>NH₃>HCL C. HF>H₂O>NH₃>HCL D. HF>NH₃>NH₂>HCL

85. According to the number of protons, neutrons & electrons given in the table, which are of Species Protons Neutron Electron As 33 42 30 Ga 31 39 28 Ca 20 20 20

A. As3+,Ga3+,Ca B. As3+,Ga3+,Ca2+ C. As3+,Ga+2,Ca D. As+1,Ga,Ca+2

86. 'n' represents which of the following quantum number?

A. Azimuthal B. Principal C. Magnetic D. Spin

87. Which of the following is the example of polar molecular solids?

A. Ice B. Iodine C. Copper D. Phosphorus

88. The unhybridized p orbital in sp² hybridization is:

A. Perpendicular to sp2 orbitals B. Along the hybrid orbitals C. In the same plane as hybrid orbitals D. Forms only sigma bonds

89. Lattice energy of an ionic crystal is the enthalpy of:

A. Combustion B. Dissociation C. Dissolution D. Formation

90. Mg + ½O₂ → MgO(g) ΔH = –692 kJ/mol at STP. Enthalpy of above reaction will be called:

A. ΔH⁰ₐₜ B. ΔH⁰ₛ C. ΔH⁰ₛₒₗ D. ΔH⁰f

91. The lattice energy is also called:

A. Energy of affinity B. Bond energy C. Crystal energy D. Potential energy

92. At equilibrium, the concentration of reactants and product becomes:

A. Zero B. Equal C. Constant D. Infinite

93. Which of the following required for maximum yield of ammonia through haber's process

A. Increase temperature B. Decrease concentration of reactant C. Decreasing Temperature D. Decreasing pressure

94. Decomposition of ammonia on heated tungsten is an example of:

A. Pseudo first order reaction B. First order reaction C. Second order reaction D. Zero order reaction

95. When nitric oxide reacts with ozone, the order of reaction will be:

A. Zero B. 2ND C. 1st D. 3rd

96. Which of the following has the highest atomic radius in its period?

A. Alkaline earth metals B. Alkali metals C. Chalcogens D. Halogens

97. Isopropyl chloride is an example of:

A. Primary alkyl halide B. Secondary alkyl halide C. Tertiary alkyl halide D. Quaternary alkyl halide

98. What is the IUPAC name of picric acid?

A. 2,4,6-tribromophenol B. 2,4,6-trinitrophenol C. 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene D. 2,4,6-trimethylphenol

99. In presence of which of the following, Wolff-Kishner reduction of aldehydes is carried out?

A. Glycol with KOH B. H₂ with Pd C. LiAlH₄ in water D. Zn-Hg with HCl

100. 50% NaOH is used in which reaction:

A. Cannizzaro's reaction B. Halogenation C. Nitration D. None

101. Terminal alkynes show acidic character due to:

A. Terminal carbon atoms are sp hybridized. B. Terminal carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized. C. Terminal carbon atoms are sp3 hybridized. D. Terminal carbon atoms show hydrogen bonding.

102. The heat of formation of CO and CO₂ are -26.4 Kcal and -94.0 Kcal respectively. The heat of combustion of carbon monoxide according to Hess's Law will be:

A. +26.4Kcal B. -67.6Kcal C. +94.0Kcal D. -120.4Kcal

103. Number of sigma bonds in methyl chloride is due to spies overlap is/are:

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

104. Which has the highest number of moles?

A. 10 g H₂ B. 10 g O₂ C. 10 g CO₂ D. 10 g CH₄

105. The molecular formula of a compound with empirical formula CH and molar mass 78 g/mol is:

A. C₆H₆ B. C₂H₂ C. C₄H₄ D. C₈H₈

106. The mass of 10 moles of water is:

A. 180 g B. 18 g C. 1.8 kg D. 1800 g

107. Surface tension is defined as:

A. Force per unit area B. Force per unit length C. Energy per unit area D. Pressure per unit area

108. p-type semiconductor is formed by doping with:

A. Pentavalent impurity B. No impurity C. Trivalent impurity (e.g., B) D. Divalent impurity

109. At chemical equilibrium, which condition holds?

A. Forward rate = reverse rate B. Forward rate > reverse rate C. Reverse rate > forward rate D. No reaction occurs

110. If a reaction is multiplied by n, Kc becomes:

A. Kc^n B. n × Kc C. Kc/n D. Kc^1/n

111. Order of a reaction:

A. Always integer B. Can be fractional C. Same as molecularity D. Always positive

112. Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate with excess water is:

A. Pseudo-first-order B. True second-order C. Zero-order D. First-order

113. For a second-order reaction, t₁/₂ is:

A. Independent of [A]₀ B. Directly proportional to [A]₀ C. Inversely proportional to [A]₀² D. Inversely proportional to [A]₀

114. Oxidation state of an element in its free state is:

A. Zero B. +1 C. -1 D. Depends on the element

115. The Nernst equation is:

A. E = E° - (RT/nF) ln Q B. E = E° + (RT/nF) ln Q C. E = E° - (RT/F) ln Q D. E = E° - (nF/RT) ln Q

116. Transition metals are:

A. Poor conductors B. Insulators C. Semiconductors D. Good conductors

117. Bronze is an alloy of:

A. Cu and Zn B. Cu and Ni C. Cu and Sn D. Cu and Al

118. Organic chemistry is the study of:

A. Study of all elements B. Study of carbon compounds C. Study of metals D. Study of gases

119. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂Br is:

A. Bromomethane B. Bromoethane C. Bromobutane D. Bromoethane

120. Dichloromethane is:

A. CHCl₃ B. CH₂Cl₂ C. CCl₄ D. CH₃Cl

121. The simplest alcohol is:

A. Ethanol B. Propanol C. Butanol D. Methanol

122. Acidity: Benzoic acid vs Acetic acid

A. Benzoic acid is weaker than acetic acid B. Benzoic acid is stronger than acetic acid C. Both are equally acidic D. Acetic acid is stronger than benzoic acid

123. PVC is made from:

A. Ethylene B. Propylene C. Styrene D. Vinyl chloride

124. Enzymes are:

A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids

125. Aldol condensation requires:

A. alpha-hydrogen B. beta-hydrogen C. gamma-hydrogen D. Carbonyl oxygen

126. The passage states: "In the age of the smartphone, maintaining deep focus is a rare and precious skill. The constant ping of notifications, the allure of social media, and the endless stream of information make it increasingly difficult to concentrate on a single task for any extended period."

A. Focusing is easier than ever before. B. People do not want to focus. C. Maintaining focus is extremely challenging due to numerous distractions. D. Reading is the only way to focus.

English 9 MCQs

127. Choose the correct tense.

A. I went to school yesterday. B. I go to school yesterday. C. I have gone to school yesterday. D. I come to school yesterday.

128. Saad likes to play _______ hockey.

A. a B. an C. the D. No article

129. Choose the correct sentence:

A. When this war is over, no nation will either be isolated in war or peace B. When this war is over, no nation will be either isolated in war or peace C. When this war is over, no nation will neither be isolated in war or peace D. When this war is over, no nation will be isolated either in war or peace

130. Choose the correct sentence:

A. When the fact failed him, he questions his senses B. When the fact failed him, he questioned from his senses C. When the fact fails him, he questions his senses D. He will question his senses, when the fact will fail him

131. Choose the correct sentence:

A. She felt unreal to the voice informed her of the subway accident B. She felt unreal as the voice informed her of the subway accident C. She felt unreal that the voice informed her of the subway accident D. She felt unreal for the voice informed her of the subway accident

132. Select the synonym for: Sidle

A. Sneak B. Sledge C. Sift D. Sieve

133. Add suitable conjunction in the given sentence. Your ice cream will melt, you should eat it quickly.

A. Your ice cream will melt so you should eat it quickly. B. Your ice cream will melt however you should eat it quickly. C. Your ice cream will melt so that you should eat it quickly. D. Your ice cream will melt, however you should eat it quickly.

134. Read the passage: "When she read, she was not in her cramped apartment; she was in the dusty streets of Paris or the forgotten temples of Egypt. The world outside the pages seemed to fade. She had often heard people say that reading is an escape, but for her, it was not an escape. It was a homecoming." What does this suggest about the character's experience with reading?

A. The character is bored by the book. B. Reading is a powerfully immersive experience for the character. C. The character is ignoring a serious problem. D. The book is written in a foreign language.

135. What does "meticulous" mean in: "The artist was meticulous in her work, paying attention to every detail."

A. Extremely careful B. Careless C. Sloppy D. Inattentive

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the most likely direct effect of a massive power outage?

A. Complete darkness B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

137. What reduces crime in streets?

A. Install CCTV cameras B. Increase police patrols C. Increase street lighting D. Issue fines

138. Which pairs are contraries?

A. A and I B. E and O C. A and O D. A and E

139. What is the rule about negative premises?

A. Two affirmative premises B. Two negative premises C. One affirmative and one negative D. No restriction

140. For which propositions is contraposition valid?

A. A and E B. E and I C. A and O D. I and O

141. All birds have feathers. Penguins are birds. What can you conclude?

A. Penguins have feathers B. Penguins don't have feathers C. Some birds have feathers D. Feathers are for birds

142. If a number is divisible by 4, it is even. 8 is divisible by 4. What follows?

A. 8 is even B. 8 is odd C. 8 is divisible by 4 D. No conclusion

143. If it is a square, it has equal sides. It has equal sides. What can you conclude?

A. It is a square B. Cannot determine C. It has equal sides D. No conclusion

144. If you are a chef, you cook. You cook. What can you conclude?

A. You are a chef B. Cannot determine C. You cook D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. If 2A current passes through a resistor when connected to a certain battery. If the resistance is replaced by the double resistance, then the current will become:

A. 2A B. 4A C. 6A D. 1A

146. The relative permittivity of air (1atm) is:

A. 1 B. 1.0006 C. 22–25 D. 2.284

147. The internal resistance of a battery is:

A. In parallel to the external load B. In series to the external load C. Not connected to the external load D. Zero

148. A body of mass 4kg is moving in a circle of radius 2m. If the body moves round a complete circle, what is the work done by the body?

A. 16 J B. Zero C. 16 J D. 6 J

149. The area under force-displacement graph gives us

A. Displacement B. Power C. Work D. Acceleration

150. 1 J/s is equal to:

A. 1 K B. 1 N C. 1 T D. 1 Watt

151. One complete circle is equal to:

A. 2π radian B. 3 radian C. 5 radian D. 6 radian

152. How many degrees in 2π/5 radians?

A. 50° B. 60° C. 72° D. 120°

153. In motion of satellites, necessary centripetal force is provided by:

A. Gravitational force B. Coulomb's force C. Magnetic force D. Nuclear force

154. Energy of SHM oscillator is partly kinetic and partly potential. Which is correct?

A. KE max at extreme position B. PE max at extreme position C. Both KE and PE min at mean D. PE max at mean position

155. Time period if frequency is 4Hz is:

A. 4 B. ¼ C. 2.5 D. 4-Feb

156. What do the substances whose resistance decreases with increase in temperature have?

A. high temperature B. Negative temperature coefficient C. Positive temperature coefficient D. zero temperature coefficient

157. To store the electric charge the ultra-capacitor use ....... effect.

A. Single layer B. Triple layer C. Double layer D. Quadruple layer

158. The source of magnetic field is:

A. An isolated magnetic pole B. Static electric charge C. Nonmagnetic substance D. Current loop

159. What does the magnetic flux measure in?

A. Area surrounded by a magnet B. Strength of magnetic field C. Rate of change of magnetic force D. Number of magnetic lines of force

160. A magnetic field exerts a force on a charged particle:

A. If the particle moving across the field lines B. If the particle moving along the field lines C. If the particle is at rest D. Always experience force

161. A charged particle entered in a magnetic field anti-parallel to the field, magnetic force on this particle is:

A. BINA B. Bev sin θ C. Zero D. |q|Lv

162. Working principle of magnetic levitation train is according to?

A. Faraday's law B. Max Plank's law C. Ohm law D. Lenz law

163. The half life of Iodine-31 is:

A. 10 days B. 8 days C. 45 days D. 60 days

164. The instantaneous emf generated by alternating current generator is written as:

A. E = BINA sin(wt) B. E = BNAw sin(wt) C. E = BINA/w D. E = BINA

165. A diver of mass m is swimming at a depth h below the sea level. If the reference level is taken at sea level, the gravitational potential energy of the diver is:

A. 0 B. high C. -high D. 2mph

166. The average power in a purely inductive circuit is zero because:

A. The current and voltage are 90° out of phase B. The current is zero C. The voltage is zero D. The resistance is infinite

167. The shortest wavelength in the Lyman series corresponds to the transition from:

A. n=∞ to n=1 B. n=2 to n=1 C. n=3 to n=1 D. n=4 to n=1

168. The resistance of a voltmeter should be:

A. Very high B. Very low C. Zero D. Infinite

169. If a magnet is moved towards a coil, the induced current flows in a direction that:

A. Opposes the motion of the magnet B. Aids the motion C. Is unrelated D. Increases the flux

170. The ratio of magnetic field on axial line to equatorial line at the same distance from a short dipole is:

A. 2:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:1 D. 4:1

171. The most commonly used semiconductor material is:

A. Silicon B. Germanium C. Gallium arsenide D. Copper

172. A transistor can be used as an amplifier because a small change in base current produces:

A. A large change in collector current B. A small change in collector current C. No change D. A change in voltage only

173. The normal force is always:

A. Perpendicular to the surface B. Parallel to the surface C. In the direction of motion D. Opposite to weight

174. A beta particle is:

A. An electron (or positron) B. A helium nucleus C. A photon D. A neutron

175. A 0.5 kg mass is attached to a string and whirled in a horizontal circle of radius 1 m at a speed of 4 m/s. The tension in the string (centripetal force) is:

A. 8 N B. 16 N C. 4 N D. 2 N

176. In a reversible process, the total entropy change of the system and surroundings is:

A. Zero B. Positive C. Negative D. Infinite

177. A wave travels 200 m in 4 s. Its speed is:

A. 50 m/s B. 800 m/s C. 0.02 m/s D. 25 m/s

178. A string of length 1 m fixed at both ends has a fundamental frequency of 100 Hz. The speed of the wave on the string is:

A. 200 m/s B. 100 m/s C. 50 m/s D. 400 m/s

179. The work-energy theorem states that the net work done on an object equals the change in its:

A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Total energy D. Momentum

180. The work done by friction on a sliding object is:

A. Negative B. Positive C. Zero D. Depends

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