MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 14 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 14 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. The basic structure of plasma membrane is:

A. Proteins B. Cholesterol C. Cytoskeleton D. Phospholipids

2. Passive processes for the movement of molecules across cell surface membrane are:

A. Facilitated diffusion and osmosis B. Pinocytosis and facilitated diffusion C. Diffusion and exocytosis D. Osmosis and Phagocytosis

3. Middle lamella is composed of:

A. Magnesium + sodium salts + pectin B. Magnesium + potassium salts + pectin C. Magnesium + calcium salts + pectin D. Magnesium + calcium phosphate + pectin

4. The process by which various components of cell including its organelles can be isolated is called:

A. Homogenization B. Cell fractionation C. Gel electrophoresis D. Ultracentrifugation

5. Endoplasmic Reticulum consists of system of flattened membrane bounded sacs which are named as:

A. Cristae B. Marks C. Cisternae D. Tubules

6. Glycogen, lipid droplets form the most important ---------------of the cell

A. Cell organelles B. cytoplasmic matrix C. cell inclusions D. non membranous organelles

7. Centrioles are made up of:

A. 9 B. 27 C. 13 D. 12

8. Cyclosis and amoeboid movements are due to :

A. Microtubules B. Microfilaments C. Cilia D. Intermediate filaments

9. Which statement is correct about mitochondria and chloroplast?

A. Number of mitochondria and chloroplast are same in the cell B. Chloroplast and mitochondria are single membrane structure C. Chloroplast and mitochondria can not live independently D. 70S ribosome is attached with inner membrane of mitochondria and chloroplast

10. Carbohydrates are organic molecules and contains three elements:

A. Carbon, Water,Oxygen B. Carbon,Sulphur,Hydrogen C. Carbon,Hydrogen,Oxygen D. None are correct

11. Which one are intermediates in respiration and photosynthesis both:

A. Ribose and heptulose B. GAD and DHA C. Glucose and galactose D. Fructose and ribulose

12. Mono-saccharides have a general formula represented by :

A. Cn(H2O)n B. C2(H2O)n C. C(H2O)n D. Cn(H2O)n

13. Which monosaccharide will form a gluco pyranose ring in solution ?

A. Fructose B. Ribose C. Glucose D. Deoxyribose

14. The most abundant organic compound on the planet earth is:

A. Starch B. Glycogen C. Glucose D. Cellulose

15. The most important hexose in nature is:

A. Fructose B. Glucose C. Starch D. Cellulose

16. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?

A. glucose B. sucrose (C12H22O11) C. rhamnose (C6H12O5)n D. Lactic acid (C3H6O3)

17. This lipid is most common abundant richest source of energy in plant and animal body:

A. Phospholipid B. unsaturated acylglycerol C. Terpenoids D. Terpenes

18. Which of the following molecule contains amino acids?

A. Cellulose B. Collagen C. Sucrose D. Ascorbic acid

19. Most enzymes have an optimum temperature of around

A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 20

20. Capsid, the protective coat of virus is made up of sub-units known as capsomeres:

A. Lipid B. Protein C. DNA D. RNA

21. Numerous opportunistic disease might attack a person suffering from which of the following disease:

A. Measles B. Influenza C. hepatitis A D. AIDS

22. In bacteria the resistance against heat is provided by:

A. Granules B. Cysts C. spores D. plasmids

23. Discoloration of teeth in young children occur by misuse of:

A. Penicillin B. streptomycin C. tetracycline D. all can cause discoloration

24. Multicellular heterotrophic nutrition, cell walls are never present in their cells, which kingdom do these organisms belong to?

A. Kingdom Protista B. Fungi C. Plantae D. Animalia

25. Gut of acoelomates develop from:

A. endoderm B. ectoderm C. mesoderm D. mesoglea

26. Fasciola is the name given to:

A. Tapeworm B. Planaria C. Liver fluke D. Earthworm

27. Water vascular system or ambulacral system is a unique and complex system specially present in?

A. Sponges B. Arthropods C. Echinoderms D. Fishes

28. #NAME?

A. Thylakoid membrane B. Thylakoid space C. Stroma D. Grana

29. In the journey of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I plastocyanin is reduced by:

A. Plastoquinone B. Cytochrome complex C. P700 D. Primary electron acceptor of PS-I

30. Immediate product formed after CO2 fixation in Calvin cycle is:

A. Unstable 6-Carbon compound B. Unstable 5-Carbon compound C. Unstable 4-Carbon compound D. Unstable 3-Carbon compound

31. Which of following processes does not need Pyruvic acid as a substrate:

A. Alcoholic fermentation B. Aerobic respiration C. Calvin cycle D. Lactic acid fermentation

32. Upon initial hydrolysis starch yields:

A. Maltose B. Glucose C. Sucrose D. Mannose

33. Which of the following would not be compromised in the absence of Lymphatic system?

A. Blood Pressure B. Oxygen carrying capacity of blood C. Blood composition D. Defense mechanism

34. During Covid-19 epidemic the plasma of recovered patients was injected in covid patients. This proved quite effective. Which component of plasma do you think was responsible for this:

A. Plasminogen B. Interferons C. Antibodies D. Interleukin-1

35. Choose the correct pathway for the flow of blood:

A. Arterioles — metarterioles — thoroughfare channel — capillaries B. C. D.

36. Highest blood pressure is present in:

A. aorta B. arteries C. veins D. capillaries

37. Which of the following would not be compromised in the absence of Lymphatic system?

A. Blood Pressure B. Oxygen carrying capacity of blood C. Blood composition D. Defense mechanism

38. Which of the following structure hold the bone together?

A. Joints B. Cartilage C. Muscles D. Ligaments

39. A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril b/w two successive:

A. M-lines B. Z-lines C. I-bands D. T-tubules

40. Which of the following is a muscle component that act as store for energy?

A. ATP B. Creatine-PO4 C. Myoglobin D. Creatinine-PO4

41. Which of the following is NOT found in skeletal muscle fibers in human?

A. Multiple nuclei B. Multiple mitochondria C. Large amount of myoglobin D. Large amount of haemoglobin

42. During sliding of actin filaments, ATP is used for ?

A. cross bridge formation B. cross bridge breaking C. dragging filaments D. shortening of filaments

43. Functions of brainstem include all of the following Except:

A. Integration of reflexes B. Autonomic control for respiration C. Equilibrium and pressure regulation D. Initiation of voluntary movement

44. Grey matter of spinal cord does not contain:

A. Cell bodies of sensory neurons B. Axons of motor neuron C. Cell bodies of interneurons D. Cell bodies of motor neurons

45. A condition characterized by hypothyroidism and enlargement of thyroid gland is known as:

A. Graves disease B. Exophthalmia C. Goiter D. Thyroid gland

46. ----- is sometimes given by injection as an emergency treatment in cardiac arrest:

A. Acetylcholine B. Dopamine C. Serotonin D. Epinephrine

47. A type of cells in human testes which produce testosterone are called:

A. Germ cells B. Sertoli Cells C. Interstitial cells D. Spermatocytes

48. FSH stimulates the production of estrogen hormone which has two targets ------ and ------

A. Uterus and posterior pituitary B. Uterus and anterior pituitary C. Ovaries and Uterus D. Ovaries and Hypothalamus

49. Which of the following hormone stimlates the ovulation from the follicle into oviduct?

A. Luteinizing hormone B. estrogen C. Follicle stimulating Hormone D. Progesterone

50. As a result of cross-fertilization of a true-breeding pea plant having purple-colored flowers with that of white-colored flowers, the offspring will have flowers with:

A. 1/4 purple : 3/4 white B. All white C. 1/4 white : 3/4 purple D. All purple

51. In a dihybrid cross is made between pisum sativum plants producing yellow/ Round and Green Wrinkled seeds. Results of F2 generation show: Yellow/ Round =9/16 , Yellow Wrinkled = 3/16 , Green/Round =3/16 & Green Wrinkled =1/16. Which ratios of these results confirm independent assortment had taken place?

A. 16-Sep B. 16-Mar C. 16-Jan D. 3/16 & 3/16

52. Which of the following example of human inheritance is explained by multiple alleles on an autosomal chromosome?

A. the ABO blood group system B. Cystic fibrosis C. Down's syndrome D. Haemophilia

53. The organs which are similar in function but differ in structure are called:

A. Analogous organs B. Homologous organs C. Convergent Evolution D. Divergent evolution

54. The sex of individuals of next generation always depends on one of the parents who is:

A. Heterozygotic B. Homozygotic C. Isogametic D. isomorphic

55. Total number of linkage groups in a normal human is:

A. 02 B. 23 C. 46 D. 92

56. Once an action potential reaches the membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber, what is the first event that occurs in the contraction process?

A. Actin and myosin form a cross bridge B. Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum C. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum D. ATP is hydrolyzed by troponin

57. Name the biomolecule essential for information storage and transmission within cells.

A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Nucleic acids D. Proteins

58. Which of the following surrounds myofibril in skeletal muscle that stores and distributes calcium ions during muscle functioning?

A. Sarcodermna B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum C. Transverse tubules D. Sarcoplasm

59. The most common type of arthritis is:

A. Gout B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Spondylitis

60. Which infectious agent is composed only of protein?

A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Prions

61. What happens during the lysogenic cycle?

A. Kills host cell immediately B. Remains dormant C. Replicates rapidly D. Causes disease quickly

62. What is the genetic material of influenza virus?

A. RNA B. DNA C. Both DNA and RNA D. Protein only

63. Are enveloped viruses more or less sensitive to detergents?

A. More sensitive B. Less sensitive C. Equally sensitive D. Not affected

64. What is bioinformatics?

A. Biology and computer science B. Biology, computer science, and IT C. Biology and mathematics D. Biology and engineering

65. What are blunt ends?

A. Straight cut B. Staggered cut C. Single‑stranded cut D. No cut

66. What is the function of lysosomes?

A. Energy production B. Cellular digestion C. Protein synthesis D. Lipid synthesis

67. What is osmosis?

A. Diffusion of solutes B. Diffusion of water C. Active transport D. Endocytosis

68. What is the centromere?

A. Region where sister chromatids join B. Region where chromosomes attach to spindle C. Region where DNA replication starts D. Region where cell division ends

69. What model describes the cell membrane?

A. Static model B. Fluid mosaic model C. Solid model D. Rigid model

70. What are glycoproteins involved in?

A. Cell adhesion B. Cell recognition C. Transport D. Signaling

71. What is the function of the cerebellum?

A. Thinking B. Coordination and balance C. Heart rate D. Breathing

72. What is peristalsis?

A. Digestion B. Peristalsis C. Absorption D. Secretion

73. What hormone triggers gallbladder contraction?

A. Gastrin B. Cholecystokinin (CCK) C. Secretin D. Insulin

74. What do isomerases catalyze?

A. Oxidation B. Isomerization C. Hydrolysis D. Transfer

75. What is the study of enzymes called?

A. Enzymology B. Enzyme kinetics C. Catalysis D. Biochemistry

76. What is sexual selection?

A. Natural selection B. Sexual selection C. Artificial selection D. Genetic drift

77. What is the function of the urethra?

A. Carries urine from kidney B. Carries urine to outside C. Stores urine D. Filters blood

78. What is ovulation?

A. Release of egg B. Release of sperm C. Fertilization D. Implantation

79. What is the equation for aerobic respiration?

A. C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + ATP B. C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂ + ATP C. C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₃H₆O₃ + ATP D. C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O

80. What are skeletal muscles?

A. Voluntary and striated B. Involuntary and non‑striated C. Voluntary and non‑striated D. Involuntary and striated

81. What is the mollusk shell made of?

A. Calcium carbonate B. Chitin C. Silica D. Cellulose

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. One molecule of O₂ has the same mass as:

A. 8 moles of helium B. 16 moles of H₂ C. 2 molecules of CH₄ D. One gram atom of sulfur

83. Melting point of water is higher than petrol, because intermolecular forces of water are:

A. Weaker than petrol B. Stronger than petrol C. Same as in petrol D. Negligible

84. Carboxylic acids are water soluble because they:

A. are more reactive B. have hydrogen bonding C. have low melting point D. have high density

85. Which of the following compound has less boiling point?

A. Water B. Ethanol C. Hydrogen Sulphide D. Acetic acid

86. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion theory?

A. It determines the shape of molecule B. Pairs of electrons repel each other C. It helps in understanding interaction of medicinal drug molecules D. Only lone pairs participate in determining geometry of molecules

87. Which of the following is a balanced redox equation?

A. Na + Fe³⁺ → Na⁺ + Fe B. 3Na + Fe³⁺ → 3Na⁺ + Fe C. Zn + Ag⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Ag D. 2Zn + Ag⁺ → 2Zn²⁺ + Ag

88. When the concentration of A(g) doubles, the rate of reaction increases four folds. This means it is a:

A. Negative order reaction B. First order reaction C. Zero order reaction D. Second order reaction

89. The sum of exponents in the rate equation gives:

A. Half life B. Velocity constant C. Order of reaction D. Chemical equilibrium

90. 6CO₂ + 6H₂O ⟶ C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ (in presence of sunlight). Predict the order of reaction

A. 1st order B. 2nd order C. 3rd order D. Zero order

91. Which of the following property increases down the group in alkali metals?

A. Ionization energy B. Reactivity C. Electron affinity D. Electronegativity

92. The solubility of alkaline earth metal compounds:

A. Decreases down the group B. Increases down the group C. Remains constant D. First increases then decreases

93. A butane molecule can have a maximum number of isomers:

A. 5 B. 3 C. 4 D. 2

94. Which compound is least reactive?

A. Ethane B. Ethene C. Benzene D. Ethyne

95. Which of the following is an example of tertiary alkyl halide?

A. 2-chloro butane B. 1-chloro methyl pentane C. 2-bromo-3-methyl butane D. 2-bromo-2-methyl butane

96. The increasing stability order of the following compounds (1) CH₃CH₂CH₂⁺ (2) (CH₃)₃C⁺ (3) CH₃CH₂−CH⁺−CH₃ are:

A. 1 > 2 > 3 B. 2 > 3 > 1 C. 3 > 2 > 1 D. 3 > 1 > 2

97. Alkyl halide undergo ------- reaction.

A. Addition B. Oxidation C. Electrophilic substitution D. Nucleophilic substitution

98. The reaction of an alcohol with sodium produces:

A. Aldehyde B. Ether C. Alkoxide D. Alkane

99. Ketones can be prepared by the oxidation of:

A. Primary alcohol B. Secondary alcohol C. Tertiary alcohol D. Propanoic acid

100. If carboxylic acid and ketone groups C=O are present in a chain then final name will be given as:

A. oxo, oic acid B. Both 1 and 2 C. one, oic acid D. None of these

101. What is the IUPAC name of stearic acid?

A. Hexanoic acid B. Octadecanoic acid C. Octanoic acid D. Hexadecanoic acid

102. Mr. Khan mixes acetic acid with thionyl chloride. Which product is obtained?

A. CH₃COCl + SO₂ + HCl B. CH₃COOCH₃ + SO₂ C. CH₃Cl + CH₃COCl D. CH₃Cl + SO₂ + HCl

103. Select the correct order of relative acidic strength of phenol, alcohol, water and carboxylic acid:

A. Carboxylic acid > water > phenol > alcohol B. Carboxylic acid > phenol > water > alcohol C. Carboxylic acid > alcohol > phenol > water D. Carboxylic acid > water > alcohol > phenol

104. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of benzene?

A. Aromaticity B. Stability C. to follow Huckle rule D. High reactivity

105. 1 g of H₂ contains molecules:

A. 6.02 x 10²³ B. 3.01 x 10²³ C. 12.04 x 10²³ D. 1.5 x 10²³

106. The number of molecules in 22.4 dm³ of N₂ at STP is:

A. 6.02 x 10²³ B. 3.01 x 10²³ C. 1.204 x 10²⁴ D. 6.02 x 10²²

107. The number of moles in 64 g of SO₂ is:

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

108. Who discovered the electron?

A. Rutherford B. J.J. Thomson C. Chadwick D. Dalton

109. The shape of a p orbital is:

A. Dumbbell B. Spherical C. Double dumbbell D. Cloverleaf

110. The value of R in L·atm·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ is:

A. 8.314 L·atm·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ B. 0.0821 J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ C. 1.987 cal·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ D. 0.0821 L·atm·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹

111. A barometer is used to measure:

A. Atmospheric pressure B. Gas pressure only C. Temperature D. Volume

112. Honey compared to water has:

A. Higher viscosity B. Lower viscosity C. Same viscosity D. No viscosity

113. A closed system can exchange:

A. Matter only B. Energy only C. Neither D. Energy only

114. The relation between ΔH and ΔU for ideal gases is:

A. ΔH = ΔU B. ΔH = ΔU + nRT C. ΔH = ΔU - ΔnRT D. ΔH = ΔU + ΔnRT

115. Heat capacity is defined as:

A. Heat required to change state B. Heat required to raise temperature by 1°C C. Heat required for combustion D. Heat required for reaction

116. A catalyst has what effect on equilibrium?

A. No effect on equilibrium position B. Shifts equilibrium to right C. Shifts equilibrium to left D. Increases Kc

117. Electrolysis of molten NaCl produces:

A. Na⁺ to Na at anode B. Cl⁻ to Cl₂ at cathode C. Na⁺ to Na₂ at cathode D. Na⁺ to Na at cathode, Cl⁻ to Cl₂ at anode

118. Strong electrolytes:

A. Completely dissociate B. Partially dissociate C. Do not dissociate D. Form complexes

119. Fuel cells convert:

A. Heat energy B. Mechanical energy C. Solar energy D. Chemical energy to electrical

120. The most stable allotrope of sulfur at room temperature is:

A. Rhombic (α) B. Monoclinic (β) C. Plastic sulfur D. Amorphous sulfur

121. Strong field ligands cause:

A. Small splitting, high-spin B. Large splitting, high-spin C. Large splitting, low-spin D. Small splitting, low-spin

122. Position isomerism involves:

A. Different carbon skeleton B. Different functional groups C. Different position of functional group D. Different spatial arrangement

123. The -OH group in phenol is:

A. Ortho/para director and activator B. Meta director C. Deactivator D. Meta director and deactivator

124. Carboxylic acids are acidic because:

A. Stable resonance-stabilized carboxylate ion B. Strong O-H bond C. Electron donating alkyl groups D. Hydrogen bonding

125. Formic acid gives positive Tollens' test because:

A. Acetic acid B. Propionic acid C. Formic acid D. Butyric acid

126. The C=O bond is polar because:

A. C=O bond is nonpolar B. C=O bond is polar, carbon is electrophilic C. C=O bond is ionic D. Oxygen is nucleophilic

English 9 MCQs

127. I am in London this summer. I ___________ English.

A. learn B. learns C. am learning D. learning

128. The samples on the tray _________ testing.

A. needs B. need C. needing D. needed

129. Choose the correct Tense 'He bought a new house last month.'

A. Present B. Future C. Past D. None

130. His theories have been ________ by recent research.

A. Pronounced B. Dammed C. Rearmed D. Debunked

131. International rules _________ the number of foreign entrants.

A. Hoodwink B. Fabricate C. Stipulate D. Traverse

132. Choose the correct sentence:

A. It was cold and foggy, and he dared not to going out B. It was cold and foggy, and he dared not for going out C. It was cold and foggy, and he dared not go out D. It was cold and foggy, and he dared not gone out

133. Pick the correct option.

A. Seven students results are still awaited. B. Seven student's results are still awaited. C. Seven students' results are still awaited. D. Seven student results are still awaited.

134. Pick the correct option:

A. The population of China is much more than Pakistan. B. The population of China are much more than Pakistan. C. The population of China is more than Pakistan. D. The population of China is much more than Pakistan's.

135. She came up with an ____ solution to the problem.

A. Ingenuous B. Ingenious C. Ingenious D. Ingenuous

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the primary cause of darkness during an outage?

A. Power outage B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

137. How to reduce theft effectively?

A. Install CCTV cameras B. Increase police patrols C. Issue fines D. Reduce working hours

138. What to use for paper fires?

A. Use fire extinguisher B. Call the fire brigade C. Close all windows D. Wait for the wind

139. What is the fallacy of making a claim based on limited evidence?

A. Hasty generalization B. Sweeping generalization C. False analogy D. Ad hominem

140. What is determined by the middle term's position?

A. Mood B. Figure C. Form D. Type

141. If it rains, the ground is wet. The ground is wet. What can you conclude?

A. It rained B. It did not rain C. It may have rained D. No conclusion

142. All fruits contain seeds. Apples are fruits. What follows?

A. Apples contain seeds B. Apples do not contain seeds C. Some fruits have seeds D. Seeds are in fruits

143. All chairs are furniture. Some furniture is wooden. What follows?

A. Some chairs are wooden B. Cannot determine C. All chairs are wooden D. No chairs are wooden

144. If you are a runner, you run fast. You run fast. What can you conclude?

A. You are a runner B. Cannot determine C. You run fast D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. The magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the applied voltage as long as temperature is constant. It is statement of:

A. Joule's law B. Gauss's law C. Ohm's law D. Ampere's law

146. Which of the following materials have negative temperature coefficient?

A. Germanium & Silicon B. Germanium and Iron C. Iron and Silicon D. Iron and Copper

147. Slope of displacement-time graph gives the values of:

A. Displacement B. Velocity C. Acceleration D. Distance

148. What will be the value of acceleration if a body of mass 0.5 kg is acted upon by a force of 10 N?

A. 40 m/s² B. 5 m/s² C. 30 m/s² D. 20 m/s²

149. At highest point in a projectile motion, the velocity will be:

A. vx > 0, vy = 0 B. vx = -vy = constant C. constant, vy = 0 D. vx = constant, vy = 0

150. In projectile motion the range of projectile is maximum at:

A. 30° B. 45° C. 60° D. 90°

151. When a force of 1N displaces its point of application by 1m in the direction of force, the work done is:

A. 1 J B. 10 J C. 0 J D. 1 J

152. If body mass 'm' and velocity 'v', then velocity becomes double. K.E becomes:

A. 2 times increased B. 2 times decreased C. 4 times increased D. 4 times decreased

153. An observer standing near the seashore observes 54 waves per minute. If the wavelength of the water is 10 m, then the velocity of the water wave is:

A. 540 m/s B. 9 m/s C. 5.4 m/s D. None

154. The thermodynamic process during which the pressure is kept constant is called:

A. Isochoric process B. Adiabatic process C. Isobaric process D. Isothermal process

155. Capacitance of parallel plate capacitor depends upon:

A. Dielectric constant B. Area of each plate C. Distance b/w plates D. All of above

156. S.I unit of magnetic flux is weber (Wb). In terms of S.I base units, weber can be written as:

A. NmA B. Nm⁻¹A C. Nm⁻¹A⁻¹ D. NmA⁻¹

157. A neutron having mass equal to a proton (mₚ = 1.6 × 10⁻²⁷ kg) is moving in a magnetic field of intensity 1.2 × 10⁻³ T with a speed of 2 × 10⁷ m/s. What is the maximum force experienced by the neutron?

A. 3.84 × 10⁻¹⁵ N B. 0 C. 3.84 × 10⁻¹² N D. 38.4 × 10⁻¹⁵ N

158. The induced current will flow in such a direction that it opposes the cause producing it. The statement belongs to:

A. Ampere's Law B. Lenz's law C. Faraday's law D. Joule's law

159. Which photon is travelling with the largest speed in vacuum?

A. Gamma photon B. Visible light photon C. Infrared D. All photons move with speed of light

160. The electric field at a point due to a point charge is 200N/C. If suppose a -4C test charge is placed at that point then the magnitude of electric field and electric force on it is:

A. 200N/C and 50N B. 200N/C and 200N C. 200N/C and 800N D. 800N/C and 800N

161. The average power dissipated in a series RLC circuit is maximum when:

A. Circuit is at resonance B. XL > XC C. XC > XL D. R is zero

162. The efficiency of an ideal transformer is:

A. 100% B. 0% C. 50% D. Depends on load

163. The ratio of the energy of the first excited state to the ground state energy of hydrogen is:

A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 1/3 D. 1/9

164. In a series circuit, if one bulb blows out, the other bulbs will:

A. Go out B. Glow brighter C. Glow dimmer D. Remain the same

165. The work function of a metal is 2 eV. The threshold frequency is approximately:

A. 4.8 × 10¹⁴ Hz B. 3 × 10¹⁴ Hz C. 6 × 10¹⁴ Hz D. 1.2 × 10¹⁵ Hz

166. A current of 5 A in a coil produces a magnetic flux of 0.2 Wb through the coil. The self-inductance is:

A. 0.04 H B. 1 H C. 0.2 H D. 25 H

167. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons is:

A. Equal to the number of holes B. Greater than holes C. Less than holes D. Zero

168. The output of an XOR gate is 1 when:

A. The inputs are different B. The inputs are same C. All inputs are 1 D. All inputs are 0

169. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to potential V. The charge on it is:

A. Q = CV B. Q = V/C C. Q = C/V D. Q = CV²

170. A pitot tube is used to measure:

A. Flow velocity B. Pressure C. Density D. Viscosity

171. The blood flow in arteries is an example of:

A. Laminar flow B. Turbulent flow C. Both D. Neither

172. A fluid that flows without friction is called:

A. Ideal fluid B. Real fluid C. Newtonian D. Non-Newtonian

173. A fluid with high viscosity flows:

A. Slowly B. Fast C. Without resistance D. Turbulently

174. When a bus suddenly stops, passengers fall forward due to:

A. Inertia B. Gravity C. Friction D. Air resistance

175. Gamma emission does not change:

A. Atomic number or mass number B. Atomic number only C. Mass number only D. Energy

176. Nuclear fusion requires extremely high temperatures to overcome:

A. Coulomb repulsion between nuclei B. Nuclear forces C. Gravity D. Weak force

177. The half-life of uranium-238 is about:

A. 4.5 × 10⁹ years B. 4.5 × 10⁶ years C. 4.5 × 10³ years D. 4.5 × 10⁸ years

178. The time taken for one complete wave to pass a point is called:

A. Period B. Frequency C. Wavelength D. Speed

179. The distance between successive compressions in a sound wave is equal to its:

A. Wavelength B. Amplitude C. Frequency D. Speed

180. The total mechanical energy of a system is the sum of its kinetic and potential energies. In the absence of non-conservative forces, this total energy is:

A. Conserved B. Not conserved C. Increasing D. Decreasing

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