MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 15 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 15 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. #NAME?

A. Membrane proteins B. Membrane glycolipids C. Membrane carbohydrates D. Membrane cholesterol

2. The basic structural framework of all types of membrane are:

A. Glycolipids B. Glycoproteins C. Lipoproteins D. Nucleoproteins

3. Glycogen, lipid droplets form the most important ---------------of the cell

A. Cell organelles B. cytoplasmic matrix C. cell inclusions D. non membranous organelles

4. Which of the following is not the function of lysosome

A. Intracellure digestion B. Autophagy C. Autolysis D. Processing of Cell secretions

5. What is the % of water in 99 bone cells ?

A. 70% B. 20% C. 99% D. 60%

6. Monosaccharides are major components of:

A. DNA,ATP,RUBP,Cysteine B. DNA,NADP,ATP,RUBP C. DNA,NAD,Insulin D. DNA,RNA,Myosin

7. Sickle cell anaemia results from?

A. Reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin B. Linkage between the polypeptide chains C. Single amino acid substitution in the haemoglobin molecule D. Viral infection of RNA viruses

8. The combination of a pentose sugar with a base result in a compound known as:

A. Nucleotide B. Nucleoside C. Nucleic acid D. Polynucleotide

9. Number of base pairs in one turn of DNA is:

A. 10 B. 2 C. 34 D. 54

10. Phosphodiester bond is:

A. P—O—P—C—O—C B. C—O—P— C. C—O—P—O—C D. C—C—O—P

11. The type of inhibition in which inhibitor has no structural similarity to substrate and combines with enzyme at site other than active site is called:

A. Irreversible inhibition B. Competitive inhibition C. Non-competitive inhibition D. Reversible inhibition

12. A student of chemistry mistakenly engulfed the toxic compound "A" which was a potent inhibitor of certain enzyme. He was immediately brought to hospital where Dr. Injected intravenously substrate "B" to minimize the toxic effect of compound A. His life was saved from serious damages. The treatment method shows that the compound A was:

A. Temperature sensitive B. Competitive reversible C. Irreversible D. Non competitive reversible

13. Competitive inhibitors are:

A. Homologous to substrate B. Analogous to substrate C. Smaller than substrate D. Larger than substrate

14. The provirus of HIV is structurally and chemically made up of:

A. ssRNA B. dsRNA C. ssDNA D. dsDNA

15. Function of pilus in bacteria is to:

A. Increase pathogenicity B. Degrade host plasma membrane C. Degrade host enzymes D. Exchange genetic material

16. Photosynthetic bacteria liberate:

A. CO2 B. O2 C. Sulphur D. Hydrogen

17. Which of the following are the genetically engineered bacteria that are used to make growth hormone and insulin for diabetics?

A. Pneumococcus B. E.coli C. Rhizobium D. Nostoc

18. Which of the following describes the production of asexual form from a sexual form and vice versa?

A. Colony B. Alteration of generation C. Parasitism D. Polymorphism

19. Fasciola is the name given to:

A. Tapeworm B. Planaria C. Liver fluke D. Earthworm

20. Water vascular system or ambulacral system is a unique and complex system specially present in?

A. Sponges B. Arthropods C. Echinoderms D. Fishes

21. In light-independent stage of photosynthesis, the CO2 combines with ------ to form an unstable 6-Carbon intermediate:

A. RUBP B. Hexose sugar C. Glycerate 3-phosphate D. Glyceraldehyde-4-phosphate

22. In electron transport chain, NADH is oxidized by

A. Co-enzyme Q B. Cytochrome b C. cytochrome c D. oxygen

23. Enzyme trypsinogen is activated by:

A. Trypsin B. Pepsin C. Enterokinase D. None

24. Choose the correct flow of impulse transmission in the human heart?

A. SA Node → AV Node → Bundle of His → Bundle Branches → Purkinje Fibers B. AV Node → SA Node → Bundle of His → Purkinje Fibers C. Purkinje Fibers → SA Node → AV Node → Bundle of His D. SA Node → Purkinje Fibers → AV Node → Bundle Branches

25. Thoracic lymph duct of the lymphatic system opens into:

A. Superior vena cava B. Subclavian vein C. Inferior vena cava D. Renal vein

26. Weakened papillary muscles of right ventricles would result in constant back flow of blood into:

A. Right Atrium B. Right Ventricle C. Right Ventricle D. Left Atrium

27. Elastic fibers are absent in the walls of:

A. Aorta B. Arteries C. Veins D. capillaries

28. Which of following vessels contain semilunar valves?

A. Arteries B. Veins C. Arterioles D. Capillaries

29. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity:

A. Antibodies from mother's milk B. Previous chickenpox infection C. Inactivated polio vaccine D. Live polio vaccine

30. Vertebrae of the neck are called:

A. Coccygeal vertebrae B. Cervical vertebrae C. Sacral vertebrae D. Lumbar vertebrae

31. Which muscles are abundant in human body?

A. skeletal B. smooth C. cardiac D. none of above

32. Touch receptors are:

A. Pacinian's corpuscles B. Olfactory receptors C. meissner's corpuscles D. nociceptor

33. These are required for the impulse to transfer from presynaptic to post synaptic neuron:

A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Proteins

34. A — is a junction between two neurons or between a motor neuron and a muscle cell:

A. Epinephrine B. Serotonin C. Synaptic knob D. Dopamine

35. Which brain portion is responsible for controlling body's coordination?

A. Medulla B. Amygdala C. Cerebellum D. Pons

36. Gastrin is the hormone which is produced by the:

A. Liver B. Pyloric region of stomach C. Adrenal Gland D. Mucosal Lining of intestine

37. A desert mammal faces severe dehydration in a hot sunny day. Which interval condition would lead to secretion of ADH?

A. High osmotic pressure of blood B. High blood pressure C. Low osmotic pressure of blood D. Low solute potential of blood

38. During spermatogenesis, the --- which are haploid cells eventually mature into spermatozoa/mature sperms

A. Secondary spermatocytes B. Spermatogonia C. Spermatocytes D. Spermatids

39. The function of hyaluronidase enzyme is:

A. Penetration of sperm into the ovum B. entrance of sperm into the Fallopian tube C. Inactivation of sperm after their failure to fertilize ovum D. None of these

40. The theory says that "mitochondria and chloroplasts are, in effect, ancient bacteria which now live inside the larger cells"

A. Darwin's theory of evolution B. Lamarckism C. Neo-Darwinism D. Endosymbiont theory

41. In men ,sex-determination depends upon the nature of:

A. Heterogametic male B. Homogametic male C. Heterogametic female D. Homogametic male

42. Pure breeding lines of pea were taken regarding seed shape -round and wrinkled and were crossed with no intermediate b/w parents.All offspring found to be round. These results show:

A. Co-dominance B. Incomplete Dominance C. dominance over recessive D. Over-Dominance

43. Chance of a Cross over between two loci is directly proportional to their

A. thickness B. width C. length D. distance

44. Which of the following best highlights the importance of proteins in immunity?

A. They act as receptors of pathogens B. They are long term energy reserves C. They act as antibodies D. They act as mechanical barrier for pathogens

45. A person in hot weather is unable to maintain body temperature. Which physiological process has failed?

A. Vasodilation & sweating B. Vasoconstriction C. Shivering D. Renin secretion

46. Which type of joint is present in pubis?

A. Fibrous joints B. Immoveable joints C. Cartilaginous joints D. Freely moveable joints

47. Which of the following neurons conduct impulses from sensory receptors to CNS:

A. Sensory neurons B. Motor neurons C. Efferent neurons D. Interneurons

48. If a male with hemophilia marries a non-carrier female, what is the likelihood of their sons inheriting the condition?

A. 50% B. 100% C. 0% D. 25%

49. What does photosynthesis convert?

A. Light to chemical B. Chemical to light C. Light to heat D. Chemical to mechanical

50. What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?

A. NAD+ B. Oxygen C. FAD D. Cytochrome c

51. Where does the Calvin cycle occur?

A. Stroma B. Thylakoid membranes C. Cytoplasm D. Mitochondria

52. Which is endothermic and which is exothermic?

A. Endothermic, exothermic B. Exothermic, endothermic C. Both endothermic D. Both exothermic

53. What is the process of ATP production using a proton gradient called?

A. Electron transport B. Chemiosmosis C. Substrate‑level phosphorylation D. Oxidative phosphorylation

54. Where do non‑competitive inhibitors bind?

A. Active site B. Allosteric site C. Substrate D. Cofactor

55. What is the state of unsaturated fatty acids at room temperature?

A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Semisolid

56. What is the complementary base pairing in DNA?

A. A‑G and T‑C B. A‑T and G‑C C. A‑C and G‑T D. A‑U and G‑C

57. What is gene therapy?

A. Inserting a normal gene B. Removing a gene C. Mutating a gene D. Cloning an organism

58. What is bioremediation?

A. Produce biofuels B. Clean up pollutants C. Make medicines D. Improve crops

59. What does Northern blotting detect?

A. DNA B. RNA C. Proteins D. Lipids

60. What is Agrobacterium tumefaciens used for?

A. Bacteria that infects animals B. Bacteria that transfers genes to plants C. Virus that infects plants D. Fungus that transfers genes

61. What is the function of ribosomes?

A. Lipid synthesis B. Protein synthesis C. Carbohydrate synthesis D. DNA replication

62. What is the function of lysosomes?

A. Energy production B. Cellular digestion C. Protein synthesis D. Lipid synthesis

63. Where is the pulmonary valve located?

A. Right ventricle and pulmonary artery B. Left ventricle and aorta C. Right atrium and right ventricle D. Left atrium and left ventricle

64. What is atherosclerosis?

A. Buildup of plaque in veins B. Buildup of plaque in arteries C. Buildup of plaque in capillaries D. Buildup of plaque in heart

65. What is the junction between neurons called?

A. Synapse B. Synaptic cleft C. Neurotransmitter D. Receptor

66. What does lipase digest?

A. Lipids into fatty acids and glycerol B. Proteins into amino acids C. Starch into glucose D. Nucleic acids into nucleotides

67. Why are enzymes specific?

A. Due to pH B. Due to temperature C. Due to active site shape D. Due to cofactors

68. What is the zymogen of pepsin?

A. Trypsinogen B. Pepsinogen C. Chymotrypsinogen D. Proelastase

69. What is an example of evolution in bacteria?

A. Antibiotic resistance B. Viral resistance C. Fungal resistance D. Parasitic resistance

70. What does the liver do with excess glucose?

A. Stores glucose as glycogen B. Releases glucose C. Converts glycogen to glucose D. Produces glucose

71. What is the stored form of glucose in animals?

A. Starch B. Glycogen C. Cellulose D. Sucrose

72. How do the lungs help regulate pH?

A. Oxygen levels B. CO₂ levels C. Water levels D. Nutrient levels

73. Which systems regulate homeostasis?

A. Nervous only B. Endocrine only C. Both nervous and endocrine D. Muscular

74. Where is urea produced?

A. Kidney B. Liver C. Muscle D. Brain

75. What do cytotoxic T cells do?

A. Activate B cells B. Kill infected cells C. Produce antibodies D. Present antigens

76. What are linked genes?

A. Inherited together B. Inherited independently C. Segregate together D. No linkage

77. Which mammals have a pouch?

A. Marsupials B. Monotremes C. Placental mammals D. None

78. What are the characteristics of aerobic respiration?

A. Requires oxygen B. Produces ATP C. Produces CO₂ and H₂O D. All of these

79. What is another name for the Krebs cycle?

A. Citric acid cycle B. Glycolysis C. Electron transport chain D. Fermentation

80. What does the appendicular skeleton include?

A. Limbs and girdles B. Skull and vertebral column C. Rib cage and sternum D. Pelvis and ribs

81. How do muscles work together?

A. Antagonistic pairs B. Synergistic pairs C. Independent D. None

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. Heating 24.8 g of copper carbonate (CuCO₃) in a crucible produced only 13.9 g of copper oxide (CuO). What is the percentage yield of copper oxide (CuO)?

A. 81.79% B. 83.33% C. 86.87% D. 89.68%

83. From the equation N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃, how many moles of NH₃ are produced from 2.5 moles of N₂?

A. 2.5 moles B. 5 moles C. 2 moles D. 7.5 moles

84. One mole of an ideal gas at STP has volume in dm³:

A. 22.414 B. 22412 C. 224.4 D. 2244.1

85. Intermolecular forces between molecules of ideal gas are:

A. Very strong B. very weak C. Zero D. Moderately strong

86. All of the following compound have characteristic heat of fusion except?

A. NaCl B. Aluminium Oxide C. Iron Oxide D. silicates

87. The nature of cathode rays in a discharge tube :

A. Depends upon nature of gas taken in discharge tube B. Depends upon nature of cathode in discharge tube C. Is independent of nature of gas in discharge tube D. Depends upon the nature of anode in discharge tube

88. Number of electrons in p orbital are:

A. 10 B. 6 C. 2 D. 14

89. Correct order of decreasing electron affinities of Group VII is:

A. F > Cl > Br > I B. Cl > F > Br > I C. I > Br > Cl > F D. Br > Cl > F > I

90. Which of the following compounds shows shortest C–H bond length?

A. Methane B. Acetylene C. Ethylene D. Ethane

91. Which of the following is true for equilibrium reaction at equilibrium?

A. Rate of forward reaction > backward reaction B. Rate of backward = forward reaction C. Rate of forward < backward reaction D. Rate of backward reaction > forward reaction

92. For exothermic reaction:

A. Products are at higher energy state than reactants B. Products and reactants are at same energy level C. Products are at lower energy state than reactants D. Products have higher entropy than reactants

93. The solubility of sulphates of alkaline metals generally:

A. Increase down the group B. Decrease down the group C. Increase then decrease down the group D. Doesn't change down the group

94. Why do transition elements form interstitial compounds?

A. Presence of unpaired electrons B. High melting points C. Hole present in Crystle lattice of transition element D. Variable oxidation states

95. H₂O has geometry:

A. Regular tetrahedron B. Linear C. Distorted tetrahedral geometry D. Pyramidal

96. The element chlorine is found in gaseous state while bromine is found in:

A. Solid state B. Liquid state C. Crystalline form D. Condensed form

97. Which compound is formed when magnesium is reacted with 2 molecules of water?

A. Mg(OH)₂ B. MgOH C. Mg:OH D. Mg:(OH)₂

98. Cu²⁺ salt solution is blue in color due to transition of electrons from:

A. d to d orbital B. p to p orbital C. p to d orbital D. s to p orbital

99. The compound with an atom, which has an unshared pair of electrons is called:

A. Nucleophile B. Electrophile C. Protophile D. None of the above

100. 2-Chloropropane is heated with Na metal to form 2,3-dimethylbutane. The reaction is:

A. Wurtz reaction B. Dehydrohalogenation C. Catalytic hydrogenation D. Fall

101. Isopropyl benzene is also called:

A. Cumene B. Xylene C. Toluene D. Cresol

102. Freon is commonly known as:

A. Refrigerant B. A solvent C. Insecticides D. A fire extinguisher

103. Cannizzaro's reaction is given by:

A. Formaldehyde B. Acetaldehyde C. Acetone D. Butanone

104. The blue color of Fehling's solution changes to red when warmed with an aldehyde due to the formation of:

A. NO₂ B. Cu₂O C. Ag D. SO₂

105. What is the IUPAC name of stearic acid?

A. Hexanoic acid B. Octadecanoic acid C. Octanoic acid D. Hexadecanoic acid

106. Which one shows anisotropic behavior?

A. Wood B. Gemstone C. Coke D. Graphite

107. Which one is a polyatomic molecule?

A. O₂ B. O₃ C. N₂ D. H₂

108. The maximum number of electrons in an f subshell is:

A. 6 B. 10 C. 14 D. 2

109. The electronic configuration of Na (Z=11) is:

A. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹ B. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² C. 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ 3s² D. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s⁰

110. Schottky defect involves:

A. Cation vacancy only B. Interstitial atom C. Anion vacancy only D. Pair of cation and anion vacancies

111. Frenkel defect involves:

A. Cation vacancy + interstitial cation B. Anion vacancy + interstitial anion C. Pair of vacancies D. Interstitial electron

112. Molar heat capacity is per:

A. 1 gram B. 1 kilogram C. 1 liter D. 1 mole

113. Units of k for second-order reaction:

A. s⁻¹ B. mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹ C. mol⁻¹ dm³ s⁻¹ D. dm³ mol⁻¹ s⁻¹

114. For a first-order reaction, t₁/₂ is:

A. Depends on initial concentration B. Independent of initial concentration C. Depends on temperature only D. Depends on catalyst

115. Kohlrausch's law states Λ°ₘ is:

A. Product of ionic conductivities B. Difference of ionic conductivities C. Average of ionic conductivities D. Sum of ionic conductivities

116. Strongest oxidizing agents have:

A. Most negative E° B. Zero E° C. Most positive E° D. Intermediate E°

117. Corrosion is:

A. Electrochemical oxidation B. Electrochemical reduction C. Physical wear D. Thermal degradation

118. Sodium is stored:

A. In water B. In open air C. Under kerosene oil D. Under ethanol

119. Which transition metals are ferromagnetic?

A. Fe, Co, Ni B. Cu, Ag, Au C. Zn, Cd, Hg D. Mn, Cr, V

120. Metallic bond is:

A. Ions and molecules B. Atoms and ions C. Ions and covalent bonds D. Metal ions and delocalized electrons

121. Alkenes are also called:

A. Paraffins B. Acetylenes C. Aromatics D. Olefins

122. Polymer formation from monomers is called:

A. Hydrolysis B. Polymerization C. Isomerization D. Oxidation

123. The region on an enzyme where substrate binds is:

A. Substrate B. Active site C. Product D. Coenzyme

124. Fructose is a:

A. Aldohexose B. Ketohexose C. Aldopentose D. Ketohexose

125. Solvay process produces:

A. Sodium carbonate B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Sodium hydroxide D. Sodium chloride

126. Products of chlor-alkali process:

A. Cl₂ at anode, NaOH and H₂ at cathode B. NaOH at anode, Cl₂ at cathode C. Both Cl₂ and NaOH at anode D. H₂ at anode, Cl₂ at cathode

English 9 MCQs

127. Punctuate the given sentence correctly.

A. My father is Chairman of the Committee on Internal Relations. He also heads the Discipline Committee. B. My father is Chairman of the Committee on Internal Relations-he also heads the Discipline Committee. C. My father is Chairman of the Committee on Internal Relations: he also heads the Discipline Committee. D. My father is Chairman of the Committee on Internal Relations, but he also heads the Discipline Committee.

128. That is just an example of what I complain ______. (Mr. Chips Chapter # 11)

A. Of B. Of C. To D. With

129. Choose the correct sentence:

A. She had turned on the supper steaks when the telephone rang B. She had turned over the supper steaks when the telephone rang C. She had turned into the supper steaks when the telephone rang D. She had turned in the supper steaks when the telephone rang

130. Select the synonym for: Dissonance

A. Inconsistency B. Perceptible C. Expansion D. Warm

131. The cause of car accident can have been a malfunctioning brake pads. (Choose the incorrect underlined item)

A. The cause B. Can C. have D. malfunctioning

132. Identify the type of sentence: The place where Buddha was cremated has recently been discovered.

A. Simple sentence B. Compound sentence C. Complex sentence D. compound complex sentence

133. Choose the correct past tense: "She ____ the team to victory."

A. lead B. leaded C. leaden D. led

134. The government decided to ____ the movie.

A. Censor B. Censure C. Censor D. Censure

135. What is the meaning of "deceptive" in: "His calm demeanor was deceptive; he was actually extremely angry."

A. Honest B. Misleading C. Clear D. Reliable

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the primary cause of darkness during an outage?

A. Power outage B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

137. What does tree cutting cause?

A. Loss of biodiversity B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

138. What do subsidies cause?

A. Lower prices B. Economic growth C. Stagnation D. Hyperinflation

139. What should be the first course of action during a sudden flood?

A. Distribute relief goods B. Wait for rescue teams C. Evacuate all residents D. Conduct awareness seminars

140. What to do with degraded lands?

A. Plant more trees B. Ban vehicles C. Build concrete roads D. Increase fossil fuel use

141. Is a sample of 100 sufficient to conclude about all customers?

A. 100 is sufficient B. 100 may be insufficient C. 100 is irrelevant D. 100 is too large

142. What effect is "everyone believes it"?

A. Bandwagon effect B. Slippery slope C. False dilemma D. Circular reasoning

143. What comes next: M, K, G, A, S, ?

A. I B. H C. J D. I

144. If no X are Y, what is the relationship between Y and X?

A. No Y are X B. Some Y are X C. All Y are X D. Some Y are not X

Physics 36 MCQs

145. The gradient of velocity-time graph is equal to:

A. Distance B. Force C. Acceleration D. Speed

146. If we drop an object, its initial velocity is zero. How far will it fall in time t?

A. 9.8t² B. 4.9t² C. 0.49t² D. 98t²

147. What will be the value of acceleration if a body of mass 0.5 kg is acted upon by a force of 10 N?

A. 40 m/s² B. 5 m/s² C. 30 m/s² D. 20 m/s²

148. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Reaction force on a body is always balanced by the action force B. Reaction and action forces are always equal C. Action and reaction forces never act on the same body D. Newton's third law is always valid in all situations

149. If mass and speed of object double, kinetic energy becomes:

A. Eight times B. Four times C. Doubled D. Sixteen times

150. One Megawatt hour equals:

A. 3.6 × 10⁶J B. 3.6 × 109J C. 3.6 MJ D. 3.5 mJ

151. Work done by gravity pulling 10N stone from 250m cliff to ground:

A. 250J B. 25J C. 2500J D. 25000J

152. 1 radian is equal to:

A. 57.1° B. 57.2° C. 57.3° D. 57.4°

153. An electric motor turns at 400 revolutions per minute. Its angular velocity in rad/s will be:

A. 20 π /3 B. 40 π /3 C. 30 π /3 D. 30 π /4

154. An observer standing near the seashore observes 54 waves per minute. If the wavelength of the water is 10 m, then the velocity of the water wave is:

A. 540 m/s B. 9 m/s C. 5.4 m/s D. None

155. The horizontal distance travelled by wave during one complete cycle is called:

A. Frequency B. Wavelength C. Amplitude D. Time period

156. Longitudinal waves exhibit:

A. Polarization B. Particle nature C. Property of energy transmission D. Phenomena of superposition of waves

157. In Doppler effect, the apparent frequency is ___ actual frequency when source moves toward observer:

A. Less than B. More than C. Equal to D. Unchanged

158. The internal energy of a system during an isothermal process:

A. Decreases B. Increases C. Becomes zero D. Remain constant

159. The SI unit of potential difference is:

A. Volt B. Coulomb C. Watt D. eV

160. If a slab of dielectric constant εr = 2 is inserted between the parallel plates of a charged 20μF capacitor. Its capacitance will:

A. Remain the same B. Be doubled C. Be halved D. Be four times

161. In the case of parallel plate capacitor, when the distance between the two plates is reduced to half and the area of the plate is doubled the capacitance:

A. Capacitance remains same B. Capacitance doubles C. Increases six times D. Increases four times

162. S.I unit of magnetic flux is weber (Wb). In terms of S.I base units, weber can be written as:

A. NmA B. Nm⁻¹A C. Nm⁻¹A⁻¹ D. NmA⁻¹

163. Magnetic flux will be maximum when the angle:

A. Is 0° between B and area vector B. Is 90° between B and area vector C. Is 45° between B and area vector D. Is 60° between B and area vector

164. A magnetic field exerts a force on a charged particle:

A. If the particle moving across the field lines B. If the particle moving along the field lines C. If the particle is at rest D. Always experience force

165. In Fleming right hand rule the middle finger indicates:

A. Force B. Magnetic field C. Induced current D. Volt

166. Output voltage of rectifier is not smooth; it can be made smooth by a circuit known as:

A. Wheatstone circuit B. Bridge circuit C. Filter circuit D. Ripple circuit

167. 189F=188O +X+Y+Q

A. X=B+,Y=ɣ B. X=B,Y= ɣ C. Both are correct D. None is correct

168. When a droplet reaches terminal velocity, its acceleration is:

A. Zero B. Variable C. Not changed D. Negative

169. The power factor of an RLC series circuit at resonance is:

A. 1 B. 0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707

170. The series limit of the Paschen series is around:

A. 820.4 nm B. 1875 nm C. 1282 nm D. 1094 nm

171. Planck's quantum hypothesis states that energy is emitted or absorbed in discrete packets called:

A. Quanta B. Waves C. Photons D. Both A and C

172. A step-up transformer increases voltage because:

A. Secondary turns > Primary turns B. Primary turns > Secondary turns C. Secondary current is high D. Flux is high

173. A zener diode is designed to operate in:

A. Reverse breakdown region B. Forward bias region C. Both forward and reverse D. Saturation region

174. The impulse-momentum theorem states that impulse equals:

A. Change in momentum B. Change in kinetic energy C. Change in velocity D. Change in acceleration

175. The center of mass of a system of particles moves as if:

A. All mass is concentrated there and external forces act there B. It is stationary C. It moves with constant velocity always D. It depends on internal forces

176. The angular velocity of an object in circular motion is a vector quantity. Its direction is given by:

A. The right-hand rule (along the axis) B. Along the radius C. Tangential to the circle D. Outward

177. If a vector is multiplied by a positive scalar, its direction:

A. Remains the same B. Reverses C. Becomes perpendicular D. Changes by 90°

178. In a transverse wave, the particle displacement is:

A. Perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation B. Parallel to the direction C. At 45° D. Circular

179. A wave travels 200 m in 4 s. Its speed is:

A. 50 m/s B. 800 m/s C. 0.02 m/s D. 25 m/s

180. A spring is stretched by 2 cm and has potential energy 0.4 J. The spring constant is:

A. 2000 N/m B. 20 N/m C. 200 N/m D. 4000 N/m

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