MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 16 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 16 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. The intake of liquid materials across the cell membrane is:

A. Phagocytosis B. Endocytosis C. Pinocytosis D. Exocytosis

2. Chemically cell wall of fungi is made up of:

A. Cellulose B. Lignin C. Chitin D. Murein

3. Middle lamella is composed of:

A. Magnesium + sodium salts + pectin B. Magnesium + potassium salts + pectin C. Magnesium + calcium salts + pectin D. Magnesium + calcium phosphate + pectin

4. Which of the following is the most prominent part of cell membrane in living organisms?

A. Terpenoids B. Phospholipids C. Waxes D. Acylglycerols

5. Cell membrane contains--------through which movement of materials takes place by active and passive transport:

A. Lipids B. Charged pores C. Corner proteins D. Carbohydrates

6. Which organelles of animal cells are called suicidal bags?

A. Peroxisomes B. Glyoxisomes C. Lysosomes D. Food Vacuoles

7. Which one is the power house of cell?

A. Ribosome B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondria D. chloroplast

8. The colloidal mixture of ions, organic and inorganic salts present in the nucleus is called:

A. nuclear membrane B. nucleoplasm C. nucleolus D. chromosome

9. Which of the following is absent from membrane of prokaryotes?

A. Glycolipid B. Cholesterol C. Glycoprotein D. Phopholipid

10. Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize ?

A. Non polar covalent bond B. Hydrogen bond C. Polar covalent bond D. Covalent bonds

11. How much temperature rise (°C) will be observed, as per definition of specific capacity, if energy is used to raise the temperature of 1gram of a substance?

A. 1°C B. 2°C C. 3°C D. 4°C

12. Ribose is a pentose sugar (5-carbon) that contains:

A. Aldehyde group B. Ketone group C. Carboxyl group D. Ester group

13. Less reactivity of sucrose is due to its:

A. High solubility in water B. Polar Nature C. Unavailability of functional Group D. Alpha 1-2 Glycosidic Linkage

14. Which lipid is totally hydrophobic or insoluble:

A. Triglycerides B. Phospholipids C. Waxes D. Terpenoids

15. C-H bonds in lipids are important:

A. As insulating material B. Providing more energy C. As exoskeleton D. As cuticle of leaves

16. Enzymes lower the activation energy by stabilizing the transition state of a metabolic reaction due to:

A. Changing conditions within the active site B. Changing conditions within the protein framework C. Rearranging the fatty acids in active site D. Distorting the molecules in allosteric site

17. In virus, a combined structure formed by core(nucleic acid) and capsid is:

A. Nucleocapsid B. Prion C. Envelope D. Capsomeres

18. Taxonomy includes the arrangement of organisms into different taxa. Which of following represents the correct heirarche of various taxa of classification:

A. Specie,genus,family,order,class,phylum B. Order,family,class,phylum,kingdom C. Species,genus,order,family,class,phylum D. Species,genus,family,class,order,phylum

19. Respiration in Pseudomonas bacteria is :

A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic C. Facultative D. Miroaerophilic

20. Which statement about bacteria is true:

A. Gram positive bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall B. Gram negative bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall C. Lipids are absent in cell wall of both gram +ve and -ve D. Both have equal amount of lipids

21. Probiotics in infants formula milk are the normal bacterial flora to humans. They keep the babies healthy by doing all the following actions except:

A. Produce important vitamins B. Kill pathogenic bacteria C. prevent colonization of pathogens D. Enhance immunity

22. Gut of acoelomates develop from:

A. endoderm B. ectoderm C. mesoderm D. mesoglea

23. Which of following photo-system is involved in cyclic photophosphorylation?

A. PS-I and PS-II B. PS-II C. PS-III D. PS-I

24. Total NADH formed by one molecule of glucose during Krebs cycle are:

A. 6 B. 3 C. 8 D. 18

25. In chemiosmosis, the proton (H+) pumps moves from:

A. Stroma to Lumen B. Stroma to cytoplasm C. lumen to stroma D. Cytoplasm to stroma

26. Which of the following does not produce by pancreas?

A. trypsin B. amylase C. pepsin D. lipase

27. Which of following are absorbed in large intestine:

A. Water and salts B. Salts and glycerol C. Water and peptones D. Amino acids and sugars

28. Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms for trapping and digesting small animals. The product of this digestion is used to supplement the plant's supply of:

A. Carbohydrates B. Nitrites C. Lipids D. Oxygen

29. Oxygen released into atmosphere comes from:

A. CO2 B. H2O C. H2CO3 D. CO2 and H2O

30. Blood containing CO2 is

A. Dark Red color B. Blue color C. Reddish purple color D. Reddish blue color

31. In ECG, QRS wave represents:

A. Ventricular systole B. atrial systole C. Diastole D. Recovery systole

32. Which of the following is not a non-specific immune response:

A. HCL B. Mucus C. T Cells D. Spermines

33. Cranium is a part of skull contain:

A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 14

34. Irregular striations and involuntary control is related to ?

A. cardiac muscle cells B. skeletal muscle cells C. Fibro-elastic cartilage cell D. smooth muscle cells

35. Which of the following are myogenic type of muscles?

A. Glandular muscles B. Cardiac muscles C. skeletal muscles D. smooth muscles

36. The neuron is said to be polarized when the:

A. Inside of the plasma membrane has a negative energy compared to the outside B. Inside of the plasma membrane has a positive energy compared to the outside C. Inside the plasma membrane has same energy compared to the outside D.

37. Which of the following helps in long term memory in humans?

A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Medulla D. Hippocampus

38. The human brain is different from animal's brain due to:

A. The cerebral cortex of the animal's brain is more developed B. The cerebral cortex is absent in the human brain C. Cerebral cortex is absent in all animal's brain D. The cerebral cortex of the human brain is more developed

39. Which function is not controlled by hypothalamus?

A. Regulate hunger B. Regulate sleep C. Regulate water balance D. storing long time memories

40. What is effect of STH on human body?

A. increase thyroxine secretion B. increase heart rate C. increase growth rate D. increase adrenal gland secretion

41. Which of the following is known as master gland?

A. Pituitary B. Adrenaline C. Insulin D. Thyroxin

42. Which body function is controlled through positive feedback mechanism:

A. Labour contractions B. body temperature C. Insulin Production D. Thyroxine release

43. Endorphins are produced in:

A. Brain B. Adrenal glands C. Thymus D. Stomach

44. In which phase of human female menstrual cycle, endometrium prepares for the implantation of embryo?

A. Proliferative Phase B. Menstrual Phase C. Secretory phase D. Ovulation phase

45. Corpus luteum in mammals occurs in:

A. Brain & connects the two cerebral hemispheres B. Ovaries & produces progesterone hormones C. Heart & initiate arterial connection D. Skin & acts as a pain receptor

46. Luteinizing hormone , which is produced by the pituitary gland, promotes ovulation and stimulate the ovaries to produce:

A. Estrogen B. estrogen & Progesterone C. Progesterone D. Oxytocin

47. The incubation period of syphilis is:

A. 1-2 weeks B. 2-3 weeks C. 3-4 weeks D. 07 days

48. --------- is spread through sexual contact:

A. Gonorrhoea B. Influenza C. Tuberculosis D. Typhoid

49. In males, the sex-determining gene is:

A. XY B. SRY C. SYX D. SXX

50. A person was married to his cousin, and both are heterozygous for sickle cell anemia. Among their four kids, what will be the proportion of affected homozygotes?

A. 50% B. 25% C. 75% D. 100%

51. The idea of inheritance of acquired characteristics was presented by:

A. Jean Baptist Lamarck B. Charles Darwin C. Thomas Malthus D. Alfred Wallace

52. Which statement is not correct for the Darwin's theory of natural selection?

A. Survival in the struggle for existence is random B. The fit individuals leave more off springs into their environment C. the unequal ability of individuals to survive and reproduce will lead to a gradual D. Accumulation over the generations thus leading to the evolution of a new species

53. Structures found in different species which are believed to have a common evolutionary origin are called:

A. Homologous B. Analogous C. Vestigial D. fossilized

54. Which part of brain controls transition between sleeping and wakefulness?

A. Medulla oblongata B. Cerebellum C. Cerebrum D. Pons

55. What is the function of a centromere?

A. To protect the ends of chromosomes B. To hold sister chromatids together C. To carry genetic information D. To initiate DNA replication

56. Which of the following best highlights the importance of proteins in immunity?

A. They act as receptors of pathogens B. They are long term energy reserves C. They act as antibodies D. They act as mechanical barrier for pathogens

57. Which of the following is a key feature of RNA?

A. Deoxyribose and thymine B. Double stranded and thymine C. Ribose and uracil D. Ribose and thymine

58. Which of the following muscle types are involuntary in action?

A. Skeletal and smooth B. Skeletal and cardiac C. Cardiac and smooth D. Smooth muscle only

59. Which infectious agent is composed only of protein?

A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Prions

60. What type of bond links amino acids?

A. Carboxyl‑carboxyl B. Carboxyl‑amino C. Amino‑amino D. R‑group‑R‑group

61. What are non‑protein molecules that assist enzymes called?

A. Inhibitors B. Cofactors C. Substrates D. Allosteric regulators

62. What is the complementary base pairing in DNA?

A. A‑G and T‑C B. A‑T and G‑C C. A‑C and G‑T D. A‑U and G‑C

63. What are cilia and flagella involved in?

A. Cell movement B. Cell division C. Protein synthesis D. Nutrient storage

64. What is the fungal cell wall made of?

A. Chitin B. Cellulose C. Peptidoglycan D. Lipid

65. Where is the pulmonary valve located?

A. Right ventricle and pulmonary artery B. Left ventricle and aorta C. Right atrium and right ventricle D. Left atrium and left ventricle

66. What is the parasympathetic nervous system responsible for?

A. Fight‑or‑flight B. Rest and digest C. Voluntary movement D. Sensation

67. What does the pancreas secrete?

A. Digestive enzymes and bicarbonate B. Bile C. HCl D. Insulin

68. What is segmentation?

A. Moves food forward B. Mixes food C. Absorbs nutrients D. Secretes enzymes

69. What happens to enzymes at high temperatures?

A. Optimum temperature B. Denature at high temperature C. Work best at low temperature D. No effect of temperature

70. What do oxidoreductases catalyze?

A. Transferases B. Oxidoreductases C. Hydrolases D. Lyases

71. What does the glomerulus do?

A. Filters blood B. Reabsorbs water C. Secretes ions D. Carries urine

72. What do memory cells do?

A. Provide immediate response B. Provide long‑term immunity C. Produce antibodies D. Kill pathogens

73. What does vaccination stimulate?

A. Antibodies B. Memory cells C. Phagocytes D. Cytokines

74. Which system is involved in immunity?

A. Lymphatic system B. Circulatory system C. Respiratory system D. Digestive system

75. What do lymph nodes do?

A. Filter blood B. Filter lymph C. Produce antibodies D. Store red blood cells

76. Which mammals have a pouch?

A. Marsupials B. Monotremes C. Placental mammals D. None

77. What is the inner mitochondrial membrane impermeable to?

A. Impermeable to protons B. Permeable to protons C. Impermeable to electrons D. Permeable to electrons

78. What are the bronchi?

A. Two main branches B. Three branches C. One branch D. None

79. What is the respiratory chain?

A. Electron transport chain B. Krebs cycle C. Glycolysis D. Fermentation

80. What do ligaments connect?

A. Bone to muscle B. Bone to bone C. Muscle to muscle D. Bone to cartilage

81. What are synovial joints?

A. Freely movable B. Slightly movable C. Immovable D. None

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. The 1st step in determining empirical formula is:

A. Find gram atoms of each element B. Atomic ratio of elements C. % composition of each element D. Multiply atomic ratio with whole number

83. The number of molecules in 9g of ice (H₂O) is:

A. 3.01 × 10²² B. 3.01 × 10²⁵ C. 3.01 × 10²³ D. 6.02 × 10²³

84. The kinetic molecular theory of gases explains:

A. Mass number B. The behaviour of gases C. Atoms number D. Electron

85. Molar heat of vaporization of water is:

A. 40.7 cal / mol B. 40.7 kcal / mol C. 40.7 J / mol D. 40.7 kJ / mol

86. Predict the shape of CsCl having radius ratio of 0.93.

A. Tetrahedral B. Octahedral C. Body centered cubic D. Hexagonal

87. Which of the following is not true for increased synthesis of NH₃ in Haber's process (ΔH = –92.5 kJ/mol)?

A. Low temperature B. High pressure C. Continuous removal of NH₃ D. Continuous addition of NH₃

88. To minimize leftover reactants in ammonia synthesis, use conditions:

A. 200 atm, 500°C B. 400 atm, 200°C C. 100 atm, 400°C D. 200 atm, 400°C

89. Which one of the following is the correct presentation for Ksp? AgCl ⇌ Ag⁺ + Cl⁻

A. Ksp = [AgCl] / [Ag⁺][Cl⁻] B. Ksp = [Ag⁺][Cl⁻] C. Ksp = [Ag⁺][Cl⁻] / [AgCl] D. Ksp = [AgCl]

90. A reaction is first order with respect to A and second order with respect to B. The rate equation is:

A. Rate = k[A] B. Rate = k[A][B]² C. Rate = k[A]²[B] D. Rate = k[A][B]

91. Half-life of N₂O₅ at 0°C is 24 min. How long will it take for a sample to decay to 25% of its original concentration?

A. 24 min B. 72 min C. 120 min D. 48 min

92. When temperature of reacting gases is raised by 10 K, the rate will increase to:

A. Double B. Four times C. Three times D. Five times

93. Which of the following has the highest atomic radius in its period?

A. Alkaline earth metals B. Alkali metals C. Chalcogens D. Halogens

94. The compound with an atom, which has an unshared pair of electrons is called:

A. Nucleophile B. Electrophile C. Protophile D. None of the above

95. Geometric isomerism is exhibited by:

A. Alcohol B. Ethers C. Alkynes D. Alkenes

96. The pKb of n-propyl amine is:

A. 3.24 B. 3.32 C. 3.28 D. 3.35

97. Secondary alcohol is the product of reduction of which carbonyl compound?

A. Aldehyde B. Ketone C. Carboxylic acid D. Ester

98. Phenol has following characteristics and physical properties:

A. Colorless crystalline solid B. Colorless crystalline deliquescent solid C. Colorless amorphous solid D. Colorless amorphous deliquescent solid

99. Acetic anhydride is a product of acetic acid as a result of the following reaction:

A. Dehydration B. Reduction C. Oxidation D. Esterification

100. Among the following compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack on carbonyl carbon is:

A. CH3COCl B. CH3CHO C. CH3COOCH₃ D. CH3COOCOCH₃

101. Which of the following contains the maximum number of atoms?

A. 1 mole of CO₂ B. 1 mole of H₂O C. 1 mole of CH₄ D. 1 mole of NH₃

102. The molecular formula of a compound with empirical formula CH and molar mass 78 g/mol is:

A. C₆H₆ B. C₂H₂ C. C₄H₄ D. C₈H₈

103. Isomorphism means:

A. Same chemical formula B. Same mass C. Same crystal structure D. Same color

104. Enthalpy is defined as:

A. H = U + PV B. H = U - PV C. H = PV D. H = q + w

105. Bond breaking is:

A. Breaking is exothermic B. Breaking is endothermic C. Formation is endothermic D. Both are endothermic

106. Degree of dissociation (α) is:

A. Total molecules B. Fraction of molecules dissociated C. Concentration of products D. Rate of reaction

107. Reaction rate is defined as:

A. Total amount of product formed B. Change in concentration per unit time C. Time taken for completion D. Energy released

108. A catalyst works by:

A. Increases Eₐ B. Decreases Eₐ C. Increases A D. Changes ΔH

109. An elementary reaction is:

A. Multi-step reaction B. Single-step reaction C. Catalyzed reaction D. Reversible reaction

110. For a zero-order reaction, t₁/₂ is:

A. Independent of [A]₀ B. Directly proportional to [A]₀ C. Inversely proportional to [A]₀ D. Proportional to [A]₀²

111. In a galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at:

A. Oxidation at cathode B. Reduction at anode C. Oxidation at anode D. Both at anode

112. Nitric acid is used in:

A. Used as a dehydrating agent B. Used in batteries C. Used in pickling of metals D. Used in fertilizers and explosives

113. Which metal is used most in electrical wiring?

A. Iron B. Aluminum C. Copper D. Silver

114. Electronegativity difference determines:

A. Only ionic B. Ionic, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent C. Only covalent D. Only metallic

115. The most electronegative element is:

A. Oxygen B. Chlorine C. Fluorine D. Nitrogen

116. Chain isomerism involves:

A. Different functional groups B. Different carbon skeletons C. Different position of functional group D. Different arrangement in space

117. Alkynes are also called:

A. Paraffins B. Olefins C. Arenes D. Acetylenes

118. Wurtz reaction is best for:

A. Tertiary alkyl halides B. Secondary alkyl halides C. Aryl halides D. Primary alkyl halides

119. IUPAC name of CH₃OH is:

A. Ethanol B. Methanol C. Propanol D. Butanol

120. Soaps are:

A. Esters B. Amides C. Salts of fatty acids D. Alcohols

121. Nucleic acids are polymers of:

A. Amino acids B. Nucleotides C. Monosaccharides D. Fatty acids

122. Oxidation of SO₂ in Contact process:

A. 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃ B. SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ SO₃ C. 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃ D. SO₂ + ½O₂ ⇌ SO₃

123. Difference between thermal and catalytic cracking:

A. No catalyst needed in both B. Catalytic cracking uses higher temperature C. Thermal cracking uses catalyst D. Catalytic cracking uses lower temperature and catalyst

124. Fertilizers supply:

A. Pesticides B. Herbicides C. Fertilizers D. Insecticides

125. Clemmensen/Wolff-Kishner reduction gives:

A. Alkanes B. Alcohols C. Alkenes D. Carboxylic acids

126. Wittig reaction gives:

A. Alkene B. Alcohol C. Carboxylic acid D. Ester

English 9 MCQs

127. Choose the correct option.

A. The first space traveller was Dennis Tito from the United States. B. The First Space Traveller was Dennis Tito, from, the United states. C. The first space traveller was Dennis Tito-from united States. D. The first space traveler was Dennis Tito, from the United States.

128. Your hands and feet _____nearly half the bones in your body.

A. contained B. contains C. contain D. containing

129. I ________ caution in interpreting these results.

A. Uproot B. Usher C. Usurp D. Urge

130. Spot the error: Although he is not a close relative of me, yet I was greeted with a show of deep cordiality.

A. Although he is not a close relative of me B. yet I was greeted with a show of deep cordiality C. No error D. No error

131. Spot the error: Ali and Irfan have to receive the guests at the reception of the hotel, while Amir have to bring their bags from the cars.

A. Ali and Irfan have to receive the guests at the reception of the hotel, while Amir have to bring their bags from the cars B. No error C. No error D. No error

132. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Her father is a SP in the Punjab Police B. Her father was a SP in the Punjab Police C. Her father is an SP in the Punjab Police D. Her father are a SP in the Punjab Police

133. This winter is colder ____ the last one.

A. than B. then C. there D. that

134. Choose the synonym for "exuberant" in: "The exuberant crowd cheered as the team scored the winning goal."

A. Quiet and calm B. Energetic and enthusiastic C. Sad and depressed D. Angry and violent

135. Choose the correct word: "I would like some ____ after dinner."

A. I would like some desert after dinner. B. I would like some dessert after dinner. C. I would like some dessert after dinner. D. I would like some desert after dinner.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the most likely direct effect of widespread deforestation?

A. Soil erosion B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

137. What is the effect of deforestation?

A. Loss of topsoil B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

138. What does power failure lead to?

A. Use of candles B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

139. What do subsidies lead to?

A. More affordable products B. Recession C. Stagnation D. Hyperinflation

140. What does a power outage result in?

A. Disruption of communication B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

141. How to restore forest cover?

A. Plant more trees B. Ban vehicles C. Build concrete roads D. Increase fossil fuel use

142. What comes next: A, B, E, J, Q, ?

A. Z B. Y C. X D. Z

143. What is the relation between premises and conclusion in a valid syllogism?

A. Entailed B. Implied C. Supported D. Guessed

144. All dogs are animals. Some animals are cats. What can you conclude?

A. Some dogs are cats B. No dogs are cats C. All dogs are cats D. Cannot determine

Physics 36 MCQs

145. Acceleration of light travelling in vacuum:

A. 3 × 10¹⁰ cm/s B. Zero C. 299792458 m/s D. 1.86000 miles/s

146. The slope of velocity-time graph gives us:

A. Speed B. Velocity C. Acceleration D. Distance

147. The two-dimensional motion under constant acceleration due to gravity is called:

A. Circular Motion B. Rotational Motion C. Projectile Motion D. Vibratory Motion

148. 1 J/s is equal to:

A. 1 K B. 1 N C. 1 T D. 1 Watt

149. Angular displacement of a point moving in a circle 10 cm when displacement of projection of this point along vertical diameter of circle is 8.66 cm will be:

A. 30° B. 45° C. 60° D. 75°

150. In angular motion, in one rotation there are:

A. π radians B. 2π radians C. π/2 radians D. π/4 radians

151. Energy of SHM oscillator is partly kinetic and partly potential. Which is correct?

A. KE max at extreme position B. PE max at extreme position C. Both KE and PE min at mean D. PE max at mean position

152. Reducing mass M to 1/4th will change frequency to:

A. One fourth B. Double C. Quadruple D. Half

153. An object moving faster than the speed of sound. This object is called:

A. Sonic B. Supersonic C. Hypersonic D. Ultrasonic

154. An isolated thermodynamic system:

A. No heat transfers to the environment B. Neither heat nor any mass are transferred to the environment C. No dissipated energy and heat are transferred to the environment D. No mass transfers to the environment

155. The ratio of molar specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to its molar specific heat at constant volume is:

A. Equal to minus one B. Equal to zero C. Greater than one D. Equal to one

156. The property due to which a substance attracts or repels other body is called:

A. Current B. Charge C. Magnetic field D. All are correct

157. What does the electric field around a charge represent?

A. Size of the charge B. Effective area for electrostatic force C. Path followed by the charge D. Speed of charge

158. Two capacitors 6μF and 12μF are in series connected across a 200 volts D.C supply. Calculate the charges on each capacitor, respectively.

A. 8 x 10⁻⁴C, 8 x 10⁻⁴C B. 8μC, 8Μc C. 8 x 10⁻⁶C, 16 x 10⁻⁶C D. 800C, 800C

159. The efficacy of transformer is:

A. 60% B. 70% C. 80% D. 90%

160. The decay rate of radioactive substance is:

A. Constant with time B. Varies inversely with time C. Decreases exponentiation with time D. Decreases linearly with time

161. An artificial radioactive element can be made by bombarding:

A. High energy particles on unstable elements B. low energy particles on unstable elements C. High energy particles on stable elements D. low energy particles on stable elements

162. Which photon is travelling with the largest speed in vacuum?

A. Gamma photon B. Visible light photon C. Infrared D. All photons move with speed of light

163. An atom makes a transition from a state of energy E₂ to one of lower energy E₁. Which of the following gives the wavelength of the radiation emitted, in terms of Planck's constant h and speed of light c?

A. (E₂ - E₁) / hc B. hc / (E₂ - E₁) C. hc / (E₂ - E₁) D. c / h(E₂ - E₁)

164. The quality factor Q of a series RLC circuit is a measure of:

A. Sharpness of resonance B. Power factor C. Impedance D. Phase angle

165. An inductor allows DC but opposes AC because:

A. Its reactance is zero for DC and increases with frequency B. Its reactance is infinite for DC C. It has resistance D. It stores energy

166. The formula for time dilation is:

A. t = t₀ / √(1 - v²/c²) B. t = t₀ √(1 - v²/c²) C. t = t₀ (1 - v/c) D. t = t₀ / (1 - v/c)

167. Einstein's mass-energy equivalence is given by:

A. E = mc² B. E = mc C. E = m²c D. E = m/c²

168. The stopping potential in photoelectric effect is the potential needed to:

A. Stop the most energetic photoelectrons B. Accelerate electrons C. Increase current D. Decrease frequency

169. The concept of wave-particle duality means that matter and energy can exhibit:

A. Both wave and particle properties B. Only wave properties C. Only particle properties D. Neither

170. A coil of inductance 0.5 H carries a current that increases at 2 A/s. The induced EMF is:

A. 1 V B. 0.5 V C. 2 V D. 4 V

171. The magnetic dipole moment of a bar magnet is defined as:

A. m = pole strength × length B. m = pole strength / length C. m = pole strength × area D. m = pole strength × volume

172. The most commonly used semiconductor material is:

A. Silicon B. Germanium C. Gallium arsenide D. Copper

173. Bernoulli's equation states that the sum of pressure energy, kinetic energy per unit volume, and potential energy per unit volume is:

A. Constant along a streamline B. Zero C. Maximum at the surface D. Minimum at the bottom

174. The force exerted by a fluid on a surface is due to:

A. Molecular collisions B. Gravity C. Viscosity D. Surface tension

175. The SI unit of angular momentum is:

A. kg·m²/s B. N·m·s C. Both A and B D. J·s

176. The mass defect is the difference between the mass of the nucleus and the sum of masses of its:

A. Individual nucleons B. Electrons C. Atoms D. Ions

177. In positron emission (β⁺ decay), a proton converts into a neutron and emits:

A. Positron and neutrino B. Electron and antineutrino C. Alpha particle D. Gamma ray

178. Electron capture is a process where an orbital electron is captured by the nucleus, causing a proton to become a neutron. This process competes with:

A. Positron emission B. Alpha decay C. Beta decay D. Gamma emission

179. For a monoatomic ideal gas, C_v = 3/2 R. The value of γ = C_p/C_v is:

A. 5/3 B. 3/5 C. 7/5 D. 4/3

180. In a transverse wave on a string, the particles of the string move:

A. Perpendicular to the direction of wave travel B. Parallel C. In circles D. Randomly

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