MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 17 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 17 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. The --- model of plasma membrane suggests that proteins are embedded in lipid bilayer:

A. Unit membrane B. Fluid mosaic C. Permeable D. Ultracentrifuge

2. If 15um size object is observed under light microscope using 5x eyepiece and 10x objective, its magnified image size will be:

A. 250 um B. 50 um C. 750 um D. 500 um

3. The statement "the membrane is like a sea of lipids in which proteins are floating" represents:

A. Gorter & Grendel Model B. J F Danielle & Davison Model C. Robertson Model D. S.J Singer and Nicholson Model

4. In human cell, is responsible for producing hydrogen peroxide:

A. Lysosome B. Mitochondria C. Peroxisomes D. Glyoxisomes

5. Turgidity in plants is maintained by:

A. Chloroplast B. Vacuole C. Mitochondria D. lysosome

6. Water is the most abundant compound in living organism its amount varies from:

A. 30 to 60% B. 50 to 60% C. 10-20% D. 70-90%

7. The chemical compound has the same percentage(%) in the bacterial as well as the mammalian cell:

A. Carbohydrate B. Proteins C. Lipids D. Water

8. Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone are examples of:

A. Triose B. Tetrose C. Pentose D. Hexose

9. Fatty acids are the organic compounds containing hydrogen, oxygen and one of the following:

A. –COOH B. 0 C. Acyl D. Sucrose

10. In glycine R is _.

A. Fatty acid B. Ethane C. Hydrogen D. Methane

11. Rebounding is process of straightening the curly hairs, which bond is targeted by oxidizing agents used during this process?

A. Peptide bond B. Ionic Bond C. Disulphide bridge D. Hydrogen bond

12. Number of base pairs in one turn of DNA is:

A. 10 B. 2 C. 34 D. 54

13. MD is an example of:

A. Mononucleotide B. Trinucleotide C. Dinucleotide D. Tetranucleotide

14. The active site of enzymes are composed of:

A. few nucleotides B. few saccharides C. few nucleosides D. few amino acids

15. A co-enzyme constitute about certain ---% portion of entire enzyme:

A. 5% B. 1% C. 2% D. 3%

16. Enzymes work by lowering the ___ of the reactions they catalyze.

A. Kinetic energy B. Activation energy C. Heat energy D. Potential energy

17. In HIV viruses, reverse transcriptase convert single stranded RNA into double stranded DNA. This process is called:

A. Translation B. Duplication C. Replication D. Reverse transcription

18. The word hepatitis means inflammation of the:

A. Pancreas B. Liver C. Spleen D. Gall bladder

19. Bacteria require vitamins for which of the following purpose?

A. Source of energy B. Growth factors C. source of carbon D. source of electron donors

20. An invagination of cell membrane which helps in cell division:

A. Fimbriae B. Nucleoid C. Mesosomes D. Endospores

21. Which option is CORRECT about endospore ?

A. Has a short dormant period B. Metabolically active C. Contains moisture for survival D. Endures extreme condition

22. Body cavity of round worms is called:

A. Pseudocoelom B. Coelom C. Acoelom D. Enteron

23. Schistosoma is a parasite that lives in ___ of the host:

A. Intestine B. Kidney C. Liver D. Blood

24. In arthropods the body cavity is in the form of:

A. Coelom B. Haemocoelom C. Psedocoelom D. Enteron

25. Which of the following class contain mammary glands

A. prototheria B. Metatheria C. Eutheria D. All have mammary glands

26. Diffused nervous system is present in:

A. cnidarians B. porifera C. nematode D. present in all

27. Which of the following is the stage of cellular respiration for which oxygen is not essential:

A. Glycolysis B. Pyruvate oxidation C. Krebs cycle D. Electron transport chain

28. In electron transport chain ultimate electron acceptor is:

A. NADH B. Oxygen C. NAD+ D. Cytochrome complex

29. Which of following processes does not need Pyruvic acid as a substrate:

A. Alcoholic fermentation B. Aerobic respiration C. Calvin cycle D. Lactic acid fermentation

30. Which of following are absorbed in large intestine:

A. Water and salts B. Salts and glycerol C. Water and peptones D. Amino acids and sugars

31. Smooth muscles are found in all mentioned below except :

A. Trachea B. Bronchioles C. Bronchi D. Alveoli

32. The area between two lungs is called:

A. Ischium B. Mediastinum C. Acetabulum D. Hilum

33. What is intermediate part of respiratory system between pharynx and trachea?

A. glottis B. Voice Box C. Bronchi D. esophagus

34. Gradual breakdown of the alveolar wall leads to which type of disease in a smoker?

A. Coronary heart disease B. Bronchitis C. Emphysema D. Asthma

35. In nutritional terms, what among the following is sundew you categorized?

A. Autotrophic B. Heterotrophic C. Partially Autotrophic & Heterotrophic D. Holozoic

36. Highest blood pressure is present in:

A. aorta B. arteries C. veins D. capillaries

37. Vaccination is an example of:

A. Natural passive immunity B. Acquired/Artificial active immunity C. Natural active immunity D. Acquired/Artificial passive immunity

38. Which of the following type of T cells are required for the activation of B cells?

A. Helper T cells B. Cytotoxic T cells C. Suppressor T cells D. Memory T cells

39. #NAME?

A. Antibiotic antigen B. antibodies, RBCs C. Globulin, Histamine D. Antibodies, antigen

40. During Covid-19 epidemic the plasma of recovered patients was injected in covid patients. This proved quite effective. Which component of plasma do you think was responsible for this:

A. Plasminogen B. Interferons C. Antibodies D. Interleukin-1

41. Cartilaginous joints are connected by:

A. Fibrocartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Both a & b D. Mucous membrane only

42. Thin filaments of muscles contains ---- chains of actin molecules.

A. four B. One C. three D. two

43. During sliding of actin filaments, ATP is used for ?

A. cross bridge formation B. cross bridge breaking C. dragging filaments D. shortening of filaments

44. Which is not true for cardiac muscles:

A. No distinct nucleus B. branched C. involuntary D. intercalated disc

45. A muscle with characters like single nucleus per cell and no control over contraction is:

A. skeletal muscle B. smooth muscle C. cardiac muscle D. visceral muscle

46. The number of cranial nerves in human are:

A. 31 pairs B. 12 pairs C. 24 pairs D. 62 pairs

47. The chemical messengers that transmit action potential across the synapse in the form of chemicals are ?

A. Synaptic knob of synapse B. Reflex actions C. neurotransmitters D. Acetylcholine sterase

48. It is the Seat of all conscious activities.

A. Hind Brain B. Cortex C. Spinal Cord D. Mid brain

49. During complex activity of flight, birds require the coordination of many skeletal muscles. Which part of their brain has to be well developed?

A. Amygdala B. Cerebrum C. Cerebellum D. Thalamus

50. L-dopa or levo dopa is used to get relief from:

A. Epilepsy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Parkinson's disease D. dementia

51. Which hormone is chemically a steroid?

A. ADH B. Thyroxine C. cortisone D. Insulin

52. The hormone that triggers the release of milk in lactating women is:

A. Growth hormone B. Anti diuretic hormone C. oxytocin D. FSH

53. The terminal portion of the male duct system is:

A. Vasa efferentia B. Vasa deferens C. Urethra D. Epididymis

54. Among the oldest known fossils comes the:

A. Prokaryotes B. Amphibians C. Reptiles D. Fishes

55. Use and disuse of the postulate of organs was given by:

A. Darwin B. Weismann C. Wallace D. Lamarck

56. What is the function of a centromere?

A. To protect the ends of chromosomes B. To hold sister chromatids together C. To carry genetic information D. To initiate DNA replication

57. Enzymes belong to which class of biomolecules?

A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids

58. Which of the following is a key feature of RNA?

A. Deoxyribose and thymine B. Double stranded and thymine C. Ribose and uracil D. Ribose and thymine

59. Which of the following statements best compares cell division in prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells?

A. Eukaryotes divide by budding ; prokaryotes by mitosis B. Eukaryotes use binary fission ; prokaryotes by meiosis C. Eukaryotes divide by mitosis ; prokaryotes by binary fission D. Both use mitosis by cell division

60. What enzyme do retroviruses use to convert RNA to DNA?

A. Reverse transcriptase B. DNA polymerase C. RNA polymerase D. Helicase

61. What are the four major classes of organic molecules?

A. Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids B. Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins C. Minerals, vitamins, proteins, nucleic acids D. Lipids, nucleic acids, sugars, amino acids

62. What is the structural difference between DNA and RNA?

A. DNA is double‑stranded, RNA is single‑stranded B. Both are double‑stranded C. Both are single‑stranded D. RNA is double‑stranded, DNA is single‑stranded

63. Which nucleotide serves as the main energy carrier?

A. ATP B. DNA C. RNA D. cAMP

64. Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR?

A. Heat‑stable B. Heat‑sensitive C. Cold‑stable D. Cold‑sensitive

65. What are the methods of gene delivery?

A. Transformation, transduction, transfection B. Only transformation C. Only transfection D. Only transduction

66. What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

A. Only protein synthesis B. Only lipid synthesis C. Protein and lipid synthesis D. DNA replication

67. What is exocytosis?

A. Taking in materials B. Releasing materials C. Diffusion D. Osmosis

68. What does the central nervous system consist of?

A. Brain and nerves B. Brain and spinal cord C. Spinal cord and nerves D. Brain only

69. What do dendrites do?

A. Away from the cell body B. Towards the cell body C. Between neurons D. To the synapse

70. How does the nervous system transmit messages?

A. Slowly via hormones B. Quickly via electrical impulses C. Slowly via neurotransmitters D. Quickly via hormones

71. What does salivary amylase digest?

A. Protein B. Starch C. Lipids D. Nucleic acids

72. Who proposed natural selection?

A. Lamarck B. Darwin C. Mendel D. Wallace

73. What adaptation did Darwin observe in finches?

A. Different wing shapes B. Different beak shapes C. Different colors D. Different sizes

74. What does glucagon promote?

A. Glycogen breakdown B. Glycogen synthesis C. Gluconeogenesis D. Lipogenesis

75. What are antibodies?

A. Antibodies B. Antigens C. Cytokines D. Receptors

76. What is the function of the spleen?

A. Filters lymph B. Filters blood C. Produces bile D. Stores glycogen

77. What are the second line defenses?

A. Phagocytes and inflammation B. Antibodies and memory cells C. Skin and mucous membranes D. T cells and B cells

78. Where are MHC class I molecules found?

A. All cells B. Nucleated cells C. Red blood cells D. B cells only

79. What are examples of polygenic traits?

A. Skin color and height B. Blood type C. Eye color D. Tongue rolling

80. What is the boundary of a sarcomere?

A. Z‑line B. M‑line C. A‑band D. I‑band

81. What does bone marrow produce?

A. Blood cells B. Bone cells C. Cartilage cells D. Muscle cells

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. Molecular mass = 60, empirical formula = CH₂O. Molecular formula is:

A. CH₂O B. C₂H₄O₂ C. C₃H₆O₃ D. C₄H₈O₄

83. In liquid, with the change in dipole-dipole forces, there is a change in some physical properties. Select the property which is not affected by the strength of dipole-dipole forces?

A. Boiling Point B. Heat of vaporization C. heat of sublimation D. moles

84. Water rises in capillary tube because of:

A. Cohesive force and adhesive forces are same B. Adhesive forces of molecules exceeds cohesive force C. Cohesive force is greater than adhesive force D. Irrelevant

85. Whenever crystalline solids are broken they do so along definite planes known as:

A. Cleavage planes B. Refractory Planes C. Sagittal planes D. Coronal Planes

86. Proton is --- times heavier than electron.

A. 1840 B. 1836 C. 1936 D. 2036

87. The element having the electronic configuration of noble gas notation (Kr) 5s2 4d6 is:

A. Sr87 B. Ru103 C. Pd106 D. Zr91

88. The elements for which the valve of ionization energy is low, can:

A. Gain electrons readily B. Gain electron difficult C. Lose electron less readily D. Lose electron readily

89. Buffer capacity is maximum when both components have:

A. High concentration B. Equal concentration C. Low concentration D. Different concentration

90. If the value of Ksp is large, the salt is:

A. More soluble B. Less soluble C. Moderately soluble D. Not concentrated

91. Study the following redox reaction: 10Cl⁻ + 16H⁺ + 2MnO₄⁻ → 5Cl₂ + 2Mn²⁺ + 8H₂O

A. Manganese is oxidized from +7 to +2 B. Chloride ions are reduced from -1 to 0 C. Chlorine is reduced from 0 to -1 D. Manganese is reduced from +7 to +2

92. The oxidation number of oxygen in NaO₂ is:

A. -1 B. 2 C. -2 D. 1

93. The breakdown of a substance with current is:

A. Thermolysis B. Catalysis C. Electrolysis D. Photolysis

94. The rate of reaction:

A. Increases as the reaction proceeds B. Remains the same as the reaction proceeds C. Decreases as the reaction proceeds D. May increase or decrease as the reaction proceeds

95. Which of the following molecules shows cis-trans isomerism?

A. C₂H₂Cl₂ B. C₂H₂Cl₂ C. C₂H₄ D. C₂H₂Br₂

96. Which balanced chemical equation shows the formation of ethyl chloride using thionyl chloride?

A. CH₃COOH + SOCl₂ → CH₃COCl + SO₂ + HCl B. CH₃CH₂COOH + 2SOCl₂ → CH₃CH₂COCl + SO₂ + HCl C. CH₃CH₂OH + SOCl₂ → CH₃CH₂Cl + SO₂ + HCl D. HCOOH + SOCl₂ + SOCl₂ → HOCl + SO₂ + HCl

97. SN2 reactions are given by:

A. Primary alkyl halide B. Secondary alkyl halide C. Tertiary alkyl halide D. Both primary & secondary can give

98. Formula of wood spirit is:

A. CH₃OH B. C₂H₅OH C. C₃H₇OH D. C₄H₉OH

99. The correct sequence according to acidity of alcohols:

A. Primary > Secondary > Tertiary B. Secondary > Tertiary > Primary C. Secondary > Primary > Tertiary D. Primary < Secondary < Tertiary

100. The appearance of silver mirror in Tollen's test indicates the presence of which of the following?

A. Ketone B. An acid C. Aldehyde D. Alcohol

101. If carboxylic acid and ketone groups C=O are present in a chain then final name will be given as:

A. oxo, oic acid B. one, oic acid C. Both 1 and 2 D. None of these

102. Hydrolysis of nitrile will produce:

A. Ketones B. Carboxylic acid C. Esters D. Aldehydes

103. On reacting acetic acid with baking soda, a gas is evolved which turns lime water milky. The gas evolved is:

A. Cl₂ B. H₂ C. NO₂ D. CO₂

104. The percentage of hydrogen in water is:

A. 88.9% B. 11.1% C. 33.3% D. 66.6%

105. The value of Rydberg constant (R) is:

A. 1.097 x 10⁷ m⁻¹ B. 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ Js C. 3.00 x 10⁸ m/s D. 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

106. The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is proportional to:

A. Pressure B. Volume C. Temperature D. Number of moles

107. Bragg's equation is:

A. nλ = 2d sinθ B. nλ = d sinθ C. nλ = 2d cosθ D. λ = 2d sinθ/n

108. Base dissociation constant (K_b) is for:

A. K_a B. K_b C. K_w D. K_sp

109. A in Arrhenius equation is:

A. Activation energy B. Gas constant C. Frequency factor D. Temperature

110. A catalyst works by:

A. Increases Eₐ B. Decreases Eₐ C. Increases A D. Changes ΔH

111. The Nernst equation is:

A. E = E° - (RT/nF) ln Q B. E = E° + (RT/nF) ln Q C. E = E° - (RT/F) ln Q D. E = E° - (nF/RT) ln Q

112. Which elements are not considered transition elements?

A. They have partially filled d-orbitals B. They have completely filled d-orbitals C. They are highly reactive D. They are gases

113. Common oxidation states of copper are:

A. +2 and +3 B. +3 and +4 C. +1 and +2 D. +1 and +3

114. Bond length with bond order:

A. Increases with bond order B. Decreases with bond order C. Independent of bond order D. First increases then decreases

115. Cracking is the process of:

A. Breaking larger molecules into smaller B. Combining smaller into larger C. Hydrogenation D. Dehydrogenation

116. Octane number measures:

A. Density of fuel B. Viscosity of fuel C. Resistance to knocking D. Color of fuel

117. In alkenes, carbon is:

A. sp², trigonal planar, 120° B. sp³, tetrahedral, 109.5° C. sp, linear, 180° D. sp², tetrahedral, 109.5°

118. A carbanion is:

A. sp² hybridized B. sp³ hybridized (usually) C. sp hybridized D. Unhybridized

119. The -OH group in phenol is:

A. Ortho/para director and activator B. Meta director C. Deactivator D. Meta director and deactivator

120. Dehydration of alcohols requires:

A. H₂SO₄ at room temp B. Al₂O₃ at low temp C. NaOH at high temp D. Concentrated H₂SO₄ or Al₂O₃ at high temp

121. The simplest dicarboxylic acid is:

A. Malonic acid B. Oxalic acid C. Succinic acid D. Glutaric acid

122. Enzymes are:

A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids

123. Fructose is a:

A. Aldohexose B. Ketohexose C. Aldopentose D. Ketohexose

124. Lipids are:

A. Hydrophilic B. Hydrophobic C. Soluble in water D. Ionic compounds

125. Electrolysis of brine gives:

A. NaCl + H₂O → NaClO + H₂ B. 2NaCl + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + Cl₂ + H₂ C. NaCl → Na + Cl₂ D. 2NaCl + H₂O → NaOH + Cl₂ + H₂

126. Wittig reaction gives:

A. Alkene B. Alcohol C. Carboxylic acid D. Ester

English 9 MCQs

127. Would not

A. Would'not B. Wouldn't C. Wouldn't D. Wouldnt'

128. She is intelligent enough to ______ things to serve her own purpose.

A. Pick B. Give C. Maneuver D. Take

129. Read the passage below and answer: The water resources of our country are very much underutilized, the main reason behind this is the lack of capital and technology. A large portion of our water resources is wasted due to floods, unwise use of water for irrigation and domestic use. We can make full use of our water resources by building dams on rivers and through awareness campaigns among people not to waste water resources. Q.3. Occurrence of floods add to the water resources,

A. Definitely true B. Probably true C. Probably false D. definitely false

130. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Oppressive it was, too, with the heaviness of a storm B. Oppressive it was, too, in the heaviness of a storm C. Oppressive it was, too, up the heaviness of a storm D. Oppressive it was, too, off the heaviness of a storm

131. Select the synonym for: Virulent

A. Progressive B. Healthy C. Harmful D. Positive

132. The headmaster _________ to speak to you.

A. wants B. is wanting C. was wanting D. want

133. What is the formal equivalent of "I'm gonna"?

A. I am going to B. I gonna C. I will gonna D. I am gonna

134. Read the following text: "Many people still believe that depression is just a temporary sadness or a sign of weakness. However, experts explain that it is a complex medical condition that affects millions. Recognizing the symptoms and seeking professional help is crucial." What is the author's main purpose?

A. To prove that depression is incurable B. To argue that depression is only an emotional issue C. To show that depression is not real D. To correct common misconceptions about depression

135. Choose the correct word: "She is taller ____ her brother."

A. She is taller than her brother. B. She is taller then her brother. C. She is taller than her brother. D. She is taller then her brother.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the most likely direct effect of an earthquake?

A. Building collapse B. Surface cracks C. Minor tremors D. Aftershocks

137. What does deforestation lead to?

A. Soil erosion B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

138. What is the most urgent action during a flood?

A. Evacuate all residents B. Distribute relief goods C. Conduct awareness seminars D. Wait for rescue teams

139. What is the best preventive measure for pandemics?

A. Quarantine all citizens B. Launch vaccination drive C. Close borders D. Distribute masks

140. What to use for larger fires?

A. Use water B. Call the fire brigade C. Close all windows D. Use fire extinguisher

141. All red balls are heavy. If a ball is light, what can you conclude?

A. Light ball cannot be red B. Red ball cannot be light C. Heavy ball can be red D. All light balls are red

142. All roses are flowers. Some flowers are red. What follows?

A. Some roses are red B. Cannot determine C. All roses are red D. No roses are red

143. All books have pages. Dictionaries are books. What follows?

A. Dictionaries have pages B. Dictionaries do not have pages C. Some books have pages D. Pages are in books

144. If it is a bird, it has wings. It does not have wings. What can you conclude?

A. It is not a bird B. It is a bird C. It has wings D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. A motor boat is moving with velocity 4 m/s. The net force acting on it is 1000 N. What will be the power of engine of boat?

A. 1000 W B. 160 W C. 16kW D. 1600 W

146. Power is dot product of:

A. Force and displacement B. Force and velocity C. Force and time D. Work and time

147. 1 radian is equal to:

A. 57.1° B. 57.2° C. 57.3° D. 57.4°

148. An object moving along circular path of radius 1m. It covers a distance of 2m along circumference of circle. The angular distance is:

A. 1 rad B. 2 rad C. 3 rad D. 2/3 rad

149. Continuous, regular and rhythmic disturbance of a source causes ___ in the medium.

A. Complex waves B. Stationary waves C. Electromagnetic waves D. Periodic waves

150. Example of longitudinal wave is:

A. Sound wave B. Light wave C. Electromagnetic wave D. Water wave

151. In moist air (humidity), the speed of sound waves:

A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remain same D. Zero

152. Time period if frequency is 4Hz is:

A. 4 B. ¼ C. 2.5 D. 4-Feb

153. An isolated thermodynamic system:

A. No heat transfers to the environment B. Neither heat nor any mass are transferred to the environment C. No dissipated energy and heat are transferred to the environment D. No mass transfers to the environment

154. The sum of all forms of (kinetic and potential) of a substance is termed as?

A. Internal energy B. Elastic energy C. Heat energy D. Absolute energy

155. During the isothermal process, the temperature:

A. Remains constant during the initial phase B. Remains constant throughout the process C. Alters throughout the process D. Increases throughout the process

156. The SI unit of potential difference is:

A. Volt B. Coulomb C. Watt D. eV

157. While studying charging and discharging a capacitor, RC = Resistance × Capacitance is known as:

A. Electrostatic constant B. Time constant C. Dielectric constant D. Proportionality constant

158. The potential difference applied across a diode to reduce depletion layer is:

A. Reverse biasing B. Forward biasing C. Biasing voltage D. Junction potential

159. Radiations are dangerous to living organisms because they damage the cell by:

A. Producing ions in the cells B. Increasing the temperature of cells C. Decreasing the number of cells D. Destroying the cells

160. The speed of electron in the first Bohr orbit is:

A. 2.19 × 10⁶ ms⁻¹ B. 2.19 × 10⁶ ms C. 2.19 × 10⁴ ms⁻¹ D. 2.19 × 10⁻⁴ ms⁻¹

161. Which X-ray photon will have the longest wavelength?

A. Kα B. Kβ C. Lα D. Mα

162. Which of the following series lies in infra-red region?

A. Lyman and Balmer B. Balmer and Paschen C. Paschen and Brackett D. Brackett and Pfund

163. The Paschen series of hydrogen lies in the:

A. Infrared region B. Ultraviolet region C. Visible region D. Microwave region

164. The Lorentz factor γ is defined as:

A. 1 / √(1 - v²/c²) B. √(1 - v²/c²) C. 1 / (1 - v²/c²) D. 1 - v²/c²

165. The phenomenon of producing an induced EMF in a coil due to changing magnetic flux is called:

A. Electromagnetic induction B. Electrostatic induction C. Magnetic hysteresis D. Thermoelectric effect

166. The unit of self-inductance is:

A. Henry B. Weber C. Tesla D. Farad

167. A current of 5 A in a coil produces a magnetic flux of 0.2 Wb through the coil. The self-inductance is:

A. 0.04 H B. 1 H C. 0.2 H D. 25 H

168. Two capacitors C1 and C2 in series have equivalent capacitance:

A. C_eq = (C1 C2)/(C1+C2) B. C_eq = C1 + C2 C. C_eq = 1/C1 + 1/C2 D. C_eq = C1 - C2

169. The angular momentum L is given by:

A. L = I ω B. L = m v C. L = I α D. L = r × F

170. Control rods in a nuclear reactor are made of materials that:

A. Absorb neutrons B. Reflect neutrons C. Slow neutrons D. Produce neutrons

171. The energy released in nuclear reactions is due to:

A. Mass defect converted to energy B. Chemical bonds C. Thermal motion D. Electron transitions

172. The charge on an alpha particle is:

A. +2e B. +1e C. 0 D. -2e

173. The angular acceleration α is defined as the rate of change of:

A. Angular velocity B. Angular displacement C. Linear velocity D. Torque

174. The relationship between linear velocity v and angular velocity ω for an object at radius r from the axis is:

A. v = ω r B. v = r / ω C. v = ω / r D. v = ω r²

175. If the cold reservoir temperature is decreased, the efficiency of a Carnot engine:

A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains same D. Becomes zero

176. A wave that requires a medium to propagate is called:

A. Mechanical wave B. Electromagnetic wave C. Transverse wave D. Longitudinal wave

177. A ball is thrown vertically upward. At the highest point, its kinetic energy is:

A. Zero B. Maximum C. Half D. Equal to potential

178. If a force does 50 J of work on an object, the object gains at least 50 J of:

A. Energy B. Momentum C. Acceleration D. Velocity

179. A power of 1 kilowatt (kW) is equal to:

A. 1000 W B. 100 W C. 10 W D. 1 W

180. A ball is thrown horizontally from a height. The work done by gravity during its fall is:

A. mgh B. 0 C. ½mv² D. mgh/2

Country Wise Scholarships

Entry Tests Preparation

Follow Us

Aggregate Calculator