MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 18 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 18 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Organelle involved in synthesis of ATP is:

A. Ribosome B. Mitochondria C. Nucleus D. Centrioles

2. Outer membrane of mitochondria and chloroplast resembles as both are:

A. Freely permeable to large molecules B. Freely permeable to small molecules C. Impermeable D. Semi permeable

3. Cell wall of prokaryotic cell is composed of :

A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Carbohydrates & proteins D. Proteins & lipids

4. Which statement is true about regarding both starch and cellulose ?

A. They are both polymers of glucose B. they are geometric isomers of each other C. Both can be digested by humans D. Both used for energy storage in plants

5. Which function is not performed by proteins?

A. Providing structural support to cell B. catalyzing biochemical reactions C. transporting materials across cell membran D. providing insulation against heat loss

6. Which one is an example of a nucleotide:

A. Adenosine B. Guanine C. ATP D. NAD

7. Except during nuclear division, the nucleus has the chromosome in a loosely coiled state known as:

A. Gene B. Ribosomes C. DNA D. Chromatin

8. The active site of enzymes are composed of:

A. few nucleotides B. few saccharides C. few nucleosides D. few amino acids

9. What alters the shape of enzymes and makes them functional?

A. Co-factor B. Proteins C. Other enzymes D. A and C

10. Which enzyme works in alkaline pH?

A. Pepsin B. Sucrose C. enterokinase D. Pancreatic lipase

11. The enzymes enable the conversion of substrates into products by:

A. Changing equilibrium in the direction of the substrate B. Increasing the activation energy C. Increasing the substrate concentration D. Lowering the activation energy

12. Through which of the following does rabies spread?

A. Cat B. Fox C. Dog D. Pig

13. Cell wall structure of a cell of unknown origin is studied and was found to contain polysaccharide chain linked with short chains of amino acids. What do you think it can be:

A. Bacteria B. Fungi cell C. Algae D. Cortex cells

14. Which of the following bacteria produces endospores?

A. Gram Negative B. Gram Positive C. Both D. Myobacterium

15. In which phase of bacterial growth, They divide at exponential rate:

A. Lag phase B. Log phase C. Stationary phase D. Decline phase

16. The cavity between body wall and alimentary canal is:

A. Coelom B. Mesoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoglea

17. I provide protection of coastline from storm, shelter for marine organisms, assist in carbon and nitrogen fixing

A. Polyps B. Coral reefs C. Medusa D. Aurelia

18. Which of the following belongs to chordates:

A. Spider B. Earthworm C. Trout Fish D. Star fish

19. The tail of chlorophyll molecule is embedded in:

A. Membrane of mitochondria B. Membrane of S.E.R C. Membrane of R.E.R D. Thylakoid membrane

20. Which step of photosynthesis uses molecular oxygen?

A. Dark reactions B. light reactions C. Krebs cycle D. oxidative phosphorylation

21. Hexokinase plays a role in:

A. Glycolysis B. Pyruvic acid oxidation C. Krebs cycle D. Both a & b

22. Total NADH formed by one molecule of glucose during Krebs cycle are:

A. 6 B. 3 C. 8 D. 18

23. In electron transport chain, the electrons from NADH and FADH2 are passed to:

A. Cytochrome a B. Cytochrome a3 C. Co-enzyme C D. Co-enzyme Q

24. The end product of glycolysis in aerobic respiration is;

A. Ethanol + CO2 B. Lactate C. Pyruvate D. Acetyl Co A

25. In human gut, Chylomicrons are formed by the combination of:

A. Proteins and carbohydrates B. Fats and carbohydrates C. Fats and proteins D. Vitamins and fat

26. The area between two lungs is called:

A. Periosteum B. Infundibulum C. Mediastinum D. Hilum

27. Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissues favors-------- of oxyhaemoglobin:

A. Dissociation B. Formation C. Stability D. Transformation

28. One complete heart beat consists of one systole and one diastole and lasts for about:

A. 0.8 sec B. 0.2 sec C. 0.4 sec D. 0.5 sec

29. In the heart the thick walled chambers are located at the

A. Apex B. lateral side C. lower side D. Dorsal side

30. Elastic fibers are absent in the walls of:

A. Aorta B. Arteries C. Veins D. capillaries

31. Which of the following is known as the vessels of the vessels?

A. Vasa vasorum B. Tunica media C. Tunica Externa D. tunica interna

32. Which of the following would not be compromised in the absence of Lymphatic system?

A. Blood Pressure B. Oxygen carrying capacity of blood C. Blood composition D. Defense mechanism

33. Bone resorption is performed by:

A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. Osteoclasts D. Chondrocytes

34. The sarcolemma of muscle fibre folds inwards and form a system of tubes which runs through the sarcoplasm called:

A. Myofilaments B. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum C. Z-lines D. Transverse tubules

35. The hollow elongated tube formed when muscle fiber penetrates deep into the cell is known as:

A. A tubule B. T tubule C. M tubule D. Z tubule

36. Over activity of sympathetic nervous system causes:

A. Disturbance of vision B. constipation C. decrease in blood pressure D. increase in heart rate

37. A nerve impulse arriving at the axon terminal causes the opening of:

A. Calcium channel B. Calcium & sodium channel C. Potassium channel D. Chloride channel

38. The neuron is said to be polarized when the:

A. Inside of the plasma membrane has a negative energy compared to the outside B. Inside of the plasma membrane has a positive energy compared to the outside C. Inside the plasma membrane has same energy compared to the outside D.

39. The speed of nerve impulse in myelinated nerves is many time higher than non-myelinated nerves due to:

A. Saltatory conduction B. myelinated neurons use more energy C. continuous impulse D. myelinated fibres are thin

40. Which option given below characterizes refractory period?

A. Reversal of charges across the neural membrane B. Change in the type of ions across the membrane C. Next impulse can be conducted D. Membrane potential +50mV

41. The neurotransmitter active outside the CNS(central nervous system) is:

A. Acetylcholine B. Dopamine C. Glutamate D. Serotonin

42. Which part of the brain plays a key role in long term memory?

A. Thalamus B. Hippocampus C. Hypothalamus D. Amygdala

43. Most of the neurons in the CNS are:

A. Bipolar B. Multipolar C. Pseudounipolar D. Unipolar

44. Negative feedback mechanism is the characteristic of which class?

A. Class Fish B. Class Amphibia C. Class Reptilia D. Class Mammalia

45. In females,FSH stimulates the ovary to produce:

A. Progesterone B. Estrogen C. Prolactin D. Oxytocin

46. Which hormone causes the contraction of walls of uterus during the process of birth?

A. FSH B. STH C. Oxytocin D. LH

47. The longest phase of menstrual cycle is:

A. preovulatory phase B. secretary phase C. Ovulatory phase D. menstrual phase

48. Test cross is made to check the genotype of a trait. Which of the following crosses is a test cross?

A. Unknown x At B. Unknown x AB C. Unknown x tt D. Unknown x TT

49. In which of the following male is homogametic and sex of the offspring is determines by the female?

A. Man B. Drosophila C. Butterfly D. a & b

50. For evolutionary process to occur, Which of the following is NOT a geographical barrier?

A. Oceans B. River C. Mountains D. Atmosphere

51. Which type of joint is present in pubis?

A. Fibrous joints B. Immoveable joints C. Cartilaginous joints D. Freely moveable joints

52. Which of the following surrounds myofibril in skeletal muscle that stores and distributes calcium ions during muscle functioning?

A. Sarcodermna B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum C. Transverse tubules D. Sarcoplasm

53. Shivering thermogenesis involves:

A. Voluntary muscle contraction B. Involuntary muscle contraction C. Dehydration D. Hormone secretion

54. Which of the following is NOT related to DNA?

A. Adenine B. Thymine C. Uracil D. Guanine

55. The most common type of arthritis is:

A. Gout B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Spondylitis

56. Which type of joint allows bending of the elbow joint and has a synovial cavity?

A. Cartilaginous joint B. Fibrous joint C. Public symphysis D. Hinge joint

57. Where is the proton gradient established?

A. Inside the matrix B. Across the inner mitochondrial membrane C. Across the outer membrane D. In the cytoplasm

58. Which photosystem splits water?

A. Photosystem I B. Photosystem II C. Cytochrome b6f D. ATP synthase

59. What is the tertiary structure of a protein?

A. Sequence B. Local folding C. Overall 3D shape D. Multiple subunits

60. What is RNAi used for?

A. Amplify gene expression B. Silence gene expression C. Detect gene mutations D. Clone genes

61. What are the requirements for PCR?

A. DNA template, primers, nucleotides, polymerase B. RNA template, primers, nucleotides, polymerase C. Protein template, primers D. Only DNA and polymerase

62. What are blunt ends?

A. Straight cut B. Staggered cut C. Single‑stranded cut D. No cut

63. What is the function of lysosomes?

A. Energy production B. Cellular digestion C. Protein synthesis D. Lipid synthesis

64. What is the fluid inside the cell called?

A. Cytosol B. Cytoplasm C. Nucleoplasm D. Matrix

65. What is the inner lining of the heart?

A. Myocardium B. Endocardium C. Pericardium D. Epicardium

66. How does food move through the esophagus?

A. By gravity B. By peristalsis C. By diffusion D. By active transport

67. What is the function of the gallbladder?

A. Produces bile B. Stores and concentrates bile C. Digests fats D. Produces enzymes

68. What are sources of genetic variation?

A. Only mutations B. Only recombination C. Mutations and recombination D. Environmental factors

69. What is the function of sweating?

A. Increase temperature B. Lower temperature C. Maintain temperature D. No effect

70. Which gland secretes insulin and glucagon?

A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Kidney D. Brain

71. What is genetics?

A. Heredity and variation B. Cell structure C. Evolution D. Ecology

72. What are linked genes?

A. Inherited together B. Inherited independently C. Segregate together D. No linkage

73. Why are X‑linked traits more common in males?

A. One X chromosome B. Two X chromosomes C. One Y chromosome D. Two Y chromosomes

74. Who determines the sex of the offspring?

A. Father B. Mother C. Both D. Neither

75. What is asexual reproduction?

A. Genetically different B. Genetically identical C. Two parents D. Variation

76. What type of asexual reproduction occurs in bacteria?

A. Budding B. Binary fission C. Fragmentation D. Parthenogenesis

77. What is ovulation?

A. Release of egg B. Release of sperm C. Fertilization D. Implantation

78. What is the period of fetal development called?

A. Gestation B. Lactation C. Parturition D. Ovulation

79. What is regeneration?

A. Regrow lost parts B. Produce new offspring C. Repair damaged tissues D. All of these

80. What is the function of cilia in the respiratory tract?

A. Trap and remove particles B. Produce mucus C. Exchange gases D. Warm air

81. What theory explains muscle contraction?

A. Sliding filament theory B. Cross‑bridge theory C. Contractile theory D. None

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. Number of H₂O molecules in 10g of ice are:

A. 3.34 × 10²³ B. 0.331 × 10²³ C. 33.1 × 10²³ D. 10

83. Graph of volume versus total pressure at constant temperature is:

A. a straight line B. First a curve and then a straight line C. First a straight line & then a curve line D. Non linear

84. Pressure remaining constant, at which temperature volume of gas will become twice to be volume at 0°C?

A. 546°C B. 200°C C. 546°C D. 273°C

85. The process of heat flow between hotter and colder gases remains continued until all the molecules have equal:

A. Average translational kinetic energy B. Average rotational kinetic energy C. Average translational potential energy D. Average vibrational kinetic energy

86. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other they unite to form one cube due to:

A. Dipole dipole interaction B. Covalent attraction C. Van Der Waal's forces D. H-bonding

87. Cation and anion formed which combines to form crystal lattices:

A. Only cation is isoelectronic to nearest noble gas B. Cation and anion both are isoelectronic to nearest noble gas C. Cation and anion both are isoelectronic to nearest noble gas & No of electrons lost by metal and number of electrons gain by non-metal are equal D. Only anion is isoelectronic to nearest noble gas

88. Which of the following has only one orientation in space and in magnetic field?

A. P orbital B. s orbital C. d orbital D. f orbital

89. Shape of subshell is explained by

A. l B. m C. n D. none

90. Total number of directions of f-orbitals in space are:

A. 7 B. 3 C. 6 D. 3

91. Rate of reaction increases by the addition of a catalyst because:

A. Catalyst reacts with reactant B. Catalyst reacts with product C. Energy of activation decreases D. Energy of activation increases

92. The decrease in solubility of a salt due to presence of a common ion is known as:

A. Le Chatelier's Principle B. Solubility Product C. Common Ion Effect D. Ksp

93. The unit of rate constant k is dm³ mol⁻¹ s⁻¹ for a chemical reaction. The order of reaction is:

A. Zero order B. First order C. Second order D. Third order

94. H₂O has geometry:

A. Regular tetrahedron B. Linear C. Distorted tetrahedral geometry D. Pyramidal

95. Maleic acid and fumaric acid, both have chemical formula C₄H₄O₄. The structure of these acids is shown below:

A. Position isomers B. Structural isomers C. Metamers D. Cis-Trans isomers

96. The homolytic fission of a C–H bond in an alkane results in:

A. Alkyl free radical B. Carbocation C. Carbanion D. Methyl free radical

97. Mustard gas is the product of addition reaction of:

A. Ethane B. Ethyne C. Ethene D. Ethyl alcohol

98. Consider the reaction given below: CH₃CH₂Br → H₂C=CH₂ + HBr Mechanism followed by the reaction is:

A. E2 B. E1 C. SN1 D. SN2

99. The elimination between alkyl halides and strong base takes place by two mechanisms—E1 and E2. How many steps are involved in each one of these?

A. E1 elimination is two steps & E2 is one step B. E1 & E2 both take place in one step C. E1 & E2 both take place in two steps D. E1 elimination is one step & E2 is two steps

100. Which solvent is used when alcohol reacts with thionyl chloride to form alkyl halide?

A. Zinc Chloride B. Pyridine C. Carbon tetrachloride D. Sulphuric acid

101. Tollen's reagent is ammonical silver nitrate solution, which identifies a functional group X with observation O. Identify X and O:

A. X = Ketone, O = Grey precipitate B. X = Ketone, O = Silver mirror C. X = Aldehyde, O = Silver mirror D. X = Aldehyde, O = Red precipitate

102. The common name of pentanedioic acid is:

A. Glutaric acid B. Oxalic acid C. Succinic acid D. Maleic acid

103. When carboxylic acids are heated with alcohol in the presence of concentrated H₂SO₄, the conversion of function takes place to:

A. Carboxyl to Carbonyl Group B. Carboxyl to ester Group C. Carbonyl to Carboxyl Group D. Carboxyl to Hydroxyl Group

104. In propene pi-bond is formed by sideway overlap of:

A. s-orbitals B. p-orbitals C. sp^3 hybrid orbitals D. sp^2 hybrid orbitals

105. Shape of orbital is determined by quantum number:

A. n B. l C. m D. s

106. Which atom has at least single electron in dumbell shape orbital?

A. H B. He C. Li D. B

107. The number of atoms of oxygen in 1 mole of H₂SO₄ is:

A. 4 B. 6.02 x 10²³ C. 2.408 x 10²⁴ D. 1.204 x 10²⁴

108. Standard molar volume is:

A. 24.4 L B. 22.4 L C. 22.4 L D. 22.4 L

109. Water rises in a glass capillary because:

A. Cohesive > adhesive B. Adhesive < cohesive C. Cohesive = adhesive D. Adhesive > cohesive

110. n-type semiconductor is formed by doping with:

A. Trivalent impurity (e.g., B) B. Pentavalent impurity (e.g., P) C. No impurity D. Divalent impurity

111. X-ray diffraction is primarily used for:

A. To determine molar mass B. To determine crystal structure C. To measure density D. To measure viscosity

112. The second law of thermodynamics states:

A. ΔS_universe > 0 B. ΔS_universe < 0 C. ΔS_universe = 0 D. ΔG = 0

113. If a reaction is multiplied by n, Kc becomes:

A. Kc^n B. n × Kc C. Kc/n D. Kc^1/n

114. Order of a reaction is:

A. m × n B. m + n C. m + n D. a + b

115. An electrolytic cell converts:

A. Electrical to chemical B. Chemical to electrical C. Heat to chemical D. Mechanical to electrical

116. Stable lower oxidation states due to inert pair effect:

A. Tl⁺ and Pb²⁺ B. Tl³⁺ and Pb⁴⁺ C. Tl³⁺ and Pb²⁺ D. Tl⁺ and Pb⁴⁺

117. Transition metals are:

A. Poor conductors B. Insulators C. Semiconductors D. Good conductors

118. In methane, carbon is:

A. sp hybridized B. sp² hybridized C. sp³ hybridized D. sp³d hybridized

119. Markovnikov's rule states H adds to:

A. H to less substituted carbon B. H to more substituted carbon C. X to less substituted carbon D. Random addition

120. The IUPAC name of C₂H₆ is:

A. Methane B. Ethane C. Propane D. Butane

121. The inductive effect is:

A. Delocalization of pi electrons B. Transfer of electrons C. Permanent polarization of sigma bonds D. Hydrogen bonding

122. RMgX + HCHO → (H₃O⁺) gives:

A. Secondary alcohol B. Primary alcohol C. Tertiary alcohol D. Ketone

123. Fructose is a:

A. Aldohexose B. Ketohexose C. Aldopentose D. Ketohexose

124. Role of coke and limestone in blast furnace:

A. Coke as flux, limestone as reducing agent B. Coke as reducing agent, limestone as flux C. Coke as reducing agent, limestone as flux D. Both as reducing agents

125. IUPAC name of CH3COCH3 is:

A. Propanal B. Butanone C. Acetone D. Propan-2-one

126. RMgX + HCHO -> hydrolysis gives:

A. Secondary alcohol B. Tertiary alcohol C. Carboxylic acid D. Primary alcohol

English 9 MCQs

127. Prune

A. lend B. expand C. reduce D. prolong

128. Spot the error: The king feels disturbed and on hearing these words he could not control his tears.

A. The king feels disturbed and on hearing these words he could not control his tears B. No error C. No error D. No error

129. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Does anybodys knows why the latitudes close to the equator are called the horse latitudes? B. Do anybody knows why the latitudes close to the equator are called the horse latitudes? C. Does anybody knows why the latitudes close to the equator are called the horse latitudes? D. Does anybody know why the latitudes close to the equator are called the horse latitudes?

130. Select the synonym for: Vertex

A. Poetry B. Zenith C. Depth D. Diminish

131. Each of the three boys ______ to ride.

A. Loves B. Love C. Are Loving D. Have loved

132. Pick the correct spelling

A. Mercenery B. Mersanary C. Mercenary D. Mersenary

133. The phrase "spiffed up" stands for;

A. dressed up B. cleaned up C. upset D. fade

134. Choose the correct sentence:

A. These scissors are very sharp. B. This scissor is very sharp. C. This scissor is so sharp. D. These scissor are very sharp

135. Choose the correct synonym of "abundant":

A. Plentiful B. Scarce C. Rare D. Empty

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the effect of deforestation?

A. Loss of topsoil B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

137. What does a power outage cause?

A. Interruption of daily activities B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

138. What does rainfall lead to?

A. Overflow of rivers B. Minor water logging C. No significant change D. Complete reversal

139. What should be the first course of action during a small kitchen fire?

A. Call the fire brigade B. Close all windows C. Use fire extinguisher D. Wait for the wind

140. What is the best preventive measure for pandemics?

A. Quarantine all citizens B. Launch vaccination drive C. Close borders D. Distribute masks

141. What issue could arise from the survey sampling?

A. Representative B. Not representative C. Irrelevant D. Too large

142. What is subalternation?

A. A implies E B. A implies I C. E implies I D. O implies E

143. All cats are mammals. Some mammals are pets. What can you conclude?

A. Some cats are pets B. All cats are pets C. No cats are pets D. Cannot determine

144. If you are a citizen, you have rights. You have rights. What can you conclude?

A. You are a citizen B. Cannot determine C. You have rights D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. If 2A current passes through a resistor when connected to a certain battery. If the resistance is replaced by the double resistance, then the current will become:

A. 2A B. 4A C. 6A D. 1A

146. Ohm-meter is the unit of:

A. Resistance B. Resistivity C. Conductance D. Conductivity

147. The domestic electricity supply in Pakistan has a frequency of:

A. 150Hz B. 50Hz C. 100Hz D. 25Hz

148. A car in motion hits and gets crashed into a tree trunk, what is NOT conserved?

A. Kinetic energy alone B. Momentum and kinetic energy both C. Momentum alone D. Neither kinetic energy nor momentum

149. A block of mass 20g is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 10 m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during its upward motion is:

A. 1000 J B. –1000 J C. –1 J D. 2 J

150. The absolute potential energy is given as Ug = –GmMₑ/R. The negative sign indicates that Earth's gravitational field for mass "m" is:

A. Repulsive less attractive B. Less attractive C. Attractive D. More repulsion

151. Four bulbs of 100W each, two bulbs of 100W, each works for 2 hours daily. The energy consumed in 30 days will be:

A. 4Kwh B. 1Kwh C. 2Kwh D. 36Kwh

152. A long spring, when stretched by a distance x, has potential energy V. On increasing the stretching to nx, the potential energy becomes:

A. nV B. V/n C. n²V D. V/n²

153. Applications of Doppler's effect:

A. Hologram technology B. Measuring speed of automobile C. Speed of light in mediums D. Sending radar signals

154. In an adiabatic process, how does the temperature of a gas change as its volume decreases?

A. The temperature decreases B. The temperature remains constant C. The temperature increases D. Temperature first increases then decreases

155. What does the electric field around a charge represent?

A. Size of the charge B. Effective area for electrostatic force C. Path followed by the charge D. Speed of charge

156. A particle of charge 1C falls through a potential difference of 5V. Energy required is:

A. 5 × 10⁻¹⁹ J B. 8 × 10⁻¹⁹ J C. 8 J D. 5 J

157. If the dielectric material between the plates of a capacitor is removed, what happens to the electric field between the plates?

A. Become zero B. increases C. Decreases D. Remains the same

158. The horizontal component of Earth's magnetic flux density is 1.8 × 10⁻⁶ T. The current in a horizontal cable is 160 A. Calculate the maximum force per unit length.

A. 2.88 × 10⁻⁴ N/m B. 2.88 × 10⁻⁸ N/m C. 2.88 × 10⁻² N/m D. 2.88 × 10⁻⁹ N/m

159. According to Fleming's Right Hand Rule, when you stretch out the forefinger, middle finger and thumb so that they are at right angles to each other, the middle finger will point in the direction of:

A. Force B. Magnetic field C. Volt D. Current

160. e/m of electron is given by the relationship:

A. e/m = 2(V/B²r²) B. e/m = (V/Br)² C. e/m = V/rB D. e/m = VB/r

161. The force exerted on charged particle will maximum when it enters the magnetic field at:

A. 60° B. 90° C. 0° D. 45°

162. 32g of a radioactive element decays and remains 2g after 60 days. What is the half-life of the radioactive element?

A. 8 days B. 15 days C. 10 days D. 15 days

163. For two equal positive charges, the electric field weakest?

A. Midway between them B. Along the perpendicular bisector C. Close to either charge D. At infinity

164. A diver of mass m is swimming at a depth h below the sea level. If the reference level is taken at sea level, the gravitational potential energy of the diver is:

A. 0 B. high C. -high D. 2mph

165. At resonance, the impedance of a series RLC circuit is:

A. Maximum B. Minimum C. Equal to XL D. Equal to XC

166. If XC > XL in a series RLC circuit, the circuit behaves as:

A. Capacitive B. Inductive C. Resistive D. Resonant

167. The Rydberg formula for hydrogen spectral lines is given by:

A. 1/λ = R (1/n1² - 1/n2²) B. λ = R (1/n1² - 1/n2²) C. 1/λ = R (n1² - n2²) D. λ = R (n2² - n1²)

168. Lenz's law is a consequence of the conservation of:

A. Energy B. Charge C. Momentum D. Angular momentum

169. In a transformer, the power is transferred from primary to secondary through:

A. Magnetic flux B. Electric current C. Direct contact D. Radiation

170. A current of 5 A in a coil produces a magnetic flux of 0.2 Wb through the coil. The self-inductance is:

A. 0.04 H B. 1 H C. 0.2 H D. 25 H

171. The branch of physics that deals with the flow and control of electrons in vacuum, gases, and semiconductors is called:

A. Electronics B. Electrostatics C. Electromagnetism D. Optics

172. Like charges:

A. Repel each other B. Attract each other C. No force D. Cancel each other

173. The SI unit of momentum is:

A. kg·m/s B. N·s C. Both A and B D. J

174. The force that keeps a satellite in orbit around Earth is:

A. Gravity B. Magnetic force C. Electric force D. Thrust

175. A particle moving in a circle with constant angular velocity has a tangential acceleration of:

A. Zero B. Constant C. α r D. v²/r

176. The latent heat of fusion of ice is about:

A. 333 kJ/kg B. 2260 kJ/kg C. 334 J/kg D. 3.33 × 10^5 J/kg

177. A heat engine absorbs 1000 J of heat from a hot reservoir and rejects 400 J to cold. The work done is:

A. 600 J B. 400 J C. 1000 J D. 1400 J

178. The frequencies of a pipe closed at one end are:

A. Odd harmonics only B. All harmonics C. Even harmonics only D. Fundamental only

179. If the mass per unit length of a string is increased, the wave speed:

A. Decreases B. Increases C. Remains same D. Zero

180. A ball is thrown vertically upward. At the highest point, its kinetic energy is:

A. Zero B. Maximum C. Half D. Equal to potential

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