MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 19 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 19 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. The ability to distinguish between two separate points is:

A. Magnification B. Fractionation C. Centrifugation D. Resolution

2. Plasma membrane is:

A. permeable B. selective permeable C. impermeable D. sub permeable

3. Cell wall is synthesized by:

A. Cellulose B. Cell C. Ribosome D. Penicillin binding protein

4. Peripheral parts of cell are often like a:

A. Sol B. Gel C. D.

5. In cross section, each centriole consists of nine (each in triplets) of :

A. Microfilament B. Microtubules C. Microvilli D. Intermediate filaments

6. In human cell, is responsible for producing hydrogen peroxide:

A. Lysosome B. Mitochondria C. Peroxisomes D. Glyoxisomes

7. Most abundant protein in humans in:

A. Collagen B. Albumin C. Myosin D. Haemoglobin

8. What is the best physiological pH for optimum functioning for most of the cellular enzymes of human?

A. 2-3pH B. 3-5 pH C. 6-8 pH D. 8-10 pH

9. Which property of enzyme is helpful to carry out metabolic activities at room temperature?

A. Not sensitivity to pH B. Does not change the speed of reaction C. Highly specific D. Required in large quantities

10. Most enzymes have optimum temperature of around:

A. 30°C B. 40°C C. 50°C D. 20°C

11. In term of enzyme action, 'maximum temperature' refers to a temperature at which:

A. Enzymes starts to denature B. Enzymes work best C. Enzymes are reactivated D. Enzymes start to denature

12. The type of inhibition in which inhibitor has no structural similarity to substrate and combines with enzyme at site other than active site is called:

A. Irreversible inhibition B. Competitive inhibition C. Non-competitive inhibition D. Reversible inhibition

13. The inhibitors that binds tightly and permanently to enzymes and destroy their globular structure and catalytic activity are:

A. Reversible inhibition B. Irreversible inhibition C. Competitive inhibition D. Non competitive inhibition

14. Which of following is derived from Latin word venome that means poisonous.

A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Virus D. Malaria

15. Which structure of prokaryotic cell will play the role of mitochondrion?

A. Spores B. Nucleoid C. Cysts D. Mesosomes

16. A bacterium with single polar flagellum is:

A. Amphitrichous B. Atrichous C. Lophotrichous D. Monotrichous

17. Which of the following has chlorophyll?

A. cyanobacteria B. Nostoc C. oscillatoria D. All have chlorophyll

18. In which phase of bacterial growth, They divide at exponential rate:

A. Lag phase B. Log phase C. Stationary phase D. Decline phase

19. Which of following antibiotic can cause permanent discoloration in young children if misused:

A. Penicillin B. Streptomycin C. Sulfonamide D. Tetracycline

20. The disease botulism is caused by:

A. salmonella B. campylobacter C. E.coli D. Clostridium botulinum

21. ___ is a triploblastic organism:

A. Jelly fish B. Sea anemone C. Tapeworm D. Corals

22. I provide protection of coastline from storm, shelter for marine organisms, assist in carbon and nitrogen fixing

A. Polyps B. Coral reefs C. Medusa D. Aurelia

23. End Product of Calvin cycle is:

A. 3-phosphoglycerate B. 1-3 bisphosphoglycerate C. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate D. Glucose

24. During glycolysis isomerization takes place in the formation of:

A. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate and 2-phosphoglycerate B. G3P and Fructose —6-Phosphate C. PEP and pyruvate D. Fructose 6 phosphate and 3 phosphoglycerate

25. Fats and proteins can be used as respiratory fuel. Which of the following serves as common molecule produced through their catabolism?

A. Acetyl CoA B. Pyruvate C. G3P D. Lactate

26. Upon initial hydrolysis starch yields:

A. Maltose B. Glucose C. Sucrose D. Mannose

27. A hormone secreted form the duodenal mucosa that changes the inactive trypsinogen into trypsin is:

A. Peptone B. Ecdysone C. Enterokinase D. Amylase

28. What is the contribution of hormone cholecystokinin?

A. Facilitates bile release from gall bladder B. Mucus release from stomach C. Production of bile from liver D. Gastric juice release from stomach

29. The presence of which molecules distinguishes blood from interstitial fluid?

A. Large proteins and electrolytes B. Glucose and RBCs C. Antibodies and electrolytes D. RBCs and Large proteins

30. Last 4 vertebrae in humans are fused to form a structure called:

A. sacrum B. cervical vertebrae C. Pubis D. coccyx

31. Which type of joint is present between ribs and vertebrae?

A. Fixed joints B. Moveable joints C. Ball and socket joints D. partially moveable joints

32. Which of the following cartilage is the most abundant in the human body?

A. Elastic cartilage B. Chondrous cartilage C. Fibrous cartilage D. Hyaline cartilage

33. The joints present in the elbow and knee are the examples of which type of joint?

A. Immovable joint B. Saddle joint C. Hinge joint D. Ball and socket joint

34. Carpometacarpal joint is an example of:

A. Hinge joint B. Gliding joint C. Saddle joint D. Ball and socket joint

35. How many types of joints in the body?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 2

36. Which of the following is not a feature of cartilaginous joint?

A. Joint cavity is absent B. Joint cavity is Present C. Synchondrosis contain hyaline cartilage D. Inflammatory

37. Which of the following is highly inflammatory type of arthritis?

A. Gouty arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Acute arthritis

38. Which feature is possessed by smooth muscles?

A. Voluntary B. Branched C. Uni-nucleate D. Striated appearance

39. Over activity of sympathetic nervous system causes:

A. Disturbance of vision B. constipation C. decrease in blood pressure D. increase in heart rate

40. Which structure respond when they are stimulated by impulse coming through motor neuron?

A. Receptors B. Responses C. Effectors D. Transductors

41. It is the Seat of all conscious activities.

A. Hind Brain B. Cortex C. Spinal Cord D. Mid brain

42. A shallow groove in cerebrum is called -------- and deep groove is called:

A. Sulcus, Fissure B. Fissure, Sulcus C. Gyrus, Fissure D. fissure, Gyrus

43. Which of the following is the function of glucagon hormone?

A. Glycogen to glucose B. Glucose to glucagon C. Glucose to lipids D. Glucose to Proteins

44. Hormone produced by placenta is:

A. Follicle stimulating hormone B. Luteinizing Hormone C. Progesterone D. Testosterone

45. Negative feedback mechanism is the characteristic of which class?

A. Class Fish B. Class Amphibia C. Class Reptilia D. Class Mammalia

46. Which body function is controlled through positive feed-back mechanism?

A. Labor contractions B. Body temperature C. Insulin production D. Thyroxin release

47. Testes developed inside the abdomen. In which of the following structure do they lie before pintly:

A. Sac B. Scrotum C. Pouch D. Vesicle

48. The labour pain to expel fetus are due to action of oxytocin on:

A. Endometrium B. Myometrium C. perimetrium D. ovaries

49. Corpus luteum in mammals occurs in:

A. Brain & connects the two cerebral hemispheres B. Ovaries & produces progesterone hormones C. Heart & initiate arterial connection D. Skin & acts as a pain receptor

50. Inhibition of which hormone causes breakdown of uterine walls:

A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. LH D. FSH

51. Transmission of Neisseria gonorrhoea is best described by which one of the following?

A. Oro-fecal route B. unsafe sex C. Vector borne D. Droplet infection

52. Law of independent assortment states:

A. That each pair of alleles assort independently of other pairs of alleles during gamete formation B. that alleles of each pair of contrasting trait have unequal probability to assort with the alleles of other pair C. That the two coexisting alleles for each trait segregate from each other at meiosis and D. None of these

53. What is the function of a centromere?

A. To protect the ends of chromosomes B. To hold sister chromatids together C. To carry genetic information D. To initiate DNA replication

54. The secondary structure of proteins is stabilized by:

A. Ionic bonds B. Hydrogen bonds C. Disulfide bridges D. Hydrophobic exclusion

55. Why Lamarek is being remembered till today?

A. Due to his rejected but appealing theory of heredity B. Due to his universally acceptable theory of evolution C. Due to his accepted theory of heredity D. Due to his theory of evolution by natural selection

56. Which phenomenon increases the chances of variations?

A. Crossing Over B. Linkage C. Epistasis D. Dominance

57. Water can circulate in living organisms due to:

A. Surface tension and polarity B. Cohesion and adhesion C. Solubility in cells D. Stable liquid range

58. A student observes a microorganism under a microscope that lacks a nucleus and is made of a single cell. Which classification would best fit this organism?

A. Unicellular prokaryote B. Unicellular eukaryote C. Multicellular eukaryote D. Multicellular prokaryote

59. If "RRYY" is crossed with "rryy", what will be the ratio of "RRYY" to "rryy" in F2 generation?

A. 9:3:3:1 B. 3:1 C. 1:3 D. 1:1

60. What is the final event of the lytic cycle?

A. Release of new viruses without killing host B. Lysis of host cell C. Integration of viral DNA into host genome D. Host cell divides

61. What happens during the lysogenic cycle?

A. Kills host cell immediately B. Remains dormant C. Replicates rapidly D. Causes disease quickly

62. What is phage therapy used for?

A. Treat viral infections B. Treat bacterial infections C. Treat fungal infections D. Treat cancer

63. What does bacteriophage mean?

A. Bacteria killer B. Bacteria eater C. Bacteria destroyer D. Bacteria inhibitor

64. How are monoclonal antibodies produced?

A. By bacteria B. By hybridoma cells C. By yeast D. By plants

65. What is the nuclear envelope?

A. Single membrane B. Double membrane C. No membrane D. Rigid wall

66. What is the fungal cell wall made of?

A. Chitin B. Cellulose C. Peptidoglycan D. Lipid

67. Where does most digestion and absorption occur?

A. Stomach B. Small intestine C. Large intestine D. Mouth

68. What does amylase digest?

A. Proteins B. Starch C. Lipids D. Nucleic acids

69. What vein transports nutrients to the liver?

A. Hepatic portal vein B. Hepatic artery C. Portal artery D. Hepatic vein

70. What is the molecule that an enzyme acts on?

A. Enzyme B. Substrate C. Product D. Cofactor

71. What are zymogens?

A. Inactive precursors B. Active enzymes C. Inhibitors D. Cofactors

72. How does enzyme concentration affect rate?

A. No effect B. More enzyme, faster rate C. Less enzyme, faster rate D. Enzyme concentration has no effect

73. What is immunity?

A. Resist infection B. Cause infection C. Spread infection D. Cure infection

74. What presents antigens to T cells?

A. MHC B. Antibodies C. Cytokines D. Complement

75. What are linked genes?

A. Inherited together B. Inherited independently C. Segregate together D. No linkage

76. How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?

A. 23 pairs B. 22 pairs C. 24 pairs D. 46 pairs

77. Where are genes located?

A. Chromosomes B. Mitochondria C. Ribosomes D. Golgi

78. What are gametes?

A. Sperm and egg B. Somatic cells C. Zygote D. Embryo

79. What provides nutrients in bird eggs?

A. Yolk B. Placenta C. Amniotic fluid D. Allantois

80. What protects the heart and lungs?

A. Skull B. Rib cage C. Vertebral column D. Pelvis

81. What are osteoclasts?

A. Bone‑forming B. Bone‑resorbing C. Bone‑maintaining D. None

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. Actual yield will reach the ideal (theoretical) value if the % yield of the reaction is

A. 10% B. 50% C. 90% D. 100%

83. How many moles of CO₂ contain 16g of O₂?

A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 2 D. 2.5

84. Which one of the following DO NOT have tendency to form hydrogen bonding?

A. Ammonia B. Ethyl alcohol C. Carboxylic acid D. Hydrocarbon

85. Exceptionally low acidic strength of HF is due to:

A. Strong polar bond between H & F B. Smaller Size of fluorine C. More electronegativity of fluorine D. Strong hydrogen bonding

86. The dumb bell like orbitals can move in how many directions?

A. 7 B. 5 C. 1 D. 3

87. The bond which is based on attractive forces between oppositely charged ions is:

A. Covalent bond B. Dative bond C. Ionic bond D. Metallic bond

88. What is ΔH equal to according to the first law of thermodynamics?

A. ΔE – PΔV B. ΔE + PΔV C. –ΔE – PΔV D. –ΔE + PΔV

89. Which one is not true about rate of reaction?

A. It is independent of concentration of reactants B. It depends on temperature C. It depends on nature of reactants D. It changes with concentration of reactants

90. The ionic radius of fluoride ion is:

A. 72 pm B. 95 pm C. 136 pm D. 157 pm

91. What is the proton (atomic number) of an element that has four unpaired electrons in its ground state?

A. 6 B. 21 C. 22 D. 26

92. Transition metals form alloys due to:

A. Large size B. Similar atomic sizes C. Variable oxidation state D. Color transition

93. The compound with an atom, which has an unshared pair of electrons is called:

A. Nucleophile B. Electrophile C. Protophile D. None of the above

94. What is the IUPAC name of chloroform?

A. Chloromethane B. Dichloromethane C. Trichloromethane D. Tetrachloromethane

95. Generic formula of cycloalkane is:

A. CₙH₂ₙ₊₂ B. CₙH₂ₙ C. CₙH₂ₙ₋₁ D. CₙH₂ₙ₋₂

96. Alkenes can be prepared from alcohols by:

A. Dehydration B. Dehydrohalogenation C. Dehydrohalogenation D. Halogenation

97. The correct order of reactivity of hydrocarbons is:

A. Alkanes > Alkynes > Alkenes B. Alkenes > Alkanes > Alkynes C. Alkenes > Alkanes > Alkynes D. Alkenes > Alkynes > Alkanes

98. The organic compound carbon tetrachloride is used:

A. Lubricant B. Oxidant C. Solvent D. Plastic

99. Which of the following is an example of tertiary alkyl halide?

A. 2-chloro butane B. 1-chloro methyl pentane C. 2-bromo-3-methyl butane D. 2-bromo-2-methyl butane

100. Which one of the following is a nucleophile?

A. H₂O B. AlCl₃ C. BF₃ D. Cl⁻

101. The increasing stability order of the following compounds (1) CH₃CH₂CH₂⁺ (2) (CH₃)₃C⁺ (3) CH₃CH₂−CH⁺−CH₃ are:

A. 1 > 2 > 3 B. 2 > 3 > 1 C. 3 > 2 > 1 D. 3 > 1 > 2

102. Which one of the following is an indication of positive iodoform test?

A. Formation of H₂O B. Release of H₂ gas C. Brick red precipitate D. Yellow crystal

103. Both alcohols and phenols contain:

A. #NAME? B. #NAME? C. CH₃ group D. #NAME?

104. In presence of which of the following, Wolff-Kishner reduction of aldehydes is carried out?

A. Glycol with KOH B. H₂ with Pd C. LiAlH₄ in water D. Zn-Hg with HCl

105. In the IUPAC system carboxylic acid can also be called:

A. Alkynoic acid B. Alkenoic acid C. Alkynoic acid D. Alky alkynoate

106. Oxidation numbers of X,Y,Z are +6, -2, & -1 respectively, possible molecular formula when atoms combine:

A. XYZ B. XYZ2 C. XYZ3 D. XYZ2

107. The number of atoms in 1 mole of O₂ is:

A. 6.02 x 10²³ B. 3.01 x 10²³ C. 12.04 x 10²³ D. 1.20 x 10²⁴

108. The number of moles in 54 g of water is:

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

109. The number of oxygen atoms in 1 mole of K₂Cr₂O₇ is:

A. 7 B. 14 C. 6.02 x 10²³ D. 4.214 x 10²⁴

110. The orbital designation for n=3, l=2 is:

A. 3s B. 3p C. 3d D. 4d

111. Isoelectronic species have:

A. Same atomic number B. Same mass number C. Same number of electrons D. Same number of protons

112. Vapor pressure of a liquid is defined as:

A. Pressure of gas above liquid B. Pressure of liquid on container C. Pressure of vapor in equilibrium with liquid D. Boiling pressure

113. Kc changes only with:

A. Concentration B. Temperature C. Pressure D. Catalyst

114. Increasing pressure for CaCO₃ ⇌ CaO + CO₂ shifts:

A. Right B. Left C. No shift D. Depends on temperature

115. An oxidizing agent:

A. Causes reduction, itself oxidized B. Causes oxidation, itself oxidized C. Causes oxidation, itself reduced D. Causes reduction, itself reduced

116. Double and triple bonds consist of:

A. All sigma bonds B. All pi bonds C. 2 sigma + 1 pi D. 1 sigma + 1 pi (double), 1 sigma + 2 pi (triple)

117. sp hybridization gives geometry:

A. Trigonal planar B. Linear C. Tetrahedral D. Trigonal pyramidal

118. In methane, carbon is:

A. sp hybridized B. sp² hybridized C. sp³ hybridized D. sp³d hybridized

119. Coordinate covalent bond has:

A. Both atoms donate electrons B. Both electrons from one atom C. Both electrons donated by one atom D. Electrons are transferred

120. Nitration of benzene produces:

A. Benzene sulfonic acid B. Chlorobenzene C. Toluene D. Nitrobenzene

121. Reduction of alkyl halides gives:

A. Alcohols B. Alkanes C. Alkenes D. Alkynes

122. Lucas reagent is used for:

A. KMnO₄ B. FeCl₃ C. Lucas reagent (ZnCl₂/HCl) D. Na metal

123. Dehydration of alcohols requires:

A. H₂SO₄ at room temp B. Al₂O₃ at low temp C. NaOH at high temp D. Concentrated H₂SO₄ or Al₂O₃ at high temp

124. Cellulose cannot be digested due to:

A. α-glycosidic bonds B. β-glycosidic bonds C. Peptide bonds D. Ester bonds

125. High pressure favors NH₃ formation due to:

A. High pressure B. Low pressure C. No pressure D. Atmospheric pressure

126. The carbonyl group is present in:

A. Both contain C=O; aldehyde has H on C=O, ketone has two C attached B. Both contain C=O; aldehyde has two C, ketone has H C. Aldehydes have C-O, ketones have C=O D. Aldehydes are cyclic, ketones are acyclic

English 9 MCQs

127. Spot the error: The child was fully dressed and sitting in his father's lap near the kitchen table.

A. The child was fully dressed and sitting in his father's lap B. near the kitchen table C. No error D. No error

128. Choose the correct sentence:

A. I am looking forward to secure excellent marks in MCAT B. I am looking forward to securing excellent marks in MCAT C. I am looking forward securing excellent marks in MCAT D. I am looking forward secure excellent marks in MCAT

129. Select the synonym for: Paradox

A. Anomaly B. Steward C. Prototyped D. Fashion

130. Select the synonym for: Motif

A. Tough B. Stuff C. Motion D. Design

131. Don't be in such a hurry. The sentence contains an adjective of:

A. Number B. Distributive C. Quantity D. Demonstrative

132. She -----unconscious since four O clock.

A. Was B. has been C. is D. are

133. The students gave an ____ presentation.

A. Aural B. Oral C. Oral D. Aural

134. Which sentence is grammatically correct?

A. There is a lot of water in the glass. B. There is a huge amount of water in the glass. C. There is a huge amount of waters in the glass. D. There are many water in the glass.

135. Choose the correct verb: "____ your hand if you know the answer."

A. Raise your hand if you know the answer. B. Rise your hand if you know the answer. C. Raise your hand if you know the answer. D. Rise your hand if you know the answer.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. Which is the primary effect of excessive rainfall?

A. Widespread flooding B. Minor water logging C. No significant change D. Complete reversal

137. What does tree cutting cause?

A. Loss of biodiversity B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

138. What does inflation result in?

A. Reduction in savings B. Stock market crash C. Decreased demand D. Market stability

139. What does correlation prove?

A. Proves causality B. Does not prove causality C. No relation D. Irrelevant

140. What comes next: A, C, F, J, O, ?

A. U B. T C. V D. U

141. What comes next: A, G, M, S, Y, ?

A. E B. E C. D D. F

142. Which mood‑figure combination is a valid syllogism?

A. AAA‑1 B. AAA‑2 C. AEE‑1 D. EIO‑1

143. What inference changes quality and predicate complement?

A. Obversion B. Conversion C. Contraposition D. Inversion

144. If you are a chef, you cook. You cook. What can you conclude?

A. You are a chef B. Cannot determine C. You cook D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. Slope of displacement-time graph gives the values of:

A. Displacement B. Velocity C. Acceleration D. Distance

146. The area under force-displacement graph gives us

A. Displacement B. Power C. Work D. Acceleration

147. If mass 'm' accelerated on smooth horizontal surface 'S' by force 'F', work F×S is converted into:

A. Heat energy B. Kinetic energy C. Potential energy D. Electromagnetic

148. Which of the following increases by increasing amplitude?

A. Wavelength B. Frequency C. Zero D. Loudness

149. Which of the following factors does not affect the speed of sound in air?

A. Density of gas B. Moisture in air C. Temperature D. Pressure of gas

150. Which of the following factors does not affect the speed of sound in air?

A. Density of gas B. Moisture in air C. Temperature D. Pressure of gas

151. Source of sound moves towards stationary observer. Apparent frequency is:

A. f₀ = (v+vₛ)/v • f B. f₀ = v/(v−UI) • f C. f₀ = (v−Uₛ)/v • f D. f₀ = (v+vₛ)/v • f

152. What is the factor upon which change in internal energy of an ideal gas depends?

A. Change in volume B. change in temperature and volume C. Change in temperature D. Path followed to change internal energy

153. If amount of work W is required to move charge Q, then potential difference is:

A. V = W/Q B. V = Q/W C. V = W/Q D. Q = V/W

154. A transformer used on a 220V line delivers 22A at 1800V. What current is drawn from the line (assume 100% efficiency)?

A. 22A B. 180A C. 200A D. 50A

155. In relation λT1/2 = 0.693, which quantity is represented by λ?

A. Half-life B. wavelength C. activity D. decay constant

156. When two negative Beta particles are emitted from a nucleus then the mass number :

A. No change B. Increases by 2 C. Increases by 1 D. Increases by 3

157. What is the value of up quark?

A. 0.666666667 B. 0.333333333 C. -0.666666667 D. -0.333333333

158. The Balmer series of hydrogen is important because it:

A. Only series that occurs for hydrogen B. Is in the visible region C. Is of lowest possible quantum number D. Greater energy

159. The wave that has the highest frequency & penetrating power is :

A. X-rays B. Ultraviolet rays C. Gamma rays D. Microscopic

160. If the distance between two charges is halved and magnitude of charges are also doubled, then the force between these charges becomes:

A. two times B. four times C. eight times D. sixteen times

161. Which of the following series of hydrogen spectrum lies entirely in the ultraviolet?

A. Lyman B. Balmer C. Paschen D. Brackett

162. The electrical resistance of a conductor decreases with increase in:

A. Temperature for semiconductors B. Temperature for metals C. Length D. Area

163. The induced EMF in a coil of N turns is given by:

A. E = -N dΦ/dt B. E = -dΦ/dt C. E = -N Φ/t D. E = -N dI/dt

164. The induced EMF in a coil due to its own changing current is called:

A. Self-induced EMF B. Mutually induced EMF C. Eddy EMF D. Back EMF

165. If the magnetic flux through a coil is constant, the induced EMF is:

A. Zero B. Non-zero constant C. Infinite D. Alternating

166. The output of an op-amp in open-loop configuration can saturate to:

A. Near the supply voltages B. Zero C. Half the supply D. Infinite

167. The electric field intensity at a point is defined as the force per unit:

A. Positive test charge B. Negative test charge C. Area D. Volume

168. An object will float if its density is:

A. Less than the fluid density B. Greater than the fluid density C. Equal to the fluid density D. Independent

169. A fluid that obeys Newton's law of viscosity is called:

A. Newtonian fluid B. Non-Newtonian fluid C. Ideal fluid D. Real fluid

170. The torque is given by:

A. τ = r × F B. τ = r · F C. τ = F / r D. τ = r²F

171. The total number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called the:

A. Mass number (A) B. Atomic number (Z) C. Neutron number D. Atomic mass

172. For a hoop (ring) rolling down an incline, the acceleration is:

A. a = ½ g sinθ B. a = g sinθ C. a = 2/3 g sinθ D. a = 1/3 g sinθ

173. The Kelvin-Planck statement says that it is impossible to construct a heat engine that converts heat completely into work with no other effect. This implies that efficiency can never be:

A. 100% B. 0% C. 50% D. Depends

174. In a reversible process, the total entropy change of the system and surroundings is:

A. Zero B. Positive C. Negative D. Infinite

175. The scalar (dot) product of two vectors is defined as:

A. A·B = AB cosθ B. A·B = AB sinθ C. A·B = AB D. A·B = A/B

176. The dot product of two perpendicular vectors is:

A. Zero B. AB C. -AB D. A/B

177. The torque about a point due to a force F applied at position r is:

A. τ = r × F B. τ = r · F C. τ = F × r D. τ = F · r

178. A bat emits ultrasonic sound waves and detects the echo to locate prey. This uses the principle of:

A. Reflection and Doppler effect B. Refraction C. Diffraction D. Interference

179. If the force and displacement are opposite in direction, the work done is: