MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 20 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 20 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Movement of molecules against the concentration gradient is?

A. Passive transport B. Active transport C. Facilitated Diffusion D. F

2. Which part of plasma membrane controls the fluidity of the membrane:

A. Glycoprotein B. carrier protein C. lipid D. Carbohydrate

3. Which of the following are single membranous organelles?

A. Mitochondria and ribosomes B. Cytosol, mitochondria & ribosomes C. Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus & RER D. Ribosomes, SER & RER

4. Turgidity in plants is maintained by:

A. Chloroplast B. Vacuole C. Mitochondria D. lysosome

5. The enzyme ATP synthase is located on the membrane of:

A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplast C. Nucleus D. Golgi apparatus

6. The bond formed between glucose and fructose to form sucrose is:

A. 1,4 Glycosidic linkage B. 1,6 Glycosidic linkage C. 1,2 Glycosidic linkage D. 1,3 Glycosidic linkage

7. Which one are intermediates in respiration and photosynthesis both:

A. Ribose and heptulose B. GAD and DHA C. Glucose and galactose D. Fructose and ribulose

8. Polysaccharides in plants are synthesized by the process of:

A. Hydrolysis B. Oxidation C. Condensation D. Glycolysis

9. Fatty acids are the organic compounds containing hydrogen, oxygen and one of the following:

A. –COOH B. 0 C. Acyl D. Sucrose

10. Sara is a chemistry student who is carrying out an experiment between acetic acid and alcohol in the laboratory. The product formed at the end of the experiment will be:

A. Glucose and oxygen B. Glycogen and water molecule C. An ester and water molecule D. Glycerol and sulphuric acid

11. Which one is an example of a nucleotide:

A. Adenosine B. Guanine C. ATP D. NAD

12. Which one of the following is found in both messenger RNA and DNA of a mammalian cell?

A. Double helical structure B. Ribose sugar C. Thymine D. Sugar-phosphate backbone

13. The view that active site of enzyme is flexible and when a substrate combines with it, it causes change in enzyme structure is known as:

A. Lock and Key model B. Induced Fit model C. Sliding filament model D. Specificity model

14. Which of the following is an example of hydrolase.

A. Transmethylase B. Oxygenases C. Peroxidase D. Phosphatase

15. Koshland gave induced fit model in:

A. 1959 B. 1890 C. 1949 D. 1880

16. If inhibitor bind to another site of enzyme rather than the active site then it is referred as:

A. Competitive Inhibitor B. NonCompetitive Inhibitor C. Irreversible D. Allosteric

17. The molecules used to control virus during infection of animal cells are:

A. Interferons B. Antigen C. Histone D. Serum

18. is transmitted through infected blood and hypodermic syringes:

A. HIV B. Influenza virus C. Morbili virus (measles) D. Vibrio Cholerae

19. —is transmitted through infected blood and hypodermic syringes:

A. HIV B. Influenza virus C. Morbilli virus (measles) D. Vibrio cholerae (Cholera)

20. Where are the enzymes required for the replication of HIV virus located?

A. In the protein spikes B. Inside the capsid C. Surrounding the viral cone D. Outside the capsid

21. The directional movement toward or away from the stimulus is called:

A. Tropism B. Orientation C. Taxis D. Non orientation

22. Envelope of bacteria does not include:

A. Capsule B. slime C. cell wall D. cell membrane

23. Antibiotics that kills microbes immediately are called :

A. Microbiostatic B. Microbicidal C. Biostatic D. Chemotheropeutic

24. Which of the following can be effective in preventing viral infection in humans ?

A. Taking antihistamines B. getting vaccinated C. Applying antiseptics D. Taking antibiotics

25. Enteron is the characteristic feature of :

A. Phylum Porifera B. Phylum Plathhelminthes C. Phylum Cnidaria D. Phylum echinodermata

26. Nervous system is absent in:

A. sycon B. leucoselenia C. Jelly fish D. both a & b

27. Cephalothorax is present in:

A. Class crustacean B. Class insecta C. Class gastropoda D. class myriapoda

28. First stable compound during Calvin cycle is:

A. 3-Phosphoglycerate B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate D. Ribulose bisphosphate

29. Before entering Krebs cycle, the pyruvate is first decarboxylated and oxidized into:

A. Alpha ketoglutaric acid B. Glyceric acid C. Citric acid D. Acetic acid

30. Every molecule of NADH,fed into ETC produces:

A. 2 ATP B. 3 ATP C. 4 ATP D. 6 ATP

31. Carriers of the respiratory chain are located:

A. Matrix of mitochondria B. Inner membrane of mitochondria C. Outer membrane of mitochondria D. Not specified (not fully visibl

32. Which of following hormone stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice from pancreas:

A. Secretin B. Pepsinogen C. Gastrin D. Both A and C

33. Cells of stomach that lower the pH are:

A. zymogen cells B. chief cells C. Parietal cells D. mucous cells

34. In a normal person plasma constitutes about------- by volume of blood:

A. 50% B. 45% C. 60% D. 55%

35. In human heart, the left atrium receives

A. The superior vena cava B. The coronary sinus C. The inferior vena cava D. The four pulmonary veins

36. #NAME?

A. Antibiotic antigen B. antibodies, RBCs C. Globulin, Histamine D. Antibodies, antigen

37. Which of the following is included in paired cranial bones?

A. Temporal B. Occipital C. Frontal D. Vomer

38. The connective tissue which attach muscle to bone:

A. tendons B. ligaments C. myofibrils D. myofilament

39. A reflex action does not involve the

A. Brain B. Motor neuron C. Sensory neuron D. Spinal cord

40. During active membrane potential --- conducts the impulse in the form of nerve impulse

A. Axon B. Soma C. Neuron D. Ribosome

41. The gap between neurons at a synapse is:

A. Synaptic knob B. Synaptic cleft C. Synaptic delay D. synaptic vesicle

42. The part of brain which controls breathing (respiratory center), heart rate and swallowing is:

A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Medulla D. Hypothalamus

43. Thalamus and cerebellum are part of:

A. forebrain B. Mid brain C. Hind brain D. Spinal cord

44. Grey matter of spinal cord does not contain:

A. Cell bodies of sensory neurons B. Axons of motor neuron C. Cell bodies of interneurons D. Cell bodies of motor neurons

45. Choose the one related to hypoparathyroidism:

A. Kidney disease B. Hypercalcemia C. Weakness of muscles D. Tetany

46. Which hormone is chemically a steroid?

A. ADH B. Thyroxine C. cortisone D. Insulin

47. In human males, inhibin hormone is produced by

A. Leydig cells B. Hensen's node cells C. Sertoli cells D. Interstitial cells

48. In males, sperms are produced in:

A. Seminiferous tubules B. Vas deferens C. Epididymis D. Urinogenital duct

49. Feeding by living in or on the other organism (host) belonging to different species is called:

A. Mineral nutrition B. Saprophytic nutrition C. Parasitic nutrition D. Symbiotic nutrition

50. Uterus opens into vagina through:

A. Cervix B. Fallopian tube C. External genitalia D. Vagina

51. FSH stimulates the production of estrogen hormone which has two targets ------ and ------

A. Uterus and posterior pituitary B. Uterus and anterior pituitary C. Ovaries and Uterus D. Ovaries and Hypothalamus

52. Choose the mismatched pair:

A. Graffian follicle –progesterone B. ICSH-interstitial cell C. Estrogen -inhibits FSH D. LH-ovulation

53. The incorrect statement regarding crossing over is:

A. produces recombinant genes B. Occur during prophase of meiosis-1 C. tightly linked genes can easily crossover D. if distance between linked genes increases recombinant frequency also increases

54. From evolutionary point of view, which respiratory protein is common in many organisms?

A. Cytochrome a B. Cytochrome c C. cytochrome b D. cytochrome d

55. Which of the following type of organs are supposed to be functional in ancestral species rather than in present day species:

A. Vestigial organs B. Analogous organs C. Homologous organs D. Embryonic

56. The sex of individuals of next generation always depends on one of the parents who is:

A. Heterozygotic B. Homozygotic C. Isogametic D. isomorphic

57. Identify the most appropriate function of chromosomes

A. Energy production and storage B. Protein synthesis and regulation C. Storage of genetic information D. Lipid metabolism and transport

58. Guanine - cytosine pairs enhance DNA stability due to:

A. Larger size B. Closer pairing C. More hydrogen bonds D. Double ring structure in both

59. Monoclonal antibodies are useful in cancer diagnosis by:

A. Replacing damaged tissue B. Changing the genetic code of cancer cells C. Killing healthy cells to reduce tumor spread D. Detecting specific tumor markers in samples

60. Which class of animals excrete ammonia as their primary nitrogenous waste?

A. Uricotelic B. Urotelic C. Ammonotelic D. Ureotelic

61. What is the protein coat of a virus called?

A. Cell wall B. Plasma membrane C. Nucleus D. Capsid

62. How can viruses be transmitted?

A. Only respiratory B. Only contact C. Multiple routes D. Only food

63. Where is NADH produced?

A. Only in glycolysis B. Only in Krebs cycle C. In both glycolysis and Krebs cycle D. In electron transport chain

64. What are alpha helices and beta sheets?

A. Primary structure B. Secondary structure C. Tertiary structure D. Quaternary structure

65. What property do phospholipids have?

A. Hydrophilic only B. Amphipathic C. Hydrophobic only D. Neutral

66. What is gene cloning?

A. Isolating and copying a gene B. Isolating and mutating a gene C. Isolating and sequencing a gene D. Isolating and deleting a gene

67. What are the environmental concerns of genetic modification?

A. Only health concerns B. Biodiversity and environmental concerns C. Economic concerns only D. No concerns

68. How many chambers does the heart have?

A. Two chambers B. Four chambers C. Three chambers D. Five chambers

69. What is the function of heart valves?

A. Prevent backflow B. Allow forward flow only C. Both D. Pump blood

70. Where is the aortic valve located?

A. Left atrium and left ventricle B. Right atrium and right ventricle C. Right ventricle and pulmonary artery D. Left ventricle and aorta

71. What is the basic unit of the nervous system?

A. Brain cell B. Neuron C. Nerve fiber D. Glial cell

72. What does sodium bicarbonate do?

A. Lowers pH B. Raises pH C. Neutralizes bile D. Emulsifies fats

73. Which model describes enzyme‑substrate binding?

A. Induced fit B. Lock and key C. Active site D. Allosteric

74. What do oxidoreductases catalyze?

A. Transferases B. Oxidoreductases C. Hydrolases D. Lyases

75. What structures indicate common ancestry?

A. Analogous structures B. Homologous structures C. Vestigial structures D. Fossils

76. What is evolution considered in science?

A. Hypothesis B. Theory C. Law D. Conjecture

77. What is fragmentation?

A. Fragmentation B. Budding C. Binary fission D. Parthenogenesis

78. What is regeneration?

A. Regrow lost parts B. Produce new offspring C. Repair damaged tissues D. All of these

79. Which mammals have a pouch?

A. Marsupials B. Monotremes C. Placental mammals D. None

80. What does alcohol fermentation produce?

A. Lactic acid B. Ethanol and CO₂ C. Acetic acid D. Citric acid

81. What is another name for the Krebs cycle?

A. Citric acid cycle B. Glycolysis C. Electron transport chain D. Fermentation

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. While finding the relative atomic mass, which of the following is used to compare the atomic mass of chlorine (35.5 amu)?

A. Carbon-13 B. Carbon-12 C. Neon-20 D. Nucleon Number

83. One mole of ethanol and one mole of ethane have an equal:

A. Mass B. Number of electrons C. Number of atoms D. Number of molecules

84. The total number of moles present in 2g of ethylene molecule (C₂H₄) are:

A. 0.1 mole B. 0.2 mole C. 1 mole D. 2 mole

85. N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g) How many moles of N₂ are required to manufacture 8 moles of NH₃?

A. 2.5 moles B. 4 moles C. 3.5 moles D. 5 moles

86. The reactant which is consumed first in a chemical reaction is called:

A. Consumed reactant B. Limiting reactant C. Excess reactant D. Non-reacted reactant

87. The process of heat flow between hotter and colder gases remains continued until all the molecules have equal:

A. Average translational kinetic energy B. Average rotational kinetic energy C. Average translational potential energy D. Average vibrational kinetic energy

88. The SI unit for pressure is:

A. mm of Hg B. bar C. Pascal D. Torr

89. There are four gases H₂,He,N₂ and CO₂ , Which gas shows greater nonideal behavior?

A. He B. H₂ C. CO₂ D. N₂

90. Which are of following pairs has the same electronic configuration as possessed by Neon(Ne10)

A. Na+Cl- B. K+,Cl- C. Na+,Mg2+ D. Na+,F-

91. Which is the correct electronic configuration of chromium?

A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5 B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s3 3p6 3S2 3d4 C. 1s2 2s2 3s2 2p6 3p6 4S2 3d6 D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s6

92. CO₂ & SO₂ are two compounds. Which of the following best describes these two compounds?

A. Both CO₂ & SO₂ are linear and non-polar B. CO₂ is angular and polar, SO₂ is linear and non-polar C. CO₂ is linear and non-polar, SO₂ is angular and polar D. Both CO₂ and SO₂ are angular and polar

93. The sum of all the energies of all the molecules or atoms of a substance is called its:

A. Specific heat B. Heat capacity C. Latent heat D. Internal energy

94. First law of thermodynamics is represented as:

A. ΔH = q + w B. ΔE = q + w C. ΔH = ΔE + W D. ΔH = ΔE + q

95. The specific heat of water is:

A. 4.2 J/gK B. 9.82 J/g/°C C. 6.04 J/g/°C D. 8.47 J/g/°C

96. If a reaction rate does not change with concentration then it is:

A. 3rd order B. 2nd order C. 1st order D. Zero order

97. The element chlorine is found in gaseous state while bromine is found in:

A. Solid state B. Liquid state C. Crystalline form D. Condensed form

98. Which of the following compound is more acidic?

A. Alkane B. Alkene C. Alkyne D. Cycloalkane

99. Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between 1-pentyne and 2-pentyne?

A. AgNO₃ + NH₄OH B. Br₂/CCl₄ C. 1% alkaline KMnO₄ D. K₂Cr₂O₇ + H₂SO₄

100. Freon is commonly known as:

A. Refrigerant B. A solvent C. Insecticides D. A fire extinguisher

101. Which of the following will not affect the SN1 mechanism?

A. Nature of solvent B. Carbocation C. Nature of nucleophile D. Carbonion

102. 1-propanol reacts with HCl in the presence of ZnCl₂:

A. immediately B. on heating C. after 5 min D. do not react at all

103. Which of the following represents the functional group of acid halides?

A. R–OH B. R–COX C. R–X D. R–COOH

104. Number of carbon atoms in oxaloacetic acid:

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

105. Consider the given balanced chemical equation: 2H2 + O2 = 2H2O. If 4 g of H2 reacts with 32 g of O2 to produce 28 g of H2O, what is the percentage yield of the reaction? (Molar mass of H2 = 2 g/mol, O2 = 32 g/mol and H2O = 18 g/mol)

A. 63.6% B. 77.8% C. 87.5% D. 92.5%

106. Oxidation numbers of X,Y,Z are +6, -2, & -1 respectively, possible molecular formula when atoms combine:

A. XYZ B. XYZ2 C. XYZ3 D. XYZ2

107. Poly vinyl chloride (PVC) is the type of?

A. Homopolymer B. Thermosetting polymer C. Thermoplastic polymer D. Copolymer

108. Carboxylic acid reacts with ammonia to form ammonium salts which on heating produces:

A. Carbonates B. Alkane C. Ester D. Amide

109. Select the standard condition for temperature and pressure:

A. 1 atm and 0K B. 760 torr and 25°C C. 2 bar and 25°C D. 14.7 psi and 0°C

110. The electronic configuration of Na (Z=11) is:

A. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹ B. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² C. 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ 3s² D. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s⁰

111. Who explained the photoelectric effect?

A. Planck B. Hertz C. Einstein D. Bohr

112. Dipole-induced dipole forces occur between:

A. Polar-polar B. Polar-nonpolar C. Nonpolar-nonpolar D. Ionic

113. Capillary rise height (h) is:

A. h ∝ r B. h ∝ r² C. h ∝ 1/r² D. h ∝ 1/r

114. Packing efficiency of FCC is:

A. 52.4% B. 68% C. 60% D. 74%

115. Interplanar spacing (d) with Miller indices:

A. Decreases with higher Miller indices B. Increases with higher Miller indices C. Is independent of Miller indices D. First increases then decreases

116. A catalyst works by:

A. Increases Eₐ B. Decreases Eₐ C. Increases A D. Changes ΔH

117. Coordination number is:

A. Number of ligands B. Number of ligand donor atoms C. Number of metal atoms D. Number of charges

118. Lanthanides predominantly show:

A. Only +3 B. +2 and +3 C. +3 and +4 D. Predominantly +3, but variable

119. Markovnikov's rule states H adds to:

A. H to less substituted carbon B. H to more substituted carbon C. X to less substituted carbon D. Random addition

120. General formula of cycloalkanes is:

A. CₙH₂ₙ₊₂ B. CₙH₂ₙ₋₂ C. CₙH₂ₙ D. CₙH₂ₙ₋₆

121. Chair conformation is more stable than:

A. Boat is more stable B. Chair is more stable C. Both equally stable D. Planar is most stable

122. The IUPAC name of C₄H₁₀ is:

A. Propane B. Pentane C. Hexane D. Butane

123. A carbocation is:

A. sp², trigonal planar B. sp³, tetrahedral C. sp, linear D. sp², tetrahedral

124. Carboxylic acid + NH₃ (heat) gives:

A. Esters B. Amides C. Amines D. Nitriles

125. Triglycerides are made of:

A. Glycerol and one fatty acid B. Glycerol and two fatty acids C. Glycerol and three fatty acids D. Fatty acids only

126. Most common glass is:

A. Borosilicate glass B. Soda-lime glass C. Lead glass D. Quartz glass

English 9 MCQs

127. Spot the error: The delegates in Anatolia could transfer their activities to Istanbul, put Mustafa Kamal's ideas into practice and yet not longer stand in opposition to the Padishah.

A. The delegates in Anatolia could transfer their activities to Istanbul, put Mustafa Kamal's ideas into practice and yet not longer stand in opposition to the Padishah B. No error C. No error D. No error

128. Choose the correct sentence:

A. This will have a bad impact to the economy B. This will have a bad impact on the economy C. This will have a bad impact at the economy D. This will have a bad impact over the economy

129. Choose the correct sentence:

A. When the fact failed him, he questions his senses B. When the fact failed him, he questioned from his senses C. When the fact fails him, he questions his senses D. He will question his senses, when the fact will fail him

130. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Why does not Norma remained true to her husband? B. Why did not Norma remain true to her husband? C. Why had not Norma remain true to her husband? D. Why did not Norma remained true to her husband?

131. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Heat the olive oil into a heavy pan B. Heat the olive oil in a heavy pan C. Heat the olive oil with a heavy pan D. Heat the olive oil on a heavy pan

132. Select the synonym for: Uncanny

A. Exact B. Good C. Opposite D. Strange

133. Punctuate the following sentence correctly. Lets meet at Sarahs house after school

A. Let's meet at Sarah's house after school. B. Lets meet at Sarah's house after school. C. Lets meet at Sarah's house after school. D. Let's meet, at Sarah's house after school.

134. Choose the meaning of "benevolent" in: "The benevolent millionaire donated millions to build schools in impoverished areas."

A. Cruel B. Selfish C. Kind and generous D. Stingy

135. Which of the following is a correctly punctuated sentence?

A. It is raining I will take an umbrella. B. It is raining, so I will take an umbrella. C. It is raining and I will take an umbrella. D. It is raining; I will take an umbrella.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What does inflation cause?

A. Reduced purchasing power B. Stock market crash C. Decreased demand D. Market stability

137. What is the first step in a small fire?

A. Call the fire brigade B. Close all windows C. Wait for the wind D. Use fire extinguisher

138. What to do during floods to stay safe?

A. Move to higher floors B. Distribute relief goods C. Wait for rescue teams D. Conduct awareness seminars

139. What does popular opinion require?

A. Requires verification B. Is automatically true C. Is false D. Is irrelevant

140. What is the basis of "everyone believes it"?

A. Emotional appeal B. Logical reasoning C. Evidence based D. Neutral

141. What is required for valid inference?

A. Not representative B. Representative C. Irrelevant D. Too large

142. Is the converse of "All S are P" necessarily true?

A. All P are S B. Some P are S C. No P are S D. All S are P

143. All dogs are animals. Some animals are cats. What can you conclude?

A. Some dogs are cats B. No dogs are cats C. All dogs are cats D. Cannot determine

144. If you eat healthy, you live long. You live long. What can you conclude?

A. You eat healthy B. Cannot determine C. You live long D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. Effective resistance between A and B is:

A. 40 Ohm B. 50 Ohm C. 10 Ohm D. 30 Ohm

146. The escape velocity of a body in the gravitational field of Earth is dependent on:

A. Launch angle B. Mass & angle both C. Mass of Earth D. Mass of the body

147. The distance traveled by a moving car with velocity 15 m/s in 2 s, decelerates at 2 m/s² is equal to:

A. 30 m B. 16 m C. 34 m D. 26 m

148. Ignoring details associated with friction, extra forces exerted by arm and leg muscles, and other factors, we can consider a pole vault as the conversion of an athlete's running kinetic energy into gravitational potential energy. If an athlete is to lift his body 5 m during vault, what speed must he have when he plants his pole?

A. 5 m/s B. 10 m/s C. 15 m/s D. 20 m/s

149. A string of 6.0 m has wave speed of 24 m/s. Resonant frequencies?

A. 1 Hz, 2 Hz, 3 Hz B. 2 Hz, 4 Hz, 6 Hz C. 3 Hz, 6 Hz, 9 Hz D. 5 Hz, 10 Hz, 15 Hz

150. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about the nodes when the string is plucked:

A. Amplitude of vibration is zero B. Do not move along the string C. Produced at the fixed ends of strings D. Distance between consecutive nodes is 1 wavelength

151. The SI unit of potential difference is:

A. Volt B. Coulomb C. Watt D. eV

152. Magnetic force depends upon:

A. Current B. Length C. Magnetic field D. All of above

153. Which is correct relation related to transformer?

A. Ns/Np = Vs/Vp B. NsNp = Vs/Vp C. Ns/Np = Vp/Vs D. VsIp = VpIs

154. The potential difference applied across a diode to reduce depletion layer is:

A. Reverse biasing B. Forward biasing C. Biasing voltage D. Junction potential

155. Calculate the half-life of bismuth-214 which has a decay constant of 4.3 x 10^-1.

A. 2.3 x 10^-3 s B. 1.6 x 10^-4 s C. 3.9 x 10^-3 s D. 2.9 x 10^-3 s

156. The half-life of carbon is 5730 years. How much carbon will left after 22920 years?

A. 1/32th B. 1/16th C. 1/64th D. 1/4th

157. A low energy neutron has RBE factor of 10. How much energy is absorbed by a man of mass 80kg if the value equivalent dose is 400 rem?

A. 16 J B. 32 J C. 48 J D. 64 J

158. Which of the following is NOT the somatic biological effect of radiation?

A. Skin burn B. Loss of hair C. Induction of cancer D. Gene mutation

159. In every instant of time, wavelength associated with a freely falling body:

A. Decreases B. Increases four times C. Increases two times D. Remains constant

160. The frequency of AC supply in Pakistan is:

A. 50 Hz B. 60 Hz C. 100 Hz D. 120 Hz

161. The phase difference between voltage and current in an inductor is:

A. Voltage leads by 90° B. Current leads by 90° C. 0° D. 180°

162. An inductor allows DC but opposes AC because:

A. Its reactance is zero for DC and increases with frequency B. Its reactance is infinite for DC C. It has resistance D. It stores energy

163. The Bohr model introduced the concept of:

A. Stationary orbits B. Continuous energy C. Wave nature of electrons D. Uncertainty principle

164. The Rydberg constant for hydrogen is independent of:

A. The mass of the electron B. The charge of the electron C. Planck's constant D. The speed of light

165. The equivalent resistance of two resistors of 4 Ω and 6 Ω connected in series is:

A. 10 Ω B. 2.4 Ω C. 24 Ω D. 0.4 Ω

166. The self-inductance of a coil is defined as the ratio of:

A. Flux linkage to current B. EMF to rate of change of current C. Both A and B D. Voltage to resistance

167. A current of 5 A in a coil produces a magnetic flux of 0.2 Wb through the coil. The self-inductance is:

A. 0.04 H B. 1 H C. 0.2 H D. 25 H

168. The magnetic field at the centre of a full circular loop is:

A. B = μ₀ I / (2R) B. B = μ₀ I / (4πR) C. B = μ₀ I / R D. B = μ₀ I / (πR)

169. The potential gradient is related to electric field by:

A. E = -dV/dr B. E = dV/dr C. V = -dE/dr D. V = dE/dr

170. The electric field just outside a charged conductor is:

A. Perpendicular to the surface B. Parallel to the surface C. At 45° D. Tangential

171. The unit of absorbed dose of radiation is:

A. Gray (Gy) B. Sievert (Sv) C. Becquerel D. Curie

172. The atomic mass unit (u) is defined as 1/12 of the mass of:

A. Carbon-12 atom B. Oxygen-16 atom C. Hydrogen-1 atom D. Nitrogen-14 atom

173. The nucleus that is most stable (highest binding energy per nucleon) is:

A. Iron-56 B. Uranium-238 C. Hydrogen-1 D. Carbon-12

174. In rolling motion without slipping, the condition relating linear velocity v and angular velocity ω is:

A. v = ω r B. v = r / ω C. v = ω / r D. v = ω r²

175. A wheel has angular velocity of 20 rad/s. If it comes to rest in 5 s with constant deceleration, the angular deceleration is:

A. 4 rad/s² B. 5 rad/s² C. 2 rad/s² D. 10 rad/s²

176. The molar specific heat at constant volume C_v is related to C_p by:

A. C_p - C_v = R B. C_v - C_p = R C. C_p + C_v = R D. C_p / C_v = R

177. The specific heat capacity of water is approximately:

A. 4200 J/kg·K B. 420 J/kg·K C. 4.2 J/kg·K D. 42000 J/kg·K

178. The wave speed v is related to frequency f and wavelength λ by:

A. v = f λ B. v = f / λ C. v = λ / f D. v = f + λ

179. The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called:

A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Internal energy D. Mechanical energy

180. The kinetic energy of a car moving at 20 m/s is 4×10⁵ J. If the car speed is reduced to 10 m/s, its kinetic energy becomes:

A. 1×10⁵ J B. 2×10⁵ J C. 8×10⁵ J D. 4×10⁵ J

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