MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 21 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 21 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Which enzyme is missing in the patient of Tay Sach's disease?

A. Protein digesting enzyme B. Carbohydrate digesting enzyme C. Fatty acid digesting enzyme D. Lipid digesting enzyme

2. Turgidity in plants is maintained by:

A. Chloroplast B. Vacuole C. Mitochondria D. lysosome

3. Chromosome is typically made up from combination of:

A. DNA and protein B. RNA and lipids C. DNA and RNA D. RNA and proteins

4. Which of the following store food?

A. Chromoplast B. leucoplast C. chloroplast D. all of the above

5. Which of following correctly shows structures which founds in a eukaryotic?

A. B. C. D.

6. The property of water that is important to biological membrane stability is:

A. Anomalous B. Hydrophobic exclusion C. Amphoteric D. Hydrophobic inclusion

7. Which carbohydrates are more sweet in taste?

A. Polysaccharides B. disaccharides C. monosaccharides D. oligosaccharides

8. Butyric acid is a ———carbon fatty acid.

A. 6 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

9. The one molecule of fatty acid forming ester bond with one molecule of long chain alcohol

A. Saturated acylglycerol B. unsaturated acylglycerol C. Phospholipids D. waxes

10. What is the ester of fatty acids and long chain alcohol called?

A. Acylglycerol B. Phospholipid C. Glycercol D. Wax

11. Which of following holds the alpha helix of protein in its place:

A. R-group B. Amino group C. Disulphide bond D. Hydrogen bond

12. Which function is not performed by proteins?

A. Providing structural support to cell B. catalyzing biochemical reactions C. transporting materials across cell membran D. providing insulation against heat loss

13. Proteins with tertiary structure are helpful in:

A. Carrying messages from glands to target organs B. Maintaining epithelial lining of skin C. Making the matrix of connective tissue D. Helping muscle contraction

14. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding state of enzymatic action:

A. Increase in enzyme concentration increases the rate B. Increase in enzyme concentration reduces the rate C. All enzymes work at their maximum rate at optimum temperature D. All enzymes work at their maximum rate at optimum pH

15. The term feedback refers to:

A. Enzymes remain unaffected B. Product accelerates the production of enzymes C. Enzyme is inhibited by product D. both b & c are correct

16. Competitive inhibitors are:

A. Homologous to substrate B. Analogous to substrate C. Smaller than substrate D. Larger than substrate

17. Virus classified into many groups on the basis of:

A. Morphology B. Nucleic acid C. mode of replication D. All of these

18. In HIV viruses, reverse transcriptase convert single stranded RNA into double stranded DNA. This process is called:

A. Translation B. Duplication C. Replication D. Reverse transcription

19. Functional mesosomes can be compared with:

A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Polysomes D. Golgi bodies

20. Number of layers of cell wall in Gram positive bacteria is :

A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4

21. A bacterium with single polar flagellum is:

A. Amphitrichous B. Atrichous C. Lophotrichous D. Monotrichous

22. Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic in nature and are related to eukaryotic organisms having:

A. PSI B. PSII C. Both PSI & PSII D. Lack Both PSI & PSII

23. Autoclave chambers are used for -------of surgical instruments:

A. Sterilization B. Filtration C. Desiccation D. Radiation

24. ___ is a triploblastic organism:

A. Jelly fish B. Sea anemone C. Tapeworm D. Corals

25. Ascaris is which one of the following:

A. Ectoparasite B. Intestinal parasite C. Respiratory track parasite D. Urinogenital track parasite

26. Early land vertebrates are amphibians and they possess limb structure called:

A. unidactyl limb B. pterodactyl limb C. pentadactyl limb D. tetra dactyl limb

27. Water Vascular system is present in:

A. Echinodermata B. annelida C. Arthropoda D. chordata

28. When light falls on P-700, which event is likely to occur?

A. It induces photolysis B. Gains hydrogen C. Accept electrons D. It is oxidized

29. Carriers of the respiratory chain are located:

A. Matrix of mitochondria B. Inner membrane of mitochondria C. Outer membrane of mitochondria D. Not specified (not fully visibl

30. In Electron transport chain, ATP synthesis takes place when electrons move from:

A. Primary electron acceptor to plastoquinone B. Plastoquinone to cytochrome C. Cytochrome to plastocyanin D. Plastocyanin to Photosystem-I

31. What is the optimum pH of pepsin in stomach?

A. 3 B. 2 C. 2.5 D. 1.4

32. Which of the following is not a component of bile?

A. Digestive enzymes B. Salts C. Mucus D. Lecithin

33. Bicuspid valve controls the flow of blood from:

A. Right atrium to right ventricle B. Right ventricle to pulmonary artery C. Left atrium to left ventricle D. Left ventricle to aorta

34. The final destination of lymph is:

A. Lymph node B. Lymph capillaries C. Lymphoid organs D. Sub clavian vein

35. The most abundant type of WBC that reach rapidly at the site of infection:

A. Neutrophills B. Basophills C. Macrophages D. Lymphocytes

36. Antibodies are manufactured in:

A. T lymphocytes B. Red Blood cells C. Platelets D. B lymphocytes

37. Cytotoxic T-cells:

A. directly kill invaders B. Aid B cells in their job C. both A and B D. suppress T cell activit

38. Descending aorta is bifurcated into two vessels which on further division from femoral artery that supply blood to high muscles of legs

A. Iliac vein B. Temporal artery C. Iliac artery D. sciatic artery

39. What directly triggers the activation of natural killer cells?

A. Free radicals B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Interferons D. Oxygen

40. The cells which play very important role in developing immunity:

A. Lymphocytes B. Neutrophils C. Monocytes D. Thrombocytes

41. Those joints in which the articulating bones are separated by a fluid-containing cavity are called:

A. Fibrous joints B. Cartilaginous joints C. Synovial joints D. Immovable

42. Which of the following is not a feature of cartilaginous joint?

A. Joint cavity is absent B. Joint cavity is Present C. Synchondrosis contain hyaline cartilage D. Inflammatory

43. Which of the following is highly inflammatory type of arthritis?

A. Gouty arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Osteoarthritis D. Acute arthritis

44. How long does it take an action potential to occur?

A. Few minutes B. Few millisecond C. Few hours D. Few seconds

45. The type of neuron that carries nerve impulse from tissue and organ to the spinal cord and brain is:

A. Sensory neuron B. Motor neuron C. Intermediate neuron D. Associative

46. Which part of the brain is controlling your sense of balance?

A. Amygdala B. Cerebellum C. Hippocampus D. Thalamus

47. Insulin converts glucose into:

A. Vitamins B. Minerals C. lipids D. Cortisone

48. Discharge of ovum or secondary oocyte from ovary or from Graffian follicle is called:

A. Fertilization B. Pollination C. Follicle Formation D. Ovulation

49. The function of hyaluronidase enzyme is:

A. Penetration of sperm into the ovum B. entrance of sperm into the Fallopian tube C. Inactivation of sperm after their failure to fertilize ovum D. None of these

50. A male or female child of an affected mother has 50% chance of acquiring the disorder. Such a disorder is:

A. X linked recessive disorder B. X linked dominant disorder C. Y linked Dominant disorder D. Y linked recessive Disorder

51. According to the theory of natural selection ,organisms produce:

A. More offspring than supported B. Less offspring than supported C. Offspring according to the resources available D. Offspring to create resources

52. Which of the following type of organs are supposed to be functional in ancestral species than in present day species:

A. Vestigial organs B. Homologous organs C. Analogous organs D. embryonic organs

53. Which of the following shows evidences from evolution through molecular biology:

A. Development of bronchial arches in vertebrate embryo B. Distribution of species C. Comparison of genes and proteins in different species D. study of vestigial organs

54. What is the function of a centromere?

A. To protect the ends of chromosomes B. To hold sister chromatids together C. To carry genetic information D. To initiate DNA replication

55. Peptide bonds are important in protein because they:

A. Affect solubility B. Hold R-groups C. Link amino acid D. help in releasing oxygen

56. Why are retroviruses placed in a separate class of RNA viruses?

A. They always infect animal cells only B. Their RNA acts directly as mRNA C. They lack protein coats D. They use reverse transcriptase to make DNA from RNA

57. If a male with hemophilia marries a non-carrier female, what is the likelihood of their sons inheriting the condition?

A. 50% B. 100% C. 0% D. 25%

58. Beside fertilization, the function of fallopian tube is:

A. Notishment of embryo B. Transport of ovum towards uterus C. Secretion of female hormones D. Implantation of zygote

59. When can the lysogenic cycle switch to the lytic cycle?

A. Never switches B. Always switches C. Switches under stress D. Switches randomly

60. Where is NADH produced?

A. Only in glycolysis B. Only in Krebs cycle C. In both glycolysis and Krebs cycle D. In electron transport chain

61. Where does substrate‑level phosphorylation occur?

A. Only in glycolysis B. Only in Krebs cycle C. In glycolysis and Krebs cycle D. In electron transport chain

62. How does gel electrophoresis separate DNA fragments?

A. Based on charge B. Based on size C. Based on sequence D. Based on color

63. What are the requirements for PCR?

A. DNA template, primers, nucleotides, polymerase B. RNA template, primers, nucleotides, polymerase C. Protein template, primers D. Only DNA and polymerase

64. What did the Human Genome Project achieve?

A. Mapped mouse genome B. Mapped human genome C. Mapped fruit fly genome D. Mapped bacterial genome

65. What was the first genetically engineered drug?

A. Penicillin B. Human insulin C. Growth hormone D. Interferon

66. What is hypertension?

A. Low blood pressure B. High blood pressure C. Normal blood pressure D. Fluctuating blood pressure

67. What is the function of the cerebellum?

A. Thinking B. Coordination and balance C. Heart rate D. Breathing

68. What are reflexes?

A. Involuntary B. Voluntary C. Both D. None

69. What are semicircular canals involved in?

A. Hearing B. Balance C. Smell D. Taste

70. How many hemispheres does the cerebrum have?

A. One hemisphere B. Two hemispheres C. Three hemispheres D. Four hemispheres

71. What does the liver store?

A. Stores bile B. Stores glycogen, vitamins, minerals C. Produces insulin D. Digests fats

72. What is the molecule that an enzyme acts on?

A. Enzyme B. Substrate C. Product D. Cofactor

73. How old are the oldest fossils?

A. Billions of years old B. Millions of years old C. Thousands of years old D. Recent

74. What is the stored form of glucose in animals?

A. Starch B. Glycogen C. Cellulose D. Sucrose

75. What are signaling molecules of the immune system?

A. Cytokines B. Antibodies C. Antigens D. Chemokines

76. What is active immunity?

A. Producing own antibodies B. Receiving antibodies C. Passive immunity D. Natural immunity

77. What is natural active immunity?

A. After vaccination B. After natural infection C. After receiving antibodies D. After maternal antibodies

78. What are examples of polygenic traits?

A. Skin color and height B. Blood type C. Eye color D. Tongue rolling

79. Where does external fertilization occur?

A. Outside body B. Inside body C. In the uterus D. In the oviduct

80. What does the I‑band contain?

A. Actin and myosin B. Myosin only C. Actin only D. Z‑line

81. What are examples of antagonistic muscles?

A. Biceps and triceps B. Quadriceps and hamstrings C. Deltoid and pectoralis D. Trapezius and latissimus

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. The reactant which is consumed first in a chemical reaction is called:

A. Consumed reactant B. Limiting reactant C. Excess reactant D. Non-reacted reactant

83. How many moles are there in 60g of sodium hydroxide (NaOH)?

A. 1.5 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

84. The Magnetic quantum number of 4f orbital would be

A. -2, -3, -1, 0, +2, +3, +4 B. -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3 C. -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, +4 D. -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3

85. Which of the following is the example of polar molecular solids?

A. Ice B. Iodine C. Copper D. Phosphorus

86. According to valence shell electron pair repulsion theory, the repulsive forces between the electron pairs of central atom of molecule are in the order:

A. Lone pair–Lone pair > Lone pair–Bond pair > Bond pair–Bond pair B. Lone pair–Bond pair > Lone pair–Lone pair > Bond pair–Bond pair C. Bond pair–Bond pair > Lone pair–Lone pair > Lone pair–Bond pair D. Lone pair–Bond pair > Bond pair–Bond pair > Lone pair–Lone pair

87. The equation of the first law of thermodynamics q = ΔE + W reduces at constant volume to:

A. ΔE = W B. q = ΔE + PΔV C. q = ΔE + W D. q = ΔE

88. One calorie is equal to:

A. 4.18 J B. 4.18 J C. 0.418 kJmol⁻¹ D. 0.418 kJ

89. The oxidation number of oxygen in Na₂O₂ is:

A. -1 B. 2 C. -2 D. 1

90. Which of the following is a balanced redox equation?

A. Na + Fe³⁺ → Na⁺ + Fe B. 3Na + Fe³⁺ → 3Na⁺ + Fe C. Zn + Ag⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Ag D. 2Zn + Ag⁺ → 2Zn²⁺ + Ag

91. When the change in concentration is 6×10⁻² mol dm⁻³ and time for that change is seconds, the rate of reaction will be:

A. 6×10⁻² mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹ B. 6×10⁻⁴ mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹ C. 6×10⁻² mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹ D. 6×10⁻⁵ mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹

92. The ionic radius of fluoride ion is:

A. 72 pm B. 95 pm C. 136 pm D. 157 pm

93. Which element has smaller shielding effect among the following?

A. Mg B. Ca C. Rb D. Sr

94. Isomerism due to shifting of proton from one atom to another in a same molecule is known as:

A. Metamerism B. Tautomerism C. Positional D. Functional

95. Order of reactivity of alkene with hydrogen halide is:

A. HBr > HI > HCl B. HI > HBr > HF C. HF > HI > HCl D. HI > HBr > HCl

96. The introduction of R–C+ group in benzene is called:

A. Acylation B. Carbonyl reaction C. Alkylation D. Formylation

97. The increasing stability order of the following compounds (1) CH₃CH₂CH₂⁺ (2) (CH₃)₃C⁺ (3) CH₃CH₂−CH⁺−CH₃ are:

A. 1 > 2 > 3 B. 2 > 3 > 1 C. 3 > 2 > 1 D. 3 > 1 > 2

98. Compound X reacts with Grignard's reagent to produce tertiary alcohols. What is the compound?

A. Aldehyde B. Ketone C. Acid Halide D. Carboxylic Acid

99. In Cannizzaro's reaction, alcohol is a ------ product.

A. Oxidized B. Reduced C. Does not produce at all D. Alcohol is reactant of this reaction

100. Which of the following organic acid does not belong to COOH group?

A. Alkanoic acid B. Butyric acid C. Picric acid D. Alkanoic acid

101. Flavour of benzyl acetate is:

A. Banana B. Raspberry C. Jasmine D. Orange

102. If % yield and actual yield is 80 and 20g respectively, what will be theoretical yield?

A. 20g B. 25g C. 30g D. 40g

103. Consider the given reaction: N2+3H2→2NH3. If 56 g of N2 reacts with 12 g of H2 and produces 51 g of NH3, what is the theoretical yield (TY) of NH3 and the percentage yield (PY) of the reaction? (Molar mass of N2 = 28 g/mol, H2 = 2 g/mol and NH3 = 17 g/mol)

A. TY = 68 g and PY = 75% B. TY = 34 g and PY = 67% C. TY = 68 g and PY = 33% D. TY = 34 g and PY = 75%

104. When SHE is connected with Cu electrode using salt bridge and external wire:

A. Cu reduces B. Cu2+ reduces C. H+ reduces D. H2 reduces

105. The number of moles of CO₂ which contain 8.0 g of oxygen is:

A. 0.25 B. 0.50 C. 1.0 D. 2.0

106. The molecular formula of a compound with empirical formula CH and molar mass 78 g/mol is:

A. C₆H₆ B. C₂H₂ C. C₄H₄ D. C₈H₈

107. The number of moles in 22 g of CO₂ is:

A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 1.5 D. 2

108. The Balmer series lies in which region?

A. Ultraviolet B. Visible C. Infrared D. X-ray

109. The Pauli exclusion principle states that:

A. Electrons occupy lowest energy levels B. Electrons fill orbitals singly first C. Electrons have wave-particle duality D. No two electrons have the same 4 quantum numbers

110. Specific heat is per:

A. 1 mole B. 1 kilogram C. 1 gram D. 1 liter

111. In Haber process, temperature compromise:

A. High T always best B. Low T always best C. High T favors equilibrium D. Low T favors equilibrium, high T for rate

112. Rate of disappearance of a reactant is:

A. d[A]/dt B. -d[A]/dt C. d[C]/dt D. Both B and C

113. Units of k for second-order reaction:

A. s⁻¹ B. mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹ C. mol⁻¹ dm³ s⁻¹ D. dm³ mol⁻¹ s⁻¹

114. Al₂O₃ is:

A. Basic B. Amphoteric C. Acidic D. Neutral

115. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is:

A. Paramagnetic B. Diamagnetic C. Ferromagnetic D. Diamagnetic

116. VSEPR theory states that electron pairs:

A. Minimize repulsion between electron pairs B. Maximize repulsion C. Arrange randomly D. Form linear shapes only

117. Double and triple bonds consist of:

A. All sigma bonds B. All pi bonds C. 2 sigma + 1 pi D. 1 sigma + 1 pi (double), 1 sigma + 2 pi (triple)

118. General formula of cycloalkanes is:

A. CₙH₂ₙ₊₂ B. CₙH₂ₙ₋₂ C. CₙH₂ₙ D. CₙH₂ₙ₋₆

119. The functional group of carboxylic acids is:

A. -COOH B. -CHO C. -OH D. -COO-

120. The IUPAC name of C₃H₈ is:

A. Ethane B. Butane C. Propane D. Pentane

121. The suffix for alkenes is:

A. -ane B. -ene C. -yne D. -ol

122. Hückel's rule states (4n+2) π-electrons:

A. 4n π-electrons B. 2n π-electrons C. (4n-2) π-electrons D. (4n+2) π-electrons

123. Elimination of alkyl halides gives:

A. Alkanes B. Alcohols C. Alkenes D. Alkynes

124. Acidity order of simple carboxylic acids:

A. Acetic acid > formic acid B. Propanoic acid > acetic acid C. Butanoic acid > propanoic acid D. Formic acid > acetic acid > propanoic acid

125. Fehling's test is positive for:

A. Aldehydes (except aromatic) give red precipitate B. Ketones give red precipitate C. Both give red precipitate D. No reaction

126. Baeyer-Villiger oxidation of ketones gives:

A. Carboxylic acids B. Esters C. Alcohols D. Alkenes

English 9 MCQs

127. I ______ the medicine as prescribed by the doctor for a week now.

A. take B. have been taking C. have had been taking D. would have taken

128. He was ________ of all valuable possessions.

A. Robbed B. Pinched C. Stolen D. Established

129. Spot the error: He picked up one or two magazines and after a hurried glance on the contents carefully replaced them

A. He picked up one or two magazines and after a hurried glance B. on the contents carefully replaced them C. No error D. No error

130. Select the synonym for: Lacerating

A. Landing B. Tearing C. Flagging D. Lactating

131. She -----unconscious since four O clock.

A. Was B. has been C. is D. are

132. Choose the correct sentence:

A. The rehearsal session started and we have little time to spare for other activities. B. The rehearsal session started, and we little time to spare for other activities. C. The rehearsal session started and we has little time to spare for other activities. D. We are little time to spare for other activities, the rehearsal session starts.

133. After she ----- the stairs, her heart almost gave out from exhaustion.

A. has climbed B. Had Climbed C. Had Climbed D. Was climbing

134. Which article should be used in the blank to make the sentence grammatically correct: "He lives in ____ old house."

A. a B. an C. the D. blank

135. What does "contradict" mean in: "The new evidence seems to contradict the earlier theory."

A. Support B. Explain C. Confirm D. Deny

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What error is made when one event follows another?

A. Temporal sequence equals causation B. Temporal sequence does not equal causation C. No sequence D. Irrelevant

137. What fallacy is "ice cream causes crime"?

A. True cause B. False cause C. No cause D. Multiple causes

138. What comes next: A, C, F, H, K, ?

A. M B. M C. N D. L

139. What comes next: A, I, Q, Y, G, ?

A. O B. O C. N D. P

140. Given All X are Y and All Y are Z, what follows?

A. All X are Z B. Some Z are X C. No Z are X D. Some X are Z

141. What is the contrapositive of "All S are P"?

A. All non‑P are non‑S B. All non‑S are non‑P C. No non‑P are S D. Some non‑P are S

142. What is the minor term in a syllogism?

A. Predicate of conclusion B. Subject of conclusion C. Middle term D. Both

143. In a family, the eldest is 5 years older than the middle, and the middle is 3 years older than the youngest. Who is the eldest?

A. The eldest is the oldest sibling B. The youngest is the shortest C. All siblings are the same age D. The middle child is the eldest

144. If you work hard, you succeed. You did not succeed. What can you conclude?

A. You did not work hard B. You worked hard C. You succeeded D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. A charge of 90C passes through a wire for 30 seconds. Then the current in the wire will be:

A. 3A B. 0.3A C. 3mA D. 0.3mA

146. When length of copper wire is doubled then resistivity becomes:

A. Double B. Half C. Remains same D. Four times

147. The resistance of a conducting material depends upon:

A. Nature of the conductor B. Dimension of conductor C. Physical state of the conductor D. All of these

148. The car is speeding up along negative y-axis then acceleration will be along:

A. Positive x-axis B. Negative y-axis C. Positive y-axis D. Negative y-axis

149. A block of mass 20g is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 10 m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during its upward motion is:

A. 1000 J B. –1000 J C. –1 J D. 2 J

150. Number of wavelengths per unit time is:

A. Speed B. Velocity C. Displacement D. Frequency

151. The product of "T" and "f" of a wave is equal to:

A. Zero B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

152. Which type of waves can be polarized?

A. Longitudinal waves B. Mechanical waves C. Transverse waves D. Sound waves

153. A distant star is receding from the earth with a speed of 1.40 x 10⁷ m/s. It emits light of frequency 4.57 x 10¹⁴ Hz. The speed of light is 3 x 10⁸ m/s. The Doppler effect formula can be used with light waves. What will be the frequency of this light when detected on Earth?

A. 2.04 x 10¹³ Hz B. 4.37 x 10¹⁴ Hz C. 4.57 x 10¹⁴ Hz D. 4.79 x 10¹⁴ Hz

154. The thermodynamics is that branch of Physic in which we study:

A. Relations between heat and ionization energies B. Relations between chemical and mechanical energies C. Relations between kinetic and potential energies D. Relations between heat and mechanical energies

155. If amount of work W is required to move charge Q, then potential difference is:

A. V = W/Q B. V = Q/W C. V = W/Q D. Q = V/W

156. Two capacitors 6μF and 12μF are in series connected across a 200 volts D.C supply. Calculate the charges on each capacitor, respectively.

A. 8 x 10⁻⁴C, 8 x 10⁻⁴C B. 8μC, 8Μc C. 8 x 10⁻⁶C, 16 x 10⁻⁶C D. 800C, 800C

157. The dimension of magnetic field is same as that of:

A. Magnetic flux density B. Magnetic flux C. Magnetic force D. Work done

158. 1 Wb =

A. 1 Nm/A B. 1 Nm²A⁻¹ C. 1 Nm⁻¹A D. 1 NmA⁻¹

159. According to Fleming's Right Hand Rule, when you stretch out the forefinger, middle finger and thumb so that they are at right angles to each other, the middle finger will point in the direction of:

A. Force B. Magnetic field C. Volt D. Current

160. The decay rate of radioactive substance is:

A. Constant with time B. Varies inversely with time C. Decreases exponentiation with time D. Decreases linearly with time

161. The half-life of Iodine-131 is:

A. 10 days B. 8 days C. 45 days D. 60 days

162. 1 becquerel is equal to:

A. One decay per second B. Two decays per second C. Three decays per second D. Four decays per second

163. The half life of a radioactive sample predicts about:

A. Whole life of sample B. Disintegration time of half number of atoms C. Decay only D. Total time for stable atoms

164. Radiations are dangerous to living organisms because they damage the cell by:

A. Producing ions in the cells B. Increasing the temperature of cells C. Decreasing the number of cells D. Destroying the cells

165. The line spectrum of hydrogen atom contains the spectral lines in the region of:

A. Ultraviolet B. Infrared C. Visible D. All of these

166. The electric field at a point due to two equal and opposite charges is 100 N/C. If the magnitude of each charge is doubled then the electric field at that point becomes:

A. 50 N/C B. 100 N/C C. 200 N/C D. 400 N/C

167. If the surface charge density of an infinite sheet increases by 25%, the electric field intensity:

A. Increases by 25% B. Increases by 50% C. Decreases by 25% D. Remains the same

168. A ball of mass m strikes a wall and rebounds with the same speed in the opposite direction, taking the initial direction as positive, the change in the momentum of the ball is:

A. 0 B. mv C. -2mv D. -mv

169. At resonance in a series RLC circuit, which condition holds?

A. XL = XC B. R = XL C. R = XC D. XL = R + XC

170. Current density is defined as:

A. Current per unit area B. Current per unit length C. Voltage per unit length D. Power per unit area

171. In a series circuit, if one bulb blows out, the other bulbs will:

A. Go out B. Glow brighter C. Glow dimmer D. Remain the same

172. According to Einstein, time is:

A. Relative B. Absolute C. Universal D. Independent of motion

173. Lenz's law states that the direction of induced current is such that it opposes:

A. The change that produces it B. The magnetic field C. The motion of the magnet D. The current itself

174. A coil of 100 turns, area 0.1 m², rotates in a magnetic field of 0.5 T at 50 rad/s. The peak EMF is:

A. 250 V B. 25 V C. 500 V D. 100 V

175. As the speed of a fluid increases, its pressure:

A. Decreases B. Increases C. Remains same D. Becomes zero

176. The SI unit of momentum is:

A. kg·m/s B. N·s C. Both A and B D. J

177. The atomic mass unit (u) is defined as 1/12 of the mass of:

A. Carbon-12 atom B. Oxygen-16 atom C. Hydrogen-1 atom D. Nitrogen-14 atom

178. Heat flows spontaneously from a hot body to a cold body due to the second law of thermodynamics. This results in an increase in total entropy of the universe.

A. True B. False C. Depends D. Neutral

179. The commutative law for vector addition is:

A. A + B = B + A B. A + B ≠ B + A C. A - B = B - A D. A × B = B × A

180. The phase difference between two points separated by a wavelength is:

A. 2π radians (360°) B. π radians (180°) C. π/2 radians (90°) D. 0

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