MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 22 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 22 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. #NAME?

A. Membrane proteins B. Membrane glycolipids C. Membrane carbohydrates D. Membrane cholesterol

2. The process by which various components of cell including its organelles can be isolated is called:

A. Homogenization B. Cell fractionation C. Gel electrophoresis D. Ultracentrifugation

3. Which of the following may lead to death by age of three years?

A. Baucher disease B. Gaucher's disease C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Krabbe's Disease

4. Which organelle is bounded by two membrane?

A. Ribosome B. Mitochondria C. Lysosome D. Nucleolus

5. The folds of inner membrane of mitochondria are called:

A. Cisternae B. Mesosome C. Cristae D. Infolds

6. ___ are the specific structures related to monosaccharides:

A. Glycosidic bond B. Keto Group C. Maltose D. Fructose

7. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

A. Fructose B. Glucose C. sucrose D. All are monosaccharides

8. The type of lipids which do not contain fatty acids are:

A. Phospholipids B. Waxes C. Steroids D. Acylglycerol

9. Proteins are the main ------- of the cell?

A. Physiological components B. Functional components C. Structural components D. Biological components

10. One of the pyrimidine bases absent in DNA:

A. Uracil B. Cytosine C. Thymine D. Adenine

11. The view that active site of enzyme is flexible and when a substrate combines with it, it causes change in enzyme structure is known as:

A. Lock and Key model B. Induced Fit model C. Sliding filament model D. Specificity model

12. Enzyme catalase protects the plants cell from:

A. Dehydration B. Photorespiration C. Toxic effect of alcohol D. Protein loss metabolism

13. The competitive inhibitors have structural similarity with:

A. Active site B. Substrate C. Binding site D. Co-enzyme

14. The molecules used to control virus during infection of animal cells are:

A. Interferons B. Antigen C. Histone D. Serum

15. The enzymes integrase, protease and reverse transcriptase are found in which virus?

A. Hepatitis A virus B. Herpes virus C. Influenza virus D. Human immunodeficiency virus

16. The molecules used to control virus during infection of animal cells are:

A. Interferons B. Antigen C. Histone D. Serum

17. Taxonomy includes the arrangement of organisms into different taxa. Which of following represents the correct heirarche of various taxa of classification:

A. Specie,genus,family,order,class,phylum B. Order,family,class,phylum,kingdom C. Species,genus,order,family,class,phylum D. Species,genus,family,class,order,phylum

18. The peptidoglycan cell wall is specific to:

A. Amoeba B. Protozoa C. Bacteria D. Virus

19. Which of the following has chlorophyll?

A. cyanobacteria B. Nostoc C. oscillatoria D. All have chlorophyll

20. All of the following are physical methods to control bacteria except:

A. Sterilization B. Boiling C. Radiation D. Antiseptics

21. Which of following statement is true about Amoeba?

A. They have flagella B. They are multicellular C. They don't cause disease in humans D. move by forming cytoplasmic projection called pseudopodia

22. Ascaris is which one of the following:

A. Ectoparasite B. Intestinal parasite C. Respiratory track parasite D. Urinogenital track parasite

23. The flatworm, that's the endoparasite of humans :

A. Dugesia B. Taenia C. fasciola D. Hydra

24. Colorless Plastid is called:

A. Leucoplast B. Chromoplast C. Cyanoplast D. Erythroplast

25. Which scientist among the following hypothesized that plants split water to release oxygen as a product?

A. Van Niel B. Lysenko C. Calvin D. Kreb

26. The product of light reaction is:

A. ATP and Glucose B. ATP and NADPH C. Glucose and NADPH D. Glucose and Oxygen

27. How many ATPs are required to form glucose molecule?

A. 9 B. 18 C. 36 D. 24

28. End product of Calvin cycle is:

A. 3-phosphoglycerate B. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate D. Glucose

29. Oxidative phase of glycolysis starts with dehydrogenation of:

A. Glucose B. R1,5BUP C. G3P D. NADH

30. The production of energy is

A. Faster in aerobic respiration B. Same in both types of respiration C. Faster in anaerobic respiration D. Not associated with respiration

31. The oxygen transported through blood plasma is about:

A. 1% B. 5% C. 3% D. 7%

32. Blood group which is known as a universal donor is:

A. A B. O+ve C. AB-ve D. O-ve

33. Mesenteric veins drain the blood from:

A. Liver B. Large intestine C. Stomach D. Gall bladder

34. Lymphatic system contain all of the following organs except:

A. lymphoid masses B. lymph vessels C. spleen D. lungs

35. Thymus gland is involved in maturation of which of the following?

A. Platelets B. Eosinophils C. B-lymphocytes D. T-lymphocytes

36. The method which helps in developing immunity against bacteria is:

A. Radiotherapy B. Chemotherapy C. Vaccination D. Antibiotics

37. The precursor cells are chondrocytes

A. Calcified B. Elastic C. Fibrous D. Hyaline

38. A condition in which a joint becomes swollen painful and immovable is called:

A. Spondylosis B. Arthritis C. Sciatica D. Rickets

39. When more energy is required in muscle contraction, then that energy can be produced by -- as a secondary source.

A. Glucose B. Phosphocreatine C. Fructose D. Lactic acid

40. Resting membrane potential measures:

A. -70mV B. -70 volt C. 70mV D. -90mV

41. The gonadotrophic hormones of the anterior lobe of pituitary include:

A. Prolactin, TSH, Somatotrophin hormone B. FSH, LH , Prolactin C. LH, FSH ,TSH D. Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone, LH , FSH

42. Ejection of milk from mammary glands is under control of which of the following hormone?

A. Androgens B. Oxytocin C. Progesterone D. estrogen

43. Glucagon is released from:

A. Liver B. islets of Langerhans C. spleen D. exocrine cells of pancreas

44. Hormones called gonadotropins are secreted by:

A. Hypothalamus B. Testes C. Ovaries D. Pituitary Gland

45. Functional unit of DNA is:

A. Nucleus B. Gene C. chromosome D. nucleolus

46. To check the homozygosity or heterozygosity of apparently dominant trait, we do the test cross by crossing it with:

A. Any dominant trait B. Homozygous recessive trait C. Homozygous dominant trait D. heterozygous dominant trait

47. The reduction of population size with some specific allele and genotype due to natural disaster is called:

A. Mutation B. Bottle neck effect C. Founder effect D. Speciation

48. Which part of the brain contains central chemoreceptors that monitor CO2 levels in blood?

A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Hypothalamus D. Medulla oblongata

49. Left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected with each other by:

A. Corpus luteum B. Corpus callosum C. A band of dendrites D. Dorsal and ventral nerve roots

50. According to Lock and Key model, the active site is regarded as:

A. Rigid and specific B. Flexible and specific C. Rigid and non specific D. Flexible and non specific

51. In which of the following combinations, both components have non-striated muscle fibers?

A. Intestine & biceps B. Intestine & blood vessels C. Heart & lungs D. Stomach & heart

52. A food sample contains long chains of amino acids bounded together. This indicates the presence of:

A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids

53. During diastole, the heart chambers:

A. Relax and fill with blood B. Contract strongly C. Eject blood into arteries D. Remain closed

54. Name the idea of Darwin that best explains the ability of populations to reproduce those individuals who possess beneficial traits.

A. Gene flow B. Genetic drift C. Artificial selection D. Natural selection

55. What type of genetic material do viruses contain?

A. Always DNA B. DNA or RNA C. Always RNA D. Both DNA and RNA

56. What type of virus is smallpox?

A. RNA virus B. DNA virus C. Retrovirus D. Viroid

57. What are the possible forms of viral genomes?

A. Linear or circular, ss or ds B. Only linear C. Only circular D. Only ds

58. Where is the electron transport chain located?

A. Inner mitochondrial membrane B. Outer mitochondrial membrane C. Cytoplasm D. Matrix

59. What is the net yield of glycolysis?

A. 4 ATP and 2 NADH B. 2 ATP and 2 NADH C. 2 ATP and 0 NADH D. 4 ATP and 4 NADH

60. In which organisms is chitin found?

A. Arthropods B. Plants C. Fungi D. Bacteria

61. What is the storage form of glucose in animals?

A. Starch B. Glycogen C. Cellulose D. Sucrose

62. What is the characteristic of unsaturated fats?

A. Have double bonds B. Have no double bonds C. Are solid at room temperature D. Are saturated

63. What is bioremediation?

A. Produce biofuels B. Clean up pollutants C. Make medicines D. Improve crops

64. What does DNA sequencing determine?

A. Order of amino acids B. Order of nucleotides C. Order of sugars D. Order of lipids

65. Which agency regulates biotechnology products?

A. FDA B. WHO C. UNESCO D. WTO

66. What is the function of white blood cells?

A. Carry oxygen B. Immune defense C. Clot blood D. Transport nutrients

67. What does the peripheral nervous system include?

A. Brain and spinal cord B. Nerves outside CNS C. Autonomic nerves D. Somatic nerves

68. What are the divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A. Somatic and autonomic B. Sympathetic and parasympathetic C. Central and peripheral D. Sensory and motor

69. What does a reflex arc consist of?

A. Sensory and motor neurons B. Receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector C. Brain and spinal cord D. Only motor neurons

70. What does the liver store?

A. Stores bile B. Stores glycogen, vitamins, minerals C. Produces insulin D. Digests fats

71. What type of macromolecule are most enzymes?

A. Lipids B. Proteins C. Carbohydrates D. Nucleic acids

72. What factors affect enzyme activity?

A. pH only B. Temperature only C. pH and temperature D. Pressure

73. How does substrate concentration affect reaction rate?

A. Increases indefinitely B. Increases until saturation C. Decreases D. No change

74. What are vestigial organs?

A. Functional organs B. Vestigial organs C. Organs with no function D. Organs with new function

75. What is thermoregulation?

A. Water balance B. Body temperature C. Blood glucose D. pH balance

76. Which organs are involved in osmoregulation?

A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Skin D. Lungs

77. What does the immune system include?

A. Cells only B. Cells, tissues, organs C. Tissues only D. Organs only

78. What can affect Mendelian ratios?

A. Gene interactions B. Environmental factors C. Mutations D. All of these

79. What is pollination?

A. Transfer of pollen B. Fertilization C. Seed formation D. Fruit development

80. What is spore formation?

A. Spore formation B. Budding C. Fragmentation D. Binary fission

81. What is another name for the Krebs cycle?

A. Citric acid cycle B. Glycolysis C. Electron transport chain D. Fermentation

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. 30 grams of 2-propanol were mixed with access acidified K2Cr2O7 and boiled under reflux for 20 min the organic product was than collected by distillation and 75% yield was obtained. What is the mass of product produced?

A. 1.74g B. 21.75g C. 2.74g D. 29g

83. When a crystalline substance conducts current in one direction but not through other directions of the crystal, this property is called:

A. Allotropy B. Isomorphism C. Anisotropy D. Polymorphism

84. The dumb bell like orbitals can move in how many directions?

A. 7 B. 5 C. 1 D. 3

85. Electron affinity decreases down the group due to:

A. increases in atomic radius B. Atomic radius decrease C. Shielding decreases D. None

86. If the work is done by the system on the surroundings and heat is absorbed by the system, the change in internal energy ΔE will be:

A. ΔE = q + w B. ΔE = q +(– w) C. ΔE = –q – w D. ΔE = –q + w

87. Consider the equilibrium: BiCl₃ + H₂O ⇌ BiOCl + 2HCl Addition of which chemical will turn the cloudy solution clear?

A. BiCl₃ B. H₂O C. BiOCl D. HCl

88. The oxidation number of oxygen in NaO₂ is:

A. -1 B. 2 C. -2 D. 1

89. In zero-order reaction, the rate is independent of:

A. Concentration of product B. Concentration of reactant C. Temperature of reaction D. Surface area of product

90. Which of the following is NOT an alloy?

A. Steel B. Brass C. Bronze D. Graphite

91. Which of the following alkali metals forms only normal oxide with O₂?

A. K B. Na C. Li D. Rb

92. Potassium ferrocyanide is which type of salt?

A. Complex B. Mixed C. Double D. Normal

93. Which oxidation state gives evidence of d-orbital?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. All give

94. Which type of isomerism do propanal and acetone exhibit?

A. Functional group B. Chain C. Position D. Metamerism

95. Benzene in the presence of AlCl₃ produces acetophenone when it reacts with:

A. Acetyl chloride B. Acetic acid C. Ethyl benzene D. Ethanoic acid

96. Hybridization of benzene is:

A. sp³ B. sp² C. sp D. Both sp² & sp are present in it

97. Grignard reagent is made by adding halogenoalkanes to:

A. Dry ether B. Alkane C. Carbon D. Alcohol

98. Which process is used to convert alcohol into ether?

A. Dehydration B. Oxidation C. Hydrolysis D. Hydrogenation

99. Catalytic reduction of aldehyde and ketone forms:

A. Alcohol B. Carboxylic acid C. Alkane D. Aldehyde

100. When Aldehyde reacts with 50% NaOH, this reaction is called as:

A. 2,4-DNPH reaction B. Aldol condensation reaction C. Clemmensen reaction D. Cannizzaro's reaction

101. Majority of reactions taking place at ordinary temperatures with negative delta H are :

A. Endothermic B. Exothermic C. Thermally unstable D. Reversible

102. The value of Planck's constant is:

A. 6.6262x10^{-30} J. sec B. 6.6262x10^{-32} J. sec C. 6.6262x10^{-34} J. sec D. 6.6262x10^{-34} J. sec

103. Which one shows anisotropic behavior?

A. Wood B. Gemstone C. Coke D. Graphite

104. The molecular mass of H₂SO₄ is:

A. 98 amu B. 98 g C. 49 amu D. 196 amu

105. The value of R in L·atm·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ is:

A. 8.314 L·atm·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ B. 0.0821 J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ C. 1.987 cal·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ D. 0.0821 L·atm·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹

106. Gay-Lussac's law of combining volumes states:

A. Simple whole-number ratios B. Equal volumes C. Inverse ratios D. Complex ratios

107. Heat of vaporization of water is approximately:

A. 10 kJ/mol B. 20 kJ/mol C. 30 kJ/mol D. 40.7 kJ/mol

108. The critical point of water is:

A. 374°C, 218 atm B. 100°C, 1 atm C. 0°C, 1 atm D. 0.01°C, 4.58 mmHg

109. The relation between ΔG° and equilibrium constant is:

A. ΔG° = RT ln K B. ΔG° = -RT ln K C. ΔG° = -RT ln K D. ΔG° = -RT log K

110. Entropy order among states of matter:

A. Solid > liquid > gas B. Gas > liquid > solid C. Liquid > gas > solid D. All equal

111. Increasing pressure in N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ shifts:

A. Right (towards NH₃) B. Left (towards N₂ and H₂) C. No shift D. Depends on temperature

112. A catalyst has what effect on equilibrium?

A. No effect on equilibrium position B. Shifts equilibrium to right C. Shifts equilibrium to left D. Increases Kc

113. Increasing temperature generally:

A. Decreases k B. Increases k C. No effect on k D. First decreases then increases

114. General valence configuration of alkaline earth metals is:

A. ns¹ B. ns² np¹ C. ns² np² D. ns²

115. CO₂ is a(n):

A. Basic oxide B. Amphoteric oxide C. Acidic oxide D. Neutral oxide

116. Transition elements show variable oxidation states because:

A. Only +1 and +2 B. Only +2 and +3 C. Only +3 and +4 D. Variable oxidation states

117. In ethyne, carbon is:

A. sp² hybridized B. sp hybridized C. sp³ hybridized D. sp³d hybridized

118. Stability order of carbocations:

A. Primary > secondary > tertiary B. Methyl > primary > secondary > tertiary C. Tertiary = primary D. Tertiary > secondary > primary > methyl

119. The -OH group in phenol is:

A. Ortho/para director and activator B. Meta director C. Deactivator D. Meta director and deactivator

120. Uses of phenol:

A. Disinfectant only B. Plastic production only C. Both disinfectant and plastics D. Both disinfectant and plastics

121. The simplest dicarboxylic acid is:

A. Malonic acid B. Oxalic acid C. Succinic acid D. Glutaric acid

122. Nucleic acids are polymers of:

A. Amino acids B. Nucleotides C. Monosaccharides D. Fatty acids

123. DNA contains:

A. Ribose in DNA, deoxyribose in RNA B. Deoxyribose in DNA, ribose in RNA C. Both contain ribose D. Both contain deoxyribose

124. Copper extraction involves:

A. Reduction with coke only B. Smelting and electrolytic refining C. Leaching only D. Electrolysis of aqueous solution

125. General formula of ketones is:

A. R-CHO B. R-COOH C. R-CO-R' D. R-OH

126. Tollens' test is positive for:

A. Ketones give silver mirror B. Aldehydes give silver mirror C. Both give silver mirror D. Aldehydes give silver mirror

English 9 MCQs

127. Spot the error: Lucy is the diva which performance as an opera singer is peerless.

A. Lucy is the diva which performance as an opera singer is peerless B. No error C. No error D. No error

128. Select the synonym for: Feckless

A. Useless B. Dauntless C. Careless D. Fearless

129. Each of the three boys ______ to ride.

A. Loves B. Love C. Are Loving D. Have loved

130. The passage says: "The legend of the lost treasure has been passed down for generations. While it adds charm to the local culture, historians warn that local tales often embellish the truth, making it difficult to separate fact from fiction." If a student is researching the history of the area, this legend is:

A. It is completely historically accurate. B. It is a scientific fact. C. It is an unreliable source for historical accuracy. D. It is a modern invention.

131. What is the meaning of "perplexed" in: "The detectives were completely perplexed by the sudden disappearance of the priceless artifact."

A. Excited B. Confused C. Angry D. Sleepy

132. Identify the tone: "The success of the project was not the work of one person, but the collective effort of a dedicated team. Each member contributed their unique skills, and the final result is a testament to their hard work and perseverance."

A. Critical B. Sarcastic C. Indifferent D. Appreciative

133. What does "fleeting" mean in: "The feeling of joy was fleeting, gone almost as soon as it appeared."

A. Permanent B. Long-lasting C. Short-lived D. Intense

134. Which sentence correctly uses "irrespective of"?

A. Irrespective of it was raining, we went outside. B. Irrespective of the rain, we went outside. C. Irrespective of the rain, we went outside. D. Irrespective of the rain, we went outside.

135. Choose the correct word: "I bought some ____ for the office."

A. I bought some stationary for the office. B. I bought some stationary for the office. C. I bought some stationery for the office. D. I bought some stationery for the office.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What does a power outage directly result in?

A. Complete darkness B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

137. What does power failure lead to?

A. Use of candles B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

138. What should be the first course of action for deforestation in a reserve?

A. Ban vehicles B. Build concrete roads C. Plant more trees D. Increase fossil fuel use

139. What is the primary intervention for disease outbreaks?

A. Launch vaccination drive B. Quarantine all citizens C. Close borders D. Distribute masks

140. What is the answer to deforestation?

A. Ban vehicles B. Plant more trees C. Build concrete roads D. Increase fossil fuel use

141. What is the role of the policy?

A. Policy is the only cause B. Policy is one of many C. Policy is irrelevant D. No policy effect

142. What type of evidence is "everyone believes"?

A. Anecdotal evidence B. Systematic data C. Scientific evidence D. Statistical

143. What comes next: Z, Y, W, V, T, ?

A. S B. R C. T D. U

144. What comes next: A, C, Z, B, Y, ?

A. A B. Z C. B D. A

Physics 36 MCQs

145. Terminal voltage "V" of the battery is greater than emf of the battery when:

A. Battery is charging B. Battery is discharging C. Battery is connected with R D. Battery is connected with voltmeter

146. The velocity of an object moving in a circle is:

A. Constant B. Variable C. Zero D. Negative

147. A particle moves in a circle of radius 200cm with a linear speed of 20m/s. Find the angular velocity:

A. 2 rad s⁻¹ B. 200 rad s⁻¹ C. 20 rad s⁻¹ D. 10 rad s⁻¹

148. Effective distance for echo is:

A. 10m B. 20m C. 15m D. 17m

149. Galaxy light shifts toward red end. The galaxy is:

A. Approaching Earth B. Receding from Earth C. Stationary D. Approaching or stationary

150. Temperature of given mass of a gas is changed from 150°C to 300°C during an isobaric process, volume of the gas will become:

A. Half B. Double C. Remain same D. Less than double

151. First law of thermodynamics is mathematically represented as:

A. ΔQ – ΔW = ΔU B. ΔW = ΔQ + ΔU C. ΔW = ΔQ - ΔU D. ΔQ = ΔW - ΔU

152. A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy stored is U. After disconnecting battery another capacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel to the first capacitor. Then energy stored in each capacitor is:

A. U/2 B. U/4 C. 4U D. 2U

153. Two capacitors 6μF and 12μF are in series connected across a 200 volts D.C supply. Calculate the charges on each capacitor, respectively.

A. 8 x 10⁻⁴C, 8 x 10⁻⁴C B. 8μC, 8Μc C. 8 x 10⁻⁶C, 16 x 10⁻⁶C D. 800C, 800C

154. A 2μF capacitor is connected to 10V dc supply. If Q represents the charge on each plate and E the energy stored on each plate, which of the following represents the values of Q and E?

A. Q = 20μC & E = 50μeV B. 10μC & E = 100Ev C. Q = 10μC & E = 500eV D. Q = 20μC & E = 100μJ

155. Which of the following statement is true about the magnetic field inside a solenoid?

A. It is along the axis of the coil B. It is strongest at the ends of solenoid C. It is circular around the wires D. It is zero when current flows through it

156. When a charged particle enters in a magnetic field it will:

A. deflect towards north B. deflect towards south C. move straight D. move in circular path

157. Low voltage levels in an electrical circuit is called:

A. Voltage regulator B. Capacitor C. Capacitor D. Transformer

158. The half-life of Strontium (Sr) is 8.7 hours. Its decay constant is:

A. 0.000022 B. 45000/s C. 0.000022/s D. 0.000032

159. Number of quarks in hydrogen atom are:

A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7

160. A phase difference of 90° is equal to:

A. n radians B. n / 2 radians C. 2n radians D. n / 4 radians

161. The number of possible spectral lines when an electron jumps from n=4 to ground state is:

A. 6 B. 3 C. 4 D. 10

162. The equivalent resistance of two resistors R1 and R2 in series is:

A. R1 + R2 B. R1 R2 / (R1+R2) C. 1/R1 + 1/R2 D. R1 - R2

163. The color code of a carbon resistor with bands red, red, orange, gold has resistance:

A. 22 × 10³ Ω ± 5% B. 22 × 10² Ω ± 5% C. 22 × 10⁴ Ω ± 5% D. 22 Ω ± 5%

164. The first postulate of special relativity states that the laws of physics are the same in all:

A. Inertial reference frames B. Non-inertial frames C. Accelerated frames D. Gravitational frames

165. Lenz's law is a consequence of the conservation of:

A. Energy B. Charge C. Momentum D. Angular momentum

166. A proton moves in a circular path perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic field is doubled, the radius of the path becomes:

A. Half B. Double C. Four times D. Same

167. Electric potential is defined as the:

A. Work done per unit charge B. Force per unit charge C. Charge per unit volume D. Energy per unit area

168. The pressure exerted by a fluid at rest is called:

A. Hydrostatic pressure B. Dynamic pressure C. Total pressure D. Gauge pressure

169. The equation for the volume flow rate is:

A. Q = A v B. Q = A / v C. Q = v / A D. Q = A v²

170. The SI unit of viscosity is:

A. Pa·s B. N/m² C. kg/m·s D. Both A and C

171. A ball thrown vertically upward reaches its maximum height. At that instant, its acceleration is:

A. g (downward) B. Zero C. Maximum upward D. g upward

172. Nuclear fusion is the joining of two light nuclei to form a heavier nucleus, releasing energy. Fusion occurs in:

A. Stars (sun) B. Nuclear reactors C. Nuclear bombs D. Particle accelerators

173. The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute zero is:

A. Zero B. Maximum C. Infinite D. Positive

174. The specific heat capacity of water is approximately:

A. 4200 J/kg·K B. 420 J/kg·K C. 4.2 J/kg·K D. 42000 J/kg·K

175. A body is in stable equilibrium if its center of gravity is:

A. Low and any displacement raises it B. High C. At the edge D. Outside the base

176. The negative of a vector has the same magnitude but opposite:

A. Direction B. Magnitude C. Unit D. Component

177. A ladder leaning against a wall is in equilibrium. The forces acting are its weight, normal from wall, normal from ground, and friction from ground. The torque condition ensures:

A. No rotation B. No translation C. No acceleration D. Both A and C

178. The pitch of a sound depends on its:

A. Frequency B. Amplitude C. Wavelength D. Speed

179. When a pendulum swings, at the lowest point its kinetic energy is maximum and potential energy is:

A. Minimum B. Maximum C. Zero D. Same

180. A person does 100 J of work in lifting a 5 kg box to a shelf. The height of the shelf is (g=10):

A. 2 m B. 5 m C. 10 m D. 0.5 m

Country Wise Scholarships

Entry Tests Preparation

Follow Us

Aggregate Calculator