MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 23 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 23 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. The function of nucleolus is to make:

A. rRNA B. Ribosome C. RNA D. Chromosome

2. In mitochondria small knob like structures called F1 particles are found in:

A. Outer membrane B. Outer compartment C. Inner membrane D. Inner compartment

3. The structure which disappears during cell division is:

A. Vacuoles B. Lysosomes C. Nucleus D. Endoplasmic reticulum

4. Water is the most abundant compound in living organism its amount varies from:

A. 30 to 60% B. 50 to 60% C. 10-20% D. 70-90%

5. Fatty acids are the organic compounds containing hydrogen, oxygen and one of the following:

A. –COOH B. 0 C. Acyl D. Sucrose

6. Which lipid is totally hydrophobic or insoluble:

A. Triglycerides B. Phospholipids C. Waxes D. Terpenoids

7. Lysozyme represents which structural level of proteins?

A. Primary structure B. Secondary structure C. Tertiary Structure D. Quaternary Structure

8. The catalytic activity of an enzyme is restricted to its small portion

A. Active site B. Passive site C. Regulation site D. Allosteric site

9. Which of the following is an example of hydrolase.

A. Transmethylase B. Oxygenases C. Peroxidase D. Phosphatase

10. Lactase converts lactose into:

A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Galactose D. Glucose and galactose

11. How many tail fibrils are attached to the end plate of a bacteriophage?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

12. The word hepatitis means inflammation of the:

A. Pancreas B. Liver C. Spleen D. Gall bladder

13. Damage to ------- cause death of bacteria:

A. Cell wall B. Cell membrane C. slime D. capsule

14. The smallest known bacteria belong to the genus:

A. Mycoplasma B. Escherichia C. Streptococcus D. Bacillus

15. Cell wall structure of a cell of unknown origin is studied and was found to contain polysaccharide chain linked with short chains of amino acids. What do you think it can be:

A. Bacteria B. Fungi cell C. Algae D. Cortex cells

16. Helicobacter pylori is an example of:

A. Cocci B. Pleomorphic C. Bacilli D. Spiral

17. The nervous system develops from which of the following layer during embryonic development:

A. Mesoderm B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm and endoderm

18. Which of the following describes the production of asexual form from a sexual form and vice versa?

A. Colony B. Alteration of generation C. Parasitism D. Polymorphism

19. Cephalothorax is present in:

A. Class crustacean B. Class insecta C. Class gastropoda D. class myriapoda

20. Water vascular system or ambulacral system is a unique and complex system specially present in?

A. Sponges B. Arthropods C. Echinoderms D. Fishes

21. The range of visible light is from:

A. 300-650nm B. 350-700nm C. 380-750nm D. 430-790nm

22. Some electron from the second primary acceptor may pass back to chlorophyll molecules by electron carrier system, yielding ATP. This process is called:

A. Phosphorylation B. Non-cyclic phosphorylation C. Photophosphorylation D. Cyclic phosphorylation

23. Which of the following is a copper-containing protein in the electron transport chain?

A. Plastoquinone B. Cytochrome-c C. Plastocyanin D. Ferredoxin

24. Which step of photosynthesis uses molecular oxygen?

A. Dark reactions B. light reactions C. Krebs cycle D. oxidative phosphorylation

25. Which mechanism would be compromised in the absence of cytochrome complex during light reactions of photosynthesis?

A. Reduction of reaction center chlorophyll B. Photolysis of water C. Oxidation of primary electron receptor D. Establishment of proton gradient across thylakoid membrane

26. If oxygen is available, the complete breakdown of glucose produces——— ATP molecules in prokaryotes:

A. 201 B. 36 C. 38 D. 40

27. Bolus enters the esophagus not the trachea due to presence of:

A. Roof palate B. Mouth C. Epiglottis D. Buccal cavity

28. Which one is not a function of large intestine?

A. absorption of electrolytes B. production of vitamins C. absorption of water D. absorption of amino acids

29. During inspiration the space inside the chest cavity is increased due to :

A. Increased pressure B. The relaxation of muscles of diaphragm C. Relaxation of external intercostal muscles D. Contraction of muscles of diaphragm

30. The percentage of carbon dioxide carried as carboxyhaemoglobin is:

A. 70% B. 23% C. 15% D. 7%

31. In a normal person plasma constitutes about------- by volume of blood:

A. 50% B. 45% C. 60% D. 55%

32. In humans, the closed sac which surrounds the heart is:

A. Endocardium B. Pericardium C. Myocardium D. Epicardium

33. Choose the one which is an example of artificial active immunity:

A. Fetus receiving antibodies of mother through placenta B. Mother receiving antibodies C. Baby receiving MMR shots D.

34. During Covid-19 epidemic the plasma of recovered patients was injected in covid patients. This proved quite effective. Which component of plasma do you think was responsible for this:

A. Plasminogen B. Interferons C. Antibodies D. Interleukin-1

35. Longest bone in the human skeleton is:

A. Ulna B. Fibula C. Tibia D. Femur

36. Which event does not occur during muscle contraction:

A. I-band shortens B. A-band shortens C. H-zone disappear D. Z-lines move closer

37. The pressure receptors that receive deep pressure stimulus in humans body are called ;

A. Meissners corpuscles B. Paccinian corpuscles C. Red blood corpuscles D. White blood corpuscles

38. The type of neuron that carries nerve impulse from tissue and organ to the spinal cord and brain is:

A. Sensory neuron B. Motor neuron C. Intermediate neuron D. Associative

39. There is also evidence that mg levels of ........ may contribute the onset of Alzheimer's disease:

A. Mg B. Mo C. Al D. Ca

40. What is effect of STH on human body?

A. increase thyroxine secretion B. increase heart rate C. increase growth rate D. increase adrenal gland secretion

41. Negative feedback mechanism is the characteristic of which class?

A. Class Fish B. Class Amphibia C. Class Reptilia D. Class Mammalia

42. Main function of the epididymis is to:

A. Transport sperms B. Produce semen C. Connect Urethra D. Hold the process of spermatogenesis

43. The cell in our body are all genetically identical , apart from the

A. Somatic Cell B. Reproductive Cell C. Muscle cells D. White blood Cells

44. Female reproductive system consists of all the following EXCEPT

A. Ovaries B. Oviduct C. Cervix D. Seminiferous tubules

45. Which of the following hormones of pituitary gland regulate the menstrual cycle?

A. FSH & estrogen B. Luteinizing hormone & estrogen C. FSH & luteinizing Hormone D. Estrogen & Progesterone

46. Cervix is the part of:

A. Vagina B. Oviduct C. Uterus D. Ovary

47. The incubation period of syphilis is:

A. 1-2 weeks B. 2-3 weeks C. 3-4 weeks D. 07 days

48. The particular array of chromosomes that an individual possesses is called its:

A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. karyotype D. allele

49. Law of independent assortment states:

A. That each pair of alleles assort independently of other pairs of alleles during gamete formation B. that alleles of each pair of contrasting trait have unequal probability to assort with the alleles of other pair C. That the two coexisting alleles for each trait segregate from each other at meiosis and D. None of these

50. A general formula is derived by one of the following scientist for calculating the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in population at equilibrium:

A. Linnaeus B. Darwin C. Lamarck D. Hardy weinberg

51. Structures found in different species which are believed to have a common evolutionary origin are called:

A. Homologous B. Analogous C. Vestigial D. fossilized

52. The embryological stages of ------- show similarity in anatomical features.

A. All living things B. All vertebrates C. All non-vertebrates D. Human, jelly fish and mouse

53. Hypothesis that the organisms evolved through the inheritance of acquired characters is given by:

A. Lamarck B. Darwin C. Hutton D. Malthus

54. Chance of a Cross over between two loci is directly proportional to their

A. thickness B. width C. length D. distance

55. Which of the following increases variation within a gene pool

A. Chromosome inversion B. Gene mutation C. Crossing over D. Random fusion of gametes

56. Which part of the neuron typically receives incoming signals from other neurons?

A. Axon B. Dendrites C. Myelin sheath D. Synaptic knob

57. Mendel crossed a plant with round yellow seeds (RRYY) and a plant with wrinkled green seed (rryy), what was the phenotype of all F1 offspring?

A. All round green B. All round yellow C. All wrinkled yellow D. All wrinkled green

58. Which of the following statements best compares cell division in prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells?

A. Eukaryotes divide by budding ; prokaryotes by mitosis B. Eukaryotes use binary fission ; prokaryotes by meiosis C. Eukaryotes divide by mitosis ; prokaryotes by binary fission D. Both use mitosis by cell division

59. Automatic and rapid actions that do not involve the conscious part of brain is:

A. Reflex actions B. Conditioned reflexes C. Taxes D. Synapses

60. The appendix is attached to which part of large intestine?

A. Rectum B. Caecum C. Colon D. Ileum

61. What is the net yield of glycolysis?

A. 4 ATP and 2 NADH B. 2 ATP and 2 NADH C. 2 ATP and 0 NADH D. 4 ATP and 4 NADH

62. Which plants have adaptations to minimize photorespiration?

A. C₃ plants B. C₄ and CAM plants C. All plants D. Aquatic plants

63. What do enzymes do to activation energy?

A. Lower activation energy B. Increase activation energy C. Do not affect activation energy D. Change the reaction equilibrium

64. What are transgenic organisms?

A. Contain genes from other species B. Are cloned organisms C. Are genetically identical D. Are mutants

65. What are the methods of gene delivery?

A. Transformation, transduction, transfection B. Only transformation C. Only transfection D. Only transduction

66. What are blunt ends?

A. Straight cut B. Staggered cut C. Single‑stranded cut D. No cut

67. What is the smooth ER involved in?

A. Lipid synthesis B. Protein synthesis C. Detoxification D. Both lipid synthesis and detoxification

68. What is adrenaline involved in?

A. Fight‑or‑flight B. Growth C. Metabolism D. Blood sugar

69. What is cortisol?

A. Growth B. Stress C. Metabolism D. Blood sugar

70. What are the sphincters of the stomach?

A. Cardiac and pyloric B. Cardiac and ileocecal C. Pyloric and anal D. Esophageal and cardiac

71. What does the liver produce continuously?

A. Bile continuously B. Insulin C. Pancreatic juice D. Saliva

72. What hormone triggers gallbladder contraction?

A. Gastrin B. Cholecystokinin (CCK) C. Secretin D. Insulin

73. Why are enzymes specific?

A. Due to pH B. Due to temperature C. Due to active site shape D. Due to cofactors

74. What happens when enzymes denature?

A. Loss of function B. Gain of function C. No change D. Increased activity

75. What else do kidneys regulate?

A. Blood pressure B. Blood glucose C. Blood pH D. Blood volume

76. What is immunity?

A. Resist infection B. Cause infection C. Spread infection D. Cure infection

77. What are allergies?

A. Allergies B. Autoimmune diseases C. Immunodeficiency D. Infections

78. What is humoral immunity?

A. B cells and antibodies B. T cells and cytokines C. Phagocytes and inflammation D. Natural killer cells

79. What is passive immunity?

A. Receiving antibodies B. Producing own antibodies C. Vaccination D. Infection

80. What is natural active immunity?

A. After vaccination B. After natural infection C. After receiving antibodies D. After maternal antibodies

81. What can affect Mendelian ratios?

A. Gene interactions B. Environmental factors C. Mutations D. All of these

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. The formula showing the simplest whole-number ratio of atoms in a compound is:

A. Ionic formula B. Structural formula C. Empirical formula D. Molecular formula

83. The number of moles of CO₂ which contains 8.00g of oxygen is:

A. 0.25 B. 7.5 C. 0.5 D. 7

84. The number of molecules in 22.4dm³ of H₂ gas at 0° and 1atm are:

A. 60.2x10²³ B. 6.02x10²³ C. 60.2x10²⁵ D. 6.02x10²²

85. One mole of an ideal gas at STP has volume in dm³:

A. 22.414 B. 22412 C. 224.4 D. 2244.1

86. The SI unit for pressure is:

A. mm of Hg B. bar C. Pascal D. Torr

87. Whenever crystalline solids are broken they do so along definite planes known as:

A. Cleavage planes B. Refractory Planes C. Sagittal planes D. Coronal Planes

88. Which of the following contain sp² hybridization?

A. Methane B. Ethane C. Ethyne D. Ethene

89. Lattice energy of an ionic crystal is the enthalpy of:

A. Combustion B. Dissociation C. Dissolution D. Formation

90. Activated complex consists of:

A. Maximum energy B. Minimum energy C. Is a stable state D. Large half-life

91. Trend in ionization energy of Group I elements in increasing order will be:

A. Na < Al < Mg < Si B. Mg < Na < Al < Si C. Al < Mg < Na < Si D. Al < Si < Na < Mg

92. Which oxidation state gives evidence of d-orbital?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. All give

93. The first organic compound manufactured from inorganic compound was:

A. Ethyl acetate B. Urea C. Acetic acid D. Methane

94. Pyridine belongs to which class of organic compounds?

A. Alicyclic B. Homocyclic C. Heterocyclic D. Hydrocarbon

95. Bakelite is formed upon polymerization of:

A. Phenol and formaldehyde B. Ethanol and formaldehyde C. Methanol and formaldehyde D. Phenol and acetaldehyde

96. Which of the following organic acid does not belong to COOH group?

A. Alkanoic acid B. Butyric acid C. Picric acid D. Alkanoic acid

97. Which one of the following compounds act as catalyst when alcohols react with carboxylic acids?

A. Pt B. Conc. HNO₃ C. Ni D. Conc. H₂SO₄

98. The correct reactivity order for carboxylic acid derivatives is:

A. Anhydride > Acyl chloride > Ester B. Acyl chloride > Anhydride > Amide C. Amide > Acyl chloride > Ester D. Acyl chloride > Anhydride > Ester

99. Which of the following best explains why phenol reacts with aqueous NaOH, but alcohols do not?

A. Phenol has a lower boiling point than alcohol. B. Alcohols contain a strong O-H bond that cannot be broken by weak bases. C. Phenol form hydrogen bonding that facilitates ionization. D. Phenol is weakly acidic due to resonance stabilization of phenoxide ion.

100. Which one of the following has higher vapour pressure?

A. acetone B. acetaldehyde C. Isopentane D. Benzene

101. The mass of one mole of electrons is:

A. 1.008 mg B. 0.55 mg C. 9.1 x 10⁻²⁸ g D. 1.67 x 10⁻²⁴ g

102. The mass of 1 mole of carbon atoms is:

A. 12 g B. 12 amu C. 6.02 x 10²³ g D. Both A and B

103. The volume of 0.5 mole of CO₂ at STP is:

A. 11.2 dm³ B. 22.4 dm³ C. 5.6 dm³ D. 44.8 dm³

104. The number of moles in 22 g of CO₂ is:

A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 1.5 D. 2

105. The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is proportional to:

A. Pressure B. Volume C. Temperature D. Number of moles

106. Boiling of a liquid occurs when:

A. At critical temperature B. At triple point C. When vapor pressure = 1 atm D. When vapor pressure = external pressure

107. Evaporation is a:

A. Surface phenomenon B. Bulk phenomenon C. Occurs only at boiling point D. Occurs only at surface

108. Which structure has 74% packing efficiency?

A. FCC/CCP B. BCC C. SC D. HCP

109. Formula for density of a unit cell is:

A. d = Z × M × a³ / N_A B. d = Z × M / (N_A × a³) C. d = N_A × a³ / (Z × M) D. d = Z × a³ / (M × N_A)

110. F-centers in crystals are:

A. Cation vacancy B. Interstitial cation C. Anion vacancy D. Anion vacancy with trapped electron

111. The relation between ΔG° and equilibrium constant is:

A. ΔG° = RT ln K B. ΔG° = -RT ln K C. ΔG° = -RT ln K D. ΔG° = -RT log K

112. Increasing T favors the:

A. Exothermic direction B. No effect C. Endothermic direction D. Depends on pressure

113. Flame color of sodium is:

A. Red B. Blue C. Green D. Golden-yellow

114. The acid present in gastric juice is:

A. Nitric acid B. Sulfuric acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Phosphoric acid

115. Al₂O₃ is:

A. Basic B. Amphoteric C. Acidic D. Neutral

116. Stainless steel contains:

A. Fe, Cr, Ni B. Fe, C, Mn C. Cu, Zn, Sn D. Al, Mg, Si

117. [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is:

A. Paramagnetic B. Diamagnetic C. Ferromagnetic D. Diamagnetic

118. [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺ is:

A. Diamagnetic B. Ferromagnetic C. Paramagnetic D. Diamagnetic

119. Chlorination of benzene gives:

A. Chlorobenzene B. Benzyl chloride C. Toluene D. Nitrobenzene

120. An electrophile:

A. Donates electron pair B. Is negatively charged C. Is a base D. Accepts electron pair

121. Rate law for Sₙ1 is:

A. Rate = k [RX][Nu⁻] B. Rate = k [RX] C. Rate = k [Nu⁻] D. Rate = k [RX]²

122. Alcohol in beverages is:

A. Ethanol B. Methanol C. Propanol D. Phenol

123. Small alcohols are:

A. Miscible with water B. Insoluble in water C. Partially soluble D. No solubility

124. Phenol solubility in water:

A. Highly soluble in water B. Sparingly soluble in water C. Insoluble in all solvents D. Soluble only in water

125. Carboxylic acid + NaOH gives:

A. Form carboxylate salts and water/CO₂ B. Form esters C. Form alcohols D. No reaction

126. Carbonyl + alcohol gives:

A. Hemiacetals and acetals B. Esters C. Carboxylic acids D. Alkenes

English 9 MCQs

127. Choose the correct sentence:

A. Shelley is consider to be an idealist poet B. Shelley is considering to be an idealist poet C. Shelley is considers to be an idealist poet D. Shelley is considered to be an idealist poet

128. Select the synonym for: Reconnoiter

A. Patrol B. Exhort C. Arcane D. Falter

129. The word 'RELUCTANT' means:

A. Hesitant B. Current C. Remarkable D. Rude

130. He ____ to the incident without mentioning details.

A. Allude B. Elude C. Allude D. Elude

131. ____ bag is this?

A. Who's B. Who's C. Whose D. Whos

132. The author states: "Many people believe that artists and musicians are born with a mysterious gift. Yet, the evidence suggests otherwise. The hours spent in practice, the countless failed attempts, and the relentless pursuit of improvement are what lead to mastery. It is practice, not just a spark of brilliance, that makes the genius." Which of the following best sums up this argument?

A. Success is only a result of raw talent. B. Hard work is a mysterious gift. C. Natural talent is more important than practice. D. Success is the result of consistent practice rather than just natural talent.

133. The passage says: "Many people dismiss dreams as random firings of the brain during sleep. However, researchers have found that dreams are not just random images; they are a window into our subconscious and play a meaningful role in processing our emotions and experiences. They help us make sense of the world." What is the author's main purpose?

A. To prove that dreams are completely random and meaningless. B. To argue that dreams are a waste of time. C. To explain that dreams are meaningful and serve a psychological purpose. D. To describe how to induce lucid dreams.

134. Choose the correct transition word: "The weather was bad; ____, we enjoyed the trip."

A. The weather was bad; therefore, we enjoyed the trip. B. The weather was bad; however, we enjoyed the trip. C. The weather was bad; moreover, we enjoyed the trip. D. The weather was bad; consequently, we enjoyed the trip.

135. Which of the following is a strong thesis statement?

A. Social media has both positive and negative effects on society. B. I am writing about social media. C. Social media is very popular these days. D. This essay will discuss social media and its effects.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What immediate effect does heavy rain have?

A. Widespread flooding B. Minor water logging C. No significant change D. Complete reversal

137. What is the effect of an earthquake?

A. Structural damage B. Surface cracks C. Minor tremors D. Aftershocks

138. What do subsidies lead to?

A. More affordable products B. Recession C. Stagnation D. Hyperinflation

139. What does correlation prove?

A. Proves causality B. Does not prove causality C. No relation D. Irrelevant

140. What is the basis of "everyone believes it"?

A. Emotional appeal B. Logical reasoning C. Evidence based D. Neutral

141. What comes next: A, D, I, P, Y, ?

A. J B. J C. K D. I

142. What comes next: A, B, D, G, K, P, ?

A. V B. U C. W D. V

143. What comes next: Z, Y, W, S, K, U, ?

A. O B. N C. P D. O

144. Which pairs are contradictories?

A. A and I B. E and O C. A and O, E and I D. A and E

Physics 36 MCQs

145. A DC power supply is connected in series to resistor R = 30Ω and capacitor C = 1F. If emf is 9V, then max charge Q₀ and time to attain Q₀:

A. Q₀ = 1C, t = 3s B. Q₀ = 3C, t = 3s C. Q₀ = 9C, t = 15s D. Q₀ = 9C, t = 3s

146. The magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the applied voltage as long as temperature is constant. It is statement of:

A. Joule's law B. Gauss's law C. Ohm's law D. Ampere's law

147. According to Newton's Law of Motion, the mass of an object is a quantitative measure of its:

A. Weight B. Inertia C. Speed D. Acceleration

148. The rate of doing work is zero, when the angle θ between force and velocity is:

A. θ = 60° B. θ = 0° C. θ = 180° D. θ = 45°

149. A stone of mass 2kg is dropped from rest 5m above ground. What is its velocity at height of 3m?

A. 12.5 m/s B. 6.3 m/s C. 9.3 m/s D. 16 m/s

150. The angular form of centripetal force is:

A. Fc = mw² B. Fc = mrw C. Fc = mrw² D. Fc = mr²w

151. When a wave goes from one medium to another, there is no change in the:

A. Frequency B. Wavelength C. Amplitude D. Velocity

152. In which of the following, the change in internal energy is more?

A. In the system A B. In the system B C. cannot be predicted D. changes in both is zero (Both are cyclic)

153. Electric field intensity is:

A. force per unit mass B. Force per unit tesla C. Force per unit charge D. force/watt

154. Which of the following statement is true about the magnetic field inside a solenoid?

A. It is along the axis of the coil B. It is strongest at the ends of solenoid C. It is circular around the wires D. It is zero when current flows through it

155. The relation between the decay constant λ and the half-life T₁/₂ is:

A. T₁/₂ = 0.693/λ B. λ = T₁/₂ / 0.693 C. T₁/₂ = λ / 0.693 D. λ = T₁/₂ × 0.693

156. It has been observed that Thorium ⁹⁰Th²³⁴ is transformed into protactinium Pa²³⁴ after the emission of –particle:

A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Alpha, Beta, Gamma

157. Skin burn, loss of hair, drop in white blood cell and induction of cancer are examples of:

A. Zener effect B. Genetic effect C. Somatic effect D. Biological effect

158. While using radiation therapy, cancerous thyroid is treated with:

A. Carbon B. ²³⁵Uranium C. Thorium D. Iodine-131

159. The least possible wavelength is associated with:

A. Lyman series B. Paschen series C. Balmer series D. Brackett series

160. A displacement time graph is a straight line inclined up at angle of 45° with X-axis, velocity of body according to this graph is:

A. Increasing B. Decreasing C. Constant D. Decreasing at start and then may decrease

161. A ball of mass m strikes a wall and rebounds with the same speed in the opposite direction, taking the initial direction as positive, the change in the momentum of the ball is:

A. 0 B. mv C. -2mv D. -mv

162. An inductor allows DC but opposes AC because:

A. Its reactance is zero for DC and increases with frequency B. Its reactance is infinite for DC C. It has resistance D. It stores energy

163. The efficiency of an ideal transformer is:

A. 100% B. 0% C. 50% D. Depends on load

164. The wave nature of electrons was experimentally confirmed by:

A. Davisson and Germer B. Compton C. Einstein D. Planck

165. Lenz's law states that the direction of induced current is such that it opposes:

A. The change that produces it B. The magnetic field C. The motion of the magnet D. The current itself

166. Conservation of angular momentum applies when:

A. No external torque acts B. No external force acts C. Net force is zero D. Moment of inertia is constant

167. The process of combining two light nuclei to form a heavier nucleus is called:

A. Nuclear fusion B. Nuclear fission C. Alpha decay D. Beta decay

168. The angular acceleration of a rigid body is proportional to the net torque and inversely proportional to:

A. Moment of inertia B. Mass C. Radius D. Angular velocity

169. The parallel-axis theorem relates the moment of inertia about any axis to that about a parallel axis through the center of mass: I = I_cm + M d², where d is:

A. Distance between axes B. Radius C. Length D. Height

170. The angular speed of the minute hand of a clock is:

A. 2π/3600 rad/s B. 2π/60 rad/s C. π/1800 rad/s D. π/3600 rad/s

171. A cyclist turns a corner. The centripetal force is provided by:

A. Friction between tires and road B. Gravity C. Normal force D. Air resistance

172. The efficiency of a real heat engine is always:

A. Less than Carnot efficiency B. Greater than Carnot efficiency C. Equal to Carnot efficiency D. Zero

173. If the line of action of a force passes through the pivot, the torque is:

A. Zero B. Maximum C. Half D. Double

174. Light waves are examples of:

A. Transverse waves B. Longitudinal waves C. Mechanical waves D. Sound waves

175. The fundamental frequency of a pipe closed at one end is given by:

A. f = v / (4L) B. f = v / (2L) C. f = 2v / L D. f = v / L

176. The energy carried by a wave is proportional to the square of the:

A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Wavelength D. Speed

177. The Doppler formula for sound when observer is stationary and source moves towards the observer is:

A. f' = f v/(v - v_s) B. f' = f v/(v + v_s) C. f' = f (v + v_o)/v D. f' = f (v - v_o)/v

178. The energy possessed by a body due to its position or configuration is called:

A. Potential energy B. Kinetic energy C. Internal energy D. Mechanical energy

179. The work done by friction on a sliding object is:

A. Negative B. Positive C. Zero D. Depends

180. A spring of spring constant 100 N/m is stretched by 0.05 m. The work done by the external agent is:

A. 0.125 J B. 5 J C. 0.25 J D. 2.5 J

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