MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 24 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 24 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Plasma membrane is differentially permeable membrane due to the presence of:

A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Lipids D. Vitamins

2. In a typical compound microscope the resolution is 2um, which is about that of naked eye:

A. 200X B. 300X C. 400X D. 500X

3. Which has a role in conduction of nerve impulse?

A. SER B. RER C. Vacuole D. Lysosome

4. Proteins and lipids are modified into Glycoproteins and Glycolipids by which cell organelle?

A. Golgi complex B. SER C. RER D. Ribosomes & chromosomes

5. In mitochondria ATP synthase is located on its:

A. Outer membrane B. inner membrane space C. inner membrane D. Matrix

6. Which property of water enables it to act as temperature stabilizer in living organisms?

A. High polarity B. being non polar C. high specific heat capacity D. high heat of vaporization

7. All are properties of water. EXCLUDING:

A. Universal solvent B. Polar nature C. Hydrogen bonding D. becomes denser as it freezes

8. Which of the following molecule will yield glucose and fructose on hydrolysis?

A. starch B. maltose C. sucrose D. lactose

9. Secondary structure of protein is found in:

A. Trypsin B. Keratin C. Insulin D. Glucagon

10. Sickle cell anemia is due to defect in ....... chain of haemoglobin.

A. Alpha chain B. Beta chain C. Gamma chain D. Both alpha and Beta

11. Coenzyme requires:

A. Vitamins B. Proteins C. Fats D. Carbohydrates

12. Most enzymes have an optimum temperature of around

A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 20

13. The term feedback refers to:

A. Enzymes remain unaffected B. Product accelerates the production of enzymes C. Enzyme is inhibited by product D. both b & c are correct

14. Ions of heavy metal are harmful for living organisms because of their ability to:

A. Ceave Nucleic acid B. Interfere with fat metabolism C. Break glycosidic Bond D. Destabilize proteins

15. Function of reverse transcriptase in HIV is:

A. Replication of viral DNA B. Replication of viral RNA C. Formation of double stranded viral DNA D. Formation of viral RNA from DNA

16. Binary fission is a characteristic cell division not found in :

A. Pseudomonas B. Campylobacter C. Euglena D. E.coli

17. Probiotics in infants formula milk are the normal bacterial flora to humans. They keep the babies healthy by doing all the following actions except:

A. Produce important vitamins B. Kill pathogenic bacteria C. prevent colonization of pathogens D. Enhance immunity

18. ----- is a good example of polymorphism:

A. Hydra B. Starfish C. Obelia D. Euplectella

19. Lungs are present in:

A. Jaw fishes B. cartilaginous species C. cyclostomata D. lung fishes

20. Chlorophyll 'a' and chlorophyll 'b' differ in one of the functional group that chlorophyll 'a' has:

A. –CHO B. #NAME? C. 0 D. 0

21. The photosynthetic pigments of plants are arranged as clusters in thylakoid membrane. The reaction center of these clusters is made of:

A. ATP B. Chlorophyll C. Glucose D. Carotenoids

22. Chlorophyll and accessory pigment absorb light and transfer the energy that initiates the light reactions. What is the order of energy transfer:

A. Carotenoids - Chlorophyll b - Chlorophyll a B. Chlorophyll II a - carotenoids - chlorophyll II b - chlorophyll I C. Chlorophyll a - chlorophyll b - carotenoids - chlorophyll a D. Carotenoids - chlorophyll a - chlorophyll b - chlorophyll a

23. In the journey of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I plastocyanin is reduced by:

A. Plastoquinone B. Cytochrome complex C. P700 D. Primary electron acceptor of PS-I

24. ATP is best defined as:

A. ATP B. The molecule that has no role in muscle contraction C. The molecule that releases energy when phosphate molecule is added D. The molecule that is only present inside the nucleus

25. Which step of photosynthesis uses molecular oxygen?

A. Dark reactions B. light reactions C. Krebs cycle D. oxidative phosphorylation

26. In the process of photosynthesis, water acts as:

A. Electron donor B. CO2 reducer C. Proton acceptor D. CO2 acceptor

27. Which of the following molecules are released after completion of the light reaction and utilized in the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

A. ATP and NADPH B. ADP and NADP C. ATP and NADP D. ADP and NADPH

28. The enzyme which is used in Calvin cycle is:

A. Oxidase B. Reductase C. Isomerase D. Rubisco

29. Glycolysis is the breakdown of glucose into two molecules of:

A. Glycerate B. Pyruvate C. Lactic acid D. Succinic acid

30. The only copper containing protein during light reactions of photosynthesis is

A. Plastoquinone B. Cytochrome C. Ferredoxin D. Plastocyanin

31. In electron transport chain, NADH is oxidized by

A. Co-enzyme Q B. Cytochrome b C. cytochrome c D. oxygen

32. Intrinsic factor is secreted by :

A. Pancreas B. Liver C. stomach D. Duodenum

33. Goblet cells secrete:

A. HCI B. Mucus C. Enzymes D. Amylase

34. The emulsification of fats is the role of:

A. Saliva B. Pancreatic juice C. Gastrin D. Bile

35. Which of the following proteins are involved in the expansion and recoiling of alveoli during breathing?

A. Collagen and Keratin B. Elastin and heratin C. collagen and elastin D. Collagens and squamous cells

36. The respiratory surfaces exhibit following characteristic?

A. It must be permeable B. It must be thick for low diffusion C. It should be non-vascularized D. It should have low ventilation mechanism

37. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Tuberculosis and Pneumonia are caused by Gram positive bacteria B. Tuberculosis and Pneumonia are caused by Gram Negative Bacteria C. Pneumonia is a lung disease caused by Gram negative bacteria D. Tuberculosis is a lung disease caused by Gram negative bacteria

38. The ------- describes how water and dissolved chemicals are carried through the cell wall and intercellular gaps of plants.

A. Apoplast theory B. Vacuolar theory C. Symplast theory D. Cytoplasmic Theory

39. The pathways of water transport in which water moves through plasmodesmata is:

A. Apoplast B. Symplast C. Vacuolar D. Ascent of Sap

40. The heart beat starts when electric impulses are generated from:

A. AV node B. SV node C. SA node D. PQ node

41. The thickest chamber of human heart is:

A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

42. Regarding structure of human heart, Chordae tendinae are present in:

A. Atria B. Pulmonary valve C. Ventricles D. Aortic valve

43. Descending aorta is bifurcated into two vessels which on further division from femoral artery that supply blood to high muscles of legs

A. Iliac vein B. Temporal artery C. Iliac artery D. sciatic artery

44. The value of the active membrane potential of the neuron is:

A. 0.01 Volts B. 0.05 Volts C. 0.02 Volts D. 0.07 Volts

45. Which among the following is NOT the role of Sertoli cells?

A. Protects sperms B. Provides nourishment to sperms C. Provides liquid medium to sperms D. Secrete Testosterone

46. Sperms form in seminiferous tubules and stored in ……… part of reproductive organ?

A. Vasa efferentia B. Ductus deferens C. Epididymis D. Seminal vesicle

47. Yellowish glandular structure formed after release of egg from follicle is called------ and the structure produces -------hormone:

A. Corpus callosum, FSH B. corpus luteum, Progesterone C. Graffian follicle, Progesterone D. follicle atresia, LH

48. Decrease of FSH and increase of estrogen cause pituitary gland to secrete:

A. Somatotrophin B. leutinizing Hormone C. Testosterone D. Spermatogonia

49. Placenta is formed by:

A. LH B. FSH C. progesterone D. estrogen

50. Shedding of wall of uterus occurs in:

A. Post ovulatory phase B. Secretory phase C. menstrual phase D. proliferative phase

51. According to Mendel's Law of Segregation, the one individual out of four in the F2 generation had a phenotype that failed to express in the generation.

A. F1 B. F3 C. F2 D. P1

52. In which of the following male is homogametic and sex of the offspring is determines by the female?

A. Man B. Drosophila C. Butterfly D. a & b

53. For evolutionary process to occur, Which of the following is NOT a geographical barrier?

A. Oceans B. River C. Mountains D. Atmosphere

54. According to evolutionary studies , prokaryotes may have arisen around :

A. 3.5 billion years ago B. 4.5 billion years ago C. 2.5 billion years ago D. 5.5 billion years ago

55. Presence of remnant of pelvic girdle in whale and snake although they never have legs shows evidence from:

A. Biochemical evidence B. Comparative anatomy C. Vestigial organs D. Paleontological evidence

56. The reduction of population size with some specific allele and genotype due to natural disaster is called:

A. Mutation B. Bottle neck effect C. Founder effect D. Speciation

57. Hypothesis that the organisms evolved through the inheritance of acquired characters is given by:

A. Lamarck B. Darwin C. Hutton D. Malthus

58. An active athlete has more stamina of running compared to an officer of same age with physically inactive lifestyle. Which of the following organelles has greatly increased in the muscle cells of athlete?

A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria C. Golgi bodies D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

59. An oligosaccharide is made up of at least:

A. two saccharide units B. ten saccharide units C. three to ten saccharide units D. more than ten saccharide units

60. When antibodies produced by B-cells, kill the antigens then it is called:

A. Cell mediated response B. Passive response C. Humoral response D. Cells collaborated response

61. Where is the proton gradient established?

A. Inside the matrix B. Across the inner mitochondrial membrane C. Across the outer membrane D. In the cytoplasm

62. What does the Calvin cycle use to fix CO₂?

A. Uses ATP only B. Uses NADPH only C. Uses ATP and NADPH D. Uses neither

63. What is the process of ATP production using a proton gradient called?

A. Electron transport B. Chemiosmosis C. Substrate‑level phosphorylation D. Oxidative phosphorylation

64. What type of bond is a peptide bond?

A. Covalent, dehydration synthesis B. Ionic, hydrolysis C. Hydrogen, dehydration synthesis D. Disulfide, oxidation

65. What do restriction enzymes do?

A. Cut proteins B. Cut DNA at specific sites C. Join DNA fragments D. Synthesize DNA

66. What is bioremediation?

A. Produce biofuels B. Clean up pollutants C. Make medicines D. Improve crops

67. What is Southern blotting used for?

A. Detect proteins B. Detect DNA sequences C. Detect RNA sequences D. Detect lipids

68. How are restriction enzymes named?

A. Based on function B. Based on origin organism C. Based on size D. Based on sequence

69. What are blunt ends?

A. Straight cut B. Staggered cut C. Single‑stranded cut D. No cut

70. What is osmosis?

A. Diffusion of solutes B. Diffusion of water C. Active transport D. Endocytosis

71. What are glycoproteins involved in?

A. Cell adhesion B. Cell recognition C. Transport D. Signaling

72. What is the smooth ER involved in?

A. Lipid synthesis B. Protein synthesis C. Detoxification D. Both lipid synthesis and detoxification

73. What is the main function of the circulatory system?

A. Transports oxygen, nutrients, and waste B. Transports only oxygen C. Transports only nutrients D. Transports only waste

74. What is the liquid component of blood?

A. Red blood cells B. Plasma C. White blood cells D. Platelets

75. What does bicarbonate do?

A. Acidifies B. Neutralizes stomach acid C. Activates enzymes D. Emulsifies fats

76. What does the liver store?

A. Stores bile B. Stores glycogen, vitamins, minerals C. Produces insulin D. Digests fats

77. Do enzymes need metal ions?

A. Always need a cofactor B. Sometimes need a metal ion C. Never need cofactor D. Always need a coenzyme

78. What is the basis for vaccination?

A. Immunological memory B. Inflammation C. Phagocytosis D. Antibody production

79. What is a carrier?

A. Heterozygous B. Homozygous dominant C. Homozygous recessive D. Hemizygous

80. What is Turner syndrome?

A. XXY B. XYY C. XO D. XXX

81. What is fragmentation?

A. Fragmentation B. Budding C. Binary fission D. Parthenogenesis

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. Air is a mixture of gases. The molecules of air do not settle down due to:

A. Different molar mass B. Presence of dust particles in air C. Non polar nature of gases D. Elastic collision of gas molecules

83. Amount of heat absorbed, when one mole of liquid changes to gas at its boiling point is called:

A. Molar heat of sublimation B. Latent heat of fusion C. Heat of vaporization D. Heat capacity

84. Upon which factor vapor pressure is independent?

A. Temperature B. Intermolecular forces C. Density of liquid D. Surface area of liquid

85. Which type of forces exist between iodine molecules?

A. Dipole-dipole forces B. Dipole-induced dipole forces C. instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces D. Non-polar forces

86. Which of the following is correct electronic configuration of iron(II) ion (atomic no. of Fe = 26)

A. [Ar] 4s0 3d6 B. [Ar] 4s2 3d6 C. [Ar] 4s2 3d4 D. [Ar] 4s0 3d5

87. Which of the following halogen molecules has maximum bond energy?

A. F–F B. Cl–Cl C. Br–Br D. I–I

88. The branch of science which deals with the conversion of electrical energy into chemical energy and vice versa is called:

A. Electrochemistry B. Thermochemistry C. Stereochemistry D. Biochemistry

89. What is the overall order of this rate equation? Rate = k[H₂][NO₂]²

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

90. Decomposition of ammonia on heated tungsten is an example of:

A. Pseudo first order reaction B. First order reaction C. Second order reaction D. Zero order reaction

91. For exothermic reaction:

A. Products are at higher energy state than reactants B. Products and reactants are at same energy level C. Products are at lower energy state than reactants D. Products have higher entropy than reactants

92. The catalysis in which the catalyst and the reactants are in the same phase is known as:

A. Heterogeneous catalyst B. Homogeneous catalyst C. Slow D. Fast

93. In metals, why does electric conductivity decrease with the increase of temperature?

A. Electron movement decreases B. Metal ion oscillation hinders electrons C. Electron direction changes D. Collision of electrons causes heat flow

94. Graphite and diamond are allotropes of carbon. Diamond is a non-conductor whereas graphite is a good conductor because:

A. Graphite has a layered structure B. In graphite, all valence electrons are tetrahedrally bonded C. In graphite one valence electron is free to move D. Graphite is soft and greasy

95. Metallic property in a group of P-block elements has a trend:

A. Decreases B. Increases C. Remains same D. Irregular trend

96. Brass is an alloy of:

A. Copper and Iron B. Copper and Magnesium C. Copper and Zinc D. Copper and Silver

97. 1-Butene and 2-Butene show which type of isomerism?

A. Functional group B. Position C. Metamerism D. Chain

98. The addition reaction of 2-butene with HBr produces:

A. 1-bromobutane B. 2-bromobutane C. 1,3-dibromobutane D. 2,3-dibromobutane

99. Acetophenone can be formed by which of the following reaction of benzene?

A. Alkylation B. Acylation C. Halogenation D. Nitration

100. Which of the following acts as a nucleophile in the reaction of alkyl halide with alcoholic aqueous solution?

A. H⁺ B. NH₃ C. NO₂ D. Br⁻

101. Which process is used to convert alcohol into ether?

A. Dehydration B. Oxidation C. Hydrolysis D. Hydrogenation

102. The correct sequence according to acidity of alcohols:

A. Primary > Secondary > Tertiary B. Secondary > Tertiary > Primary C. Secondary > Primary > Tertiary D. Primary < Secondary < Tertiary

103. Silver Mirror with Tollen's Reagent is formed by:

A. Acid halides B. Alcohols C. Ketones D. Aldehydes

104. Carboxylic acids are soluble in water due to:

A. Hydrogen bonding B. Covalent Bonding C. Ionic Bonding D. None

105. Which of the following is basic buffer?

A. NH4OH/NH4Cl B. NaOH/NaCl C. NaOH/HCl D. H2CO3/NaHCO3

106. A chemical reaction has a theoretical yield of 25 g, but only 20 g of product was obtained. What is the percentage yield of the reaction?

A. 20% B. 25% C. 45% D. 80%

107. The volume occupied by 1 mole of any gas at STP is known as:

A. Molar volume B. Molecular volume C. Atomic volume D. Specific volume

108. The orbital designation for n=2, l=0 is:

A. 2p B. 2s C. 1s D. 3s

109. Internal energy is defined as:

A. Heat content B. Sum of kinetic and potential energies C. Work done D. Enthalpy

110. If Q = Kc, the system is:

A. Forward direction B. Reverse direction C. At equilibrium D. Cannot be determined

111. In Haber process, pressure effect:

A. High pressure favors NH₃ B. Low pressure favors NH₃ C. Pressure has no effect D. High pressure favors reactants

112. In a scratched tin-plated iron, which corrodes?

A. Tin is more active than Fe B. Iron is more active than Sn C. Both are equally active D. Neither corrodes

113. Flame color of barium is:

A. Brick-red B. Lilac C. Pale-green D. Blue

114. The halogen used in water purification is:

A. Fluorine B. Chlorine C. Bromine D. Iodine

115. BeO is:

A. Amphoteric B. Basic only C. Acidic only D. Neutral

116. sp³ hybridization gives geometry:

A. Linear B. Trigonal planar C. Trigonal pyramidal D. Tetrahedral

117. Hydrogen bonding occurs between H and:

A. Between any two molecules B. Between H and any atom C. Between H and Cl only D. Between H and F, O, or N

118. Organic chemistry is the study of:

A. Study of all elements B. Study of carbon compounds C. Study of metals D. Study of gases

119. Hückel's rule states (4n+2) π-electrons:

A. 4n π-electrons B. 2n π-electrons C. (4n-2) π-electrons D. (4n+2) π-electrons

120. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl is:

A. 1-chloropropane B. 2-chloropropane C. Chloropropane D. 1-chlorobutane

121. Reactivity order in Sₙ2:

A. Tertiary > secondary > primary > methyl B. Secondary > primary > tertiary > methyl C. Methyl > primary > secondary > tertiary D. Primary > secondary > tertiary > methyl

122. Carboxylic acids are:

A. Strong acids (fully dissociate) B. Weak acids (partially dissociate) C. Neutral D. Bases

123. The simplest aromatic carboxylic acid is:

A. Salicylic acid B. Phthalic acid C. Benzoic acid D. Terephthalic acid

124. IUPAC name of CH3COCH3 is:

A. Propanal B. Butanone C. Acetone D. Propan-2-one

125. Benzaldehyde (no alpha-H) undergoes:

A. Aldol condensation B. Cannizzaro reaction C. Crossed aldol with compounds having alpha-H D. No reaction

126. The passage states: "In the age of the smartphone, maintaining deep focus is a rare and precious skill. The constant ping of notifications, the allure of social media, and the endless stream of information make it increasingly difficult to concentrate on a single task for any extended period."

A. Focusing is easier than ever before. B. People do not want to focus. C. Maintaining focus is extremely challenging due to numerous distractions. D. Reading is the only way to focus.

English 9 MCQs

127. Spot the error. If you lend him a book he will lend it to someone else and never you will get it back

A. If you lend him a book B. he will lend it C. to someone else D. and never you will get it back

128. Knowledge and wisdom___________ no time for connection.

A. Has B. Have C. Had D. Are

129. He had a heart attack and all attempts to _______ him failed.

A. Renew B. Revise C. Resuscitate D. Refurnish

130. The plane (ought to) be taking off in a minute. The underlined is:

A. Linking verb B. Modal auxiliary C. Helping verb D. Finite verb

131. Identify the sentence with incorrect use of punctuation:

A. I am going to the store; do you need anything? B. I am going to the store, do you need anything? C. I am going to the store do you need anything? D. "I am going to the store; do you need anything"

132. The teacher's encouragement emboldened the shy student to speak in front of the class. What does "emboldened" most likely mean?

A. Discouraged B. Confident C. Angry D. Confused

133. What does "contradict" mean in: "The new evidence seems to contradict the earlier theory."

A. Support B. Explain C. Confirm D. Deny

134. Choose the synonym for "vigilant" in: "The security guard was vigilant throughout the night."

A. Watchful B. Careless C. Inattentive D. Distracted

135. Choose the correct word: "There are ____ apples on the table."

A. There are less apples on the table. B. There are fewer apples on the table. C. There are less apples on the table. D. There are fewer apples on the table.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What does high inflation directly lead to?

A. Price rise B. Stock market crash C. Decreased demand D. Market stability

137. What does a power failure cause?

A. Loss of electrical supply B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

138. Identify the main flaw: "Ice cream sales increase with crime rates, so ice cream causes crime."

A. Causation is proven B. Correlation equals causation C. Causation is irrelevant D. The correlation is spurious

139. What comes next: A, C, H, P, A, ?

A. O B. N C. O D. P

140. All planets orbit the sun. Earth is a planet. What follows?

A. Earth orbits the sun B. Earth does not orbit the sun C. Some planets orbit the sun D. Sun orbits Earth

141. If you are hungry, you eat. You are not hungry. What can you conclude?

A. You don't eat B. Cannot determine C. You eat D. No conclusion

142. If it is a plant, it undergoes photosynthesis. It does not undergo photosynthesis. What can you conclude?

A. It is not a plant B. It is a plant C. It photosynthesizes D. No conclusion

143. All birds lay eggs. Eagles are birds. What follows?

A. Eagles lay eggs B. Eagles do not lay eggs C. Some birds lay eggs D. Eggs are laid by birds

144. If it is a triangle, it has three sides. It has three sides. What can you conclude?

A. It is a triangle B. Cannot determine C. It has three sides D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. A wire of uniform cross-section A, length L and resistance R is cut into two equal parts. What will happen to the resistivity of each part?

A. It will be doubled B. It will be one forth C. it will be half D. It will remain same

146. What is the shape of velocity-time graph for constant acceleration?

A. Parabola line B. Straight line C. Incline curve D. Decline curve

147. The slope of distance-time graph will be:

A. Negative B. Positive C. Zero D. Maximum

148. Displacement-time graph gives us unit:

A. ms⁻¹ B. ms⁻² C. sec D. m

149. If you stop your car quickly by wearing seat belts, chance of injury is greatly reduced because seat belt supplied:

A. Extra force B. Perpendicular force C. Opposite force D. Zero force

150. If a constant force of 10 N is applied to move an object 5m in the direction of the force, what is the work done?

A. 2 J B. 15 J C. 5 J D. 50 J

151. The equation for kinetic energy is:

A. K.E =1 mv² B. K.E = ½ mv² C. K.E = ½ mv.F D. ———

152. A wave generator produces 100 pulses in 10s. Frequency of pulse will be:

A. 100 pulses/s B. 10 pulses/s C. 1 pulse/s D. 0 pulse/s

153. Wave trough refers to the:

A. Highest point of wave B. Lowest point of wave C. Wavelength D. Wave speed

154. Plane moves at 0.5v toward observer. Sound = 200Hz. What is heard?

A. 400Hz B. 100Hz C. 120Hz D. 180Hz

155. Which of the following defines the change in magnetic flux per unit area?

A. Magnetic field B. Magnetic force C. Magnetic dipole D. Magnetic flux density

156. Output current of a half wave rectifier is:

A. AC current B. Unidirectional C. Zero always D. Straight line (vertical axis)

157. Somatic effect causes:

A. Gene deformation B. Chromosomes deformation C. Skin burns D. Eye burns

158. In a purely resistive AC circuit, the phase difference between voltage and current is:

A. 0° B. 45° C. 90° D. 180°

159. In a pure inductor, the current lags the voltage by:

A. 0° B. 45° C. 90° D. 180°

160. If the frequency of AC is increased, the capacitive reactance will:

A. Decrease B. Increase C. Remain same D. Become zero

161. The color code of a carbon resistor with bands red, red, orange, gold has resistance:

A. 22 × 10³ Ω ± 5% B. 22 × 10² Ω ± 5% C. 22 × 10⁴ Ω ± 5% D. 22 Ω ± 5%

162. The resistance of an ammeter should be:

A. Very low B. Very high C. Infinite D. Zero

163. The relationship between current (I) and drift velocity (v_d) is:

A. I = n A e v_d B. I = n A e / v_d C. I = n A v_d / e D. I = n e / (A v_d)

164. A battery of EMF 9 V and internal resistance 1 Ω is connected to a 8 Ω resistor. The current is:

A. 1 A B. 0.9 A C. 1.125 A D. 0.5 A

165. The dual nature of light is best demonstrated by:

A. Interference (wave) and photoelectric effect (particle) B. Diffraction and reflection C. Refraction and polarization D. Scattering and absorption

166. The unit of magnetic flux is weber. It is also equal to:

A. Tesla × m² B. Tesla / m² C. Volt × second D. Both A and C

167. The direction of magnetic field around a straight current-carrying wire is given by:

A. Right-hand thumb rule B. Left-hand rule C. Fleming's rule D. Lenz's law

168. A JFET is a type of:

A. Field-effect transistor B. Bipolar transistor C. Unijunction transistor D. Phototransistor

169. Electric field lines are always:

A. Perpendicular to equipotential surfaces B. Parallel to equipotential surfaces C. At 45° to equipotential D. Independent

170. A device used to measure fluid pressure is:

A. Manometer B. Barometer C. Hydrometer D. Both A and B

171. For flow in a pipe, the Reynolds number is given by:

A. Re = ρ v d / η B. Re = η / (ρ v d) C. Re = ρ v d η D. Re = ρ v² d / η

172. The SI unit of surface tension is:

A. N/m B. N/m² C. J/m² D. Both A and C

173. Nuclear forces are attractive forces that act between nucleons. They are:

A. Stronger than electrostatic forces B. Weaker than electrostatic C. Equal to gravitational D. Zero at short range

174. The energy released in fusion comes from:

A. The increase in binding energy per nucleon B. Decrease in binding energy C. Loss of nucleons D. Gain of electrons

175. The mass of a proton is approximately:

A. 1.007276 u B. 1.008665 u C. 1.000000 u D. 0.000548 u

176. A disk and a hoop of the same mass and radius roll down an incline without slipping. Which reaches the bottom first?

A. Disk (solid cylinder) B. Hoop C. Both simultaneously D. Depends on angle

177. The triple point of water occurs at a temperature of:

A. 273.16 K B. 0 °C C. 273.15 K D. 100 °C

178. The bending of a wave as it passes from one medium to another is called:

A. Refraction B. Reflection C. Diffraction D. Interference

179. The quality (timbre) of a sound is determined by its:

A. Harmonic content (overtones) B. Fundamental frequency C. Amplitude D. Speed

180. A 2 kg object is lifted to a height of 5 m. Its potential energy is (g=10 m/s²):

A. 100 J B. 10 J C. 50 J D. 25 J

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