MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 3 Free Quiz

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Biology

Chemistry

English

Logical Reasoning

Physics

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Cell wall is synthesized by:

A. Cellulose B. Cell C. Ribosome D. Penicillin binding protein

2. In a typical compound microscope the resolution is 2um, which is about that of naked eye:

A. 200X B. 300X C. 400X D. 500X

3. Which of following combination is not a part of an animal cell:

A. Central vacuole, cell membrane, ribosomes B. Chloroplast, Ribosome, Mitochondria C. Cell wall, Chloroplast, Central vacuole D. Ribosome, Mitochondria, cell wall

4. Which of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria?

A. Cristae B. Matrix C. Outer membrane D. Ribosomes

5. Which statement is correct about mitochondria and chloroplast?

A. Number of mitochondria and chloroplast are same in the cell B. Chloroplast and mitochondria are single membrane structure C. Chloroplast and mitochondria can not live independently D. 70S ribosome is attached with inner membrane of mitochondria and chloroplast

6. Outer membrane of mitochondria and chloroplast resembles as both are:

A. Freely permeable to large molecules B. Freely permeable to small molecules C. Impermeable D. Semi permeable

7. The active mass movement of mitochondria in the cytoplasm is due:

A. Cyclosis B. Golgi apparatus C. Endoplasmic streaming movement D. Transfer RNA

8. Waterproof surfaces like cuticle and protective covering of insect's body is:

A. Phospholipids B. Waxes C. Terpenoids D. Acylglycerols

9. Most abundant protein in humans in:

A. Collagen B. Albumin C. Myosin D. Haemoglobin

10. Which of the following is purine?

A. Guanine B. Cytosine C. Thymine D. Uracil

11. An enzyme and substrate reacts through a special feature or site present on:

A. Building site B. Active site C. Catalyst site D. Inhibitory site

12. What alters the shape of enzymes and makes them functional?

A. Co-factor B. Proteins C. Other enzymes D. A and C

13. HIV is classified as:

A. Bacteriophage B. Oncovirus C. Retrovirus D. Icosahedral virus

14. A small biological unit that can evolve over time :

A. A specie B. An organism C. A population D. Cell

15. Bacteria require vitamins for which of the following purpose?

A. Source of energy B. Growth factors C. source of carbon D. source of electron donors

16. Bacterial genome becomes diploid:

A. After fertilization of gametes B. Before spore formation C. During binary fission D. After binary fission

17. Bacteria having flagella all over the surface:

A. Lophotrichous B. Peritrichous C. Atrichous D. Diplotrichous

18. Membranous infoldings in bacteria that initiate DNA replication is called:

A. Mesosomes B. Peroxisomes C. Glyoxisomes D. Nucleosomes

19. The cells of non-virulent strain of streptococcus pneumoniae are:

A. Capsulated and called S-Type B. Non-capsulated and S-Type C. Capsulated and called R-Type D. Non-capsulated and R-Type

20. The cavity between body wall and alimentary canal is:

A. Coelom B. Mesoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoglea

21. Which of the following class of mammals resembles reptiles?

A. Eutheria B. metatheria C. prototheria D. both a & b

22. Oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from:

A. CO2 B. SO2 C. H2O D. Glucose

23. Cellulose is:

A. Polyhexose B. polyketose C. polypentose D. polytriose

24. HCl in gastric juice is secreted by which of following cells:

A. Chief cells B. Oxyntic cells C. Mucus cells D. Kupffer cells

25. Select the hormone which increase the activity of parietal and chief cells:

A. Cholecystokinin B. Secretin C. Gastrin D. Acetylcholine

26. Range of normal total lung capacity in humans is :

A. 5-6 litres B. 8-9 litres C. 10-11 litres D. 12-13 litres

27. Magnesium is an important nutrient in plants for the formation of:

A. Proteins B. Lipids C. Chlorophylls D. enzymes

28. In humans, the closed sac which surrounds the heart is:

A. Endocardium B. Pericardium C. Myocardium D. Epicardium

29. The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into blood stream at?

A. Abdominal vein B. jugular vein C. Subclavian vein D. Bile duct

30. Which of following blood vessels have the highest pressure of blood:

A. Aorta B. Pulmonary arteries C. Pulmonary veins D. Vena cava

31. If lactic acid build up in thigh muscles, it causes muscle tiredness and pain. This condition is called :

A. Muscle fatigue B. Cramp C. Tetany D. Oxygen debt in muscles

32. Unique feature of cardiac muscles is:

A. involuntary B. striated C. intercalated disc D. spindle shaped

33. Which of the following is the effect of sympathetic nervous system?

A. Constriction of bronchi B. decrease in heart rate C. Promotes digestion or peristalsis D. dilates the pupil

34. Which type of neurons form brain and spinal cord?

A. Sensory neurons B. motor neurons C. interneurons D. dendrites

35. Resting membrane potential measures:

A. -70mV B. -70 volt C. 70mV D. -90mV

36. Microscopic gap between two neurons is called:

A. Synapse B. Synapsis C. collapse D. Synaptic knob

37. The number of spinal nerves that originates from the spinal cord:

A. 24 nerves B. 48 nerves C. 40 nerves D. 62 nerves

38. A desert mammal faces severe dehydration in a hot sunny day. Which interval condition would lead to secretion of ADH?

A. High osmotic pressure of blood B. High blood pressure C. Low osmotic pressure of blood D. Low solute potential of blood

39. In human males, inhibin hormone is produced by

A. Leydig cells B. Hensen's node cells C. Sertoli cells D. Interstitial cells

40. Which hormone induces labour pain?

A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Oxytocin D. LH

41. Law of independent assortment states:

A. That each pair of alleles assort independently of other pairs of alleles during gamete formation B. that alleles of each pair of contrasting trait have unequal probability to assort with the alleles of other pair C. That the two coexisting alleles for each trait segregate from each other at meiosis and D. None of these

42. All chromosomes other than sex chromosomes are:

A. autosome B. sex chromosome C. Histone D. nucleosome

43. According to evolutionary studies , prokaryotes may have arisen around :

A. 3.5 billion years ago B. 4.5 billion years ago C. 2.5 billion years ago D. 5.5 billion years ago

44. Which of the following type of organs are supposed to be functional in ancestral species rather than in present day species:

A. Vestigial organs B. Analogous organs C. Homologous organs D. Embryonic

45. The artificial selection in breeding provides a strong evidence for evolution. What does this term means?

A. Vestigial organs B. Domestication C. Mutation D. Homology

46. The embryological stages of ------- show similarity in anatomical features.

A. All living things B. All vertebrates C. All non-vertebrates D. Human, jelly fish and mouse

47. Wings of birds and that of flying lizards provide the evidence of:

A. Convergent evolution B. No evolution C. Divergent evolution D. Same origin

48. According to Lamarckism, the basis of evolution is:

A. Inheritance of acquired characteristics B. Natural selection C. Mutation D. Survival of the fittest

49. What best describes the hind leg bones seen in the whale?

A. Analogous to the fin of living fish B. Fossil structure from an extinct ancestor C. Homologous structure of the wings of a bat D. Vestigial structures that had a function in an ancestor

50. Natural selection was the silent feature of which scientist?

A. Lamarck B. Darwin C. Aristotle D. Lyell

51. When a single gene affects two or more traits, the phenomenon is called:

A. Epistasis B. Pleitropy C. Dominance D. Over Dominance

52. The condition in which the heterozygote has a phenotype intermediate b/w contrasting homozygous parents is called as:

A. Dominance B. Incomplete dominance C. Co-dominance D. Over-Dominance

53. Kidneys perform their osmoregulatory role under the effect of Antidiuretic Hormone, which type of urine is produced in this situation?

A. Hypotonic urine with decreased volume B. Hypotonic urine with increased volume C. Hypertonic urine with decreased volume D. Hypertonic urine with increased volume

54. Which of the following is the auditory relay Centre and Centre that controls reflex movement of eyes?

A. Forebrain B. Cerebellum C. Midbrain D. Cerebellum

55. Which of the following organisms eliminate nitrogenous waste mainly in the form of uric acid?

A. Freshwater Fish B. Amphibians C. Birds D. Mammals

56. Which of the following muscle types are involuntary in action?

A. Skeletal and smooth B. Skeletal and cardiac C. Cardiac and smooth D. Smooth muscle only

57. Which changes occur in the endometrium during the proliferate phase of the menstrual cycle?

A. It begins to shed B. It regenerates and thickens C. It becomes secretory D. No change occurs

58. In males, which of the following is considered a urogenital organ?

A. Urethra B. Ureter C. Urinary bladder D. Vas deferens

59. A doctor taps below the knee and the leg kicks forward. What does this show?

A. A conditional response B. Voluntary muscle contractions C. An involuntary reflex to external stimuli D. A delayed response due to brain processing

60. What type of organism do bacteriophages infect?

A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Plants D. Animals

61. Where does the envelope of an enveloped virus come from?

A. Viral capsid B. Host cell membrane C. Viral DNA D. Nucleus

62. What is the basis for virus classification?

A. Based on size B. Based on nucleic acid and capsid C. Based on host D. Based on disease

63. What is the primary energy currency of the cell?

A. ADP B. ATP C. Glucose D. NADH

64. Where do the light‑dependent reactions occur?

A. Stroma B. Thylakoid membranes C. Matrix D. Cytoplasm

65. What are the methods of gene delivery?

A. Transformation, transduction, transfection B. Only transformation C. Only transfection D. Only transduction

66. What does the central nervous system consist of?

A. Brain and nerves B. Brain and spinal cord C. Spinal cord and nerves D. Brain only

67. What is the function of the cerebrum?

A. Thinking and memory B. Coordination C. Heart rate D. Breathing

68. What do villi and microvilli do?

A. Decrease surface area B. Increase surface area C. Do not affect D. Reduce absorption

69. What hormone triggers gallbladder contraction?

A. Gastrin B. Cholecystokinin (CCK) C. Secretin D. Insulin

70. Where do competitive inhibitors bind?

A. Active site B. Allosteric site C. Regulatory site D. Cofactor site

71. What is the pH at which an enzyme works best?

A. Optimum pH B. Optimum temperature C. Optimum concentration D. Optimum pressure

72. What do hydrolases catalyze?

A. Synthesis B. Hydrolysis C. Isomerization D. Oxidation

73. Which organs are involved in osmoregulation?

A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Skin D. Lungs

74. How do negative feedback mechanisms work?

A. Amplify changes B. Reversing changes C. Ignoring changes D. Accelerating changes

75. What matures in the thymus?

A. B cells B. T cells C. Macrophages D. Natural killer cells

76. Who is the father of genetics?

A. Darwin B. Mendel C. Lamarck D. Watson

77. What are alleles?

A. Different forms of a gene B. Different genes C. Different chromosomes D. Different traits

78. What does the seed develop from?

A. Ovule B. Ovary C. Anther D. Stigma

79. What explains ATP synthesis?

A. Chemiosmotic theory B. Lock and key model C. Induced fit model D. None

80. Where does substrate‑level phosphorylation occur?

A. Glycolysis and Krebs cycle B. Only glycolysis C. Only Krebs cycle D. Electron transport chain

81. What do ligaments connect?

A. Bone to muscle B. Bone to bone C. Muscle to muscle D. Bone to cartilage

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. Which of the following gases has the lowest density under room conditions?

A. Neon B. Oxygen C. Nitrogen D. Fluorine

83. All the collisions between the particles of gases are elastic in nature. What is meant by "Elastic collisions".

A. No change in potential energy during collision. B. The velocity of molecules change. C. No change in kinetic energy D. No change in mass during collision.

84. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other they unite to form one cube due to:

A. Dipole dipole interaction B. Covalent attraction C. Van Der Waal's forces D. H-bonding

85. If the external pressure is reduced to half, the boiling point of ethanol will be:

A. Greater than 78°C B. Less than 78°C C. Equal to 78°C D. Reduced to half

86. The example of metallic solid is:

A. B B. Cu C. C D. S

87. The molecules of iodine (I₂) form the:

A. Molecular crystals B. Covalent crystals C. Ionic crystals D. Metallic crystals

88. The electronic configurations of some elements are given below. Recognize the element that belongs to group IIIA:

A. 1s2 2s2 2p1 B. 1s2 2s2 2p3 C. 1s2 2s2 2p2 D. 1s2 2s2 2p4

89. CO₂ & SO₂ are two compounds. Which of the following best describes these two compounds?

A. Both CO₂ & SO₂ are linear and non-polar B. CO₂ is angular and polar, SO₂ is linear and non-polar C. CO₂ is linear and non-polar, SO₂ is angular and polar D. Both CO₂ and SO₂ are angular and polar

90. The unhybridized p orbital in sp² hybridization is:

A. Perpendicular to sp2 orbitals B. Along the hybrid orbitals C. In the same plane as hybrid orbitals D. Forms only sigma bonds

91. Which of the following compounds shows shortest C–H bond length?

A. Methane B. Acetylene C. Ethylene D. Ethane

92. Predict the highest bond energy of the following single bonds:

A. C--H B. C–N C. C–O D. C–C

93. At equilibrium in a reversible reaction:

A. Rate of backward reaction > rate of forward reaction B. Rate of forward reaction > rate of backward reaction C. Rate of forward reaction = rate of backward reaction D. Rate of forward = backward & concentrations are constant

94. For a gaseous phase reaction, when number of moles of reactants and products are equal:

A. Kp and Kc are different B. Kp is greater than Kc C. Kc is greater than Kp D. Kp = Kc

95. A strong electrolyte is one that:

A. Reacts B. Disappears C. Ionizes completely D. Never ionizes

96. In electrochemical series, what is the electrode potential of all metals above hydrogen?

A. Zero B. Negative C. Positive D. Greater than zero

97. The color imparted by the Li wire when subjected to flame is:

A. Crimson Red B. Greyish white C. Pale Greens D. Brick red

98. 1-Butene and 2-Butene show which type of isomerism?

A. Functional group B. Position C. Metamerism D. Chain

99. The addition reaction of 2-butene with HBr produces:

A. 1-bromobutane B. 2-bromobutane C. 1,3-dibromobutane D. 2,3-dibromobutane

100. Identify which method is used to prepare Alkynes?

A. Dehalogenation of vicinal dihalides B. Dehydration of alcohol in the presence of Al₂O₃ at 340–450°C C. Electrolysis of dicarboxylic acid salt D. Dehalogenation of vicinal dihalides in the presence of strong base

101. Acetophenone can be formed by which of the following reaction of benzene?

A. Alkylation B. Halogenation C. Acylation D. Nitration

102. Alkyl halides involving -C-X bond breakage and -C-Nu bond formation simultaneously would follow which one of the following mechanisms:

A. SN1 B. SN2 C. E1 D. E2

103. The increasing order of reactivity of alcohols towards nucleophile is:

A. 2-methyl-2-pentanol < 3-methyl-2-pentanol < 2-methyl-1-pentanol B. 2-methyl-2-pentanol > 3-methyl-2-pentanol > 2-methyl-1-pentanol C. 2-methyl-1-pentanol < 3-methyl-2-pentanol < 2-methyl-2-pentanol D. 2-methyl-1-pentanol > 3-methyl-2-pentanol > 2-methyl-2-pentanol

104. Which one of the following was used as one of the earliest antiseptic and disinfectant:

A. Phenol B. Ether C. Ethanol D. Methanol

105. Which type of reaction takes place when a carbonyl compound is taken with a mixture of NaCN and an acid?

A. Substitution reaction B. Electrophilic addition reaction C. Nucleophilic addition reaction D. Displacement reaction

106. Oxidation numbers of X,Y,Z are +6, -2, & -1 respectively, possible molecular formula when atoms combine:

A. XYZ B. XYZ2 C. XYZ3 D. XYZ2

107. Number of unpaired electrons in Boron in ground state is/are:

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

108. The root mean square speed (v_rms) is:

A. √(3RT/M) B. √(8RT/πM) C. √(2RT/M) D. √(RT/M)

109. Mercury forms a convex meniscus because:

A. Adhesive > cohesive B. Cohesive > adhesive C. Adhesive = cohesive D. Gravity is stronger

110. Packing efficiency is defined as:

A. Volume occupied by atoms / total volume × 100 B. Number of atoms × mass C. Density / atomic mass D. Edge length / atomic radius

111. Molecular solids consist of:

A. Ions B. Molecules C. Atoms D. Electrons

112. Thermodynamics is the study of:

A. Study of chemical reactions only B. Study of energy transformations C. Study of atomic structure D. Study of gases only

113. Bond enthalpy is defined as:

A. Energy to break 1 mole of bonds in gas phase B. Energy to form 1 mole of bonds C. Energy to change phase D. Energy of combustion

114. Chemical equilibrium is established only in:

A. Irreversible reactions B. Reversible reactions C. All reactions D. Exothermic reactions

115. The potential of SHE is:

A. +1.00 V B. -1.00 V C. +0.34 V D. 0.00 V

116. The most reactive alkali metal is:

A. Lithium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Francium

117. Stainless steel contains:

A. Fe, Cr, Ni B. Fe, C, Mn C. Cu, Zn, Sn D. Al, Mg, Si

118. Shape of BeCl₂ is:

A. Trigonal planar B. Linear C. Tetrahedral D. Bent

119. Alkynes are also called:

A. Acetylenes B. Olefins C. Paraffins D. Arenes

120. Alcohol + HX gives:

A. R-OH + HX → R-H + H₂O B. R-OH + HX → R-X + H₂O C. R-OH + HX → R-X + H₂ D. R-OH + HX → R-H + X₂

121. Rate law for Sₙ1 is:

A. Rate = k [RX][Nu⁻] B. Rate = k [RX] C. Rate = k [Nu⁻] D. Rate = k [RX]²

122. Phenols have:

A. -OH on sp³ carbon B. -OH directly attached to benzene ring C. -OH on alkene carbon D. -COOH on benzene ring

123. Acidity order of simple carboxylic acids:

A. Acetic acid > formic acid B. Propanoic acid > acetic acid C. Butanoic acid > propanoic acid D. Formic acid > acetic acid > propanoic acid

124. Nitriles on hydrolysis give:

A. Hydrolysis of amides only B. Hydrolysis of nitriles C. Hydrolysis of esters D. Hydrolysis of alkenes

125. Soaps are:

A. Esters B. Amides C. Salts of fatty acids D. Alcohols

126. Disaccharides are formed from:

A. Two monosaccharides B. One monosaccharide C. Three monosaccharides D. Polysaccharides

English 9 MCQs

127. We shall ___________ there for a week.

A. be going B. has been gone C. has going D. going

128. How ridiculous this is!

A. Imperative B. Optative C. Declarative D. Exclamatory

129. Spot the error: Amjad was not conscious to the aberration he had committed in the public meeting. It was disliked by all and sundry.

A. Amjad was not conscious to the aberration he had committed in the public meeting B. It was disliked by all and sundry C. No error D. No error

130. Find out Antonym of "Mumbled".

A. Unprovoked B. Quiver C. Loud D. Rarely

131. A person who sells goods and services is a -----

A. Consumer B. Purchaser C. Patron D. Vendor

132. I waited for the bus, but it was late. (Identify the sentence)

A. Simple B. Compound C. Complex D. Mixed

133. The students gave an ____ presentation.

A. Aural B. Oral C. Oral D. Aural

134. Read the sentence: "As she looked into the mirror, she did not recognize the person staring back. The tired eyes and tired spirit were not her own. She saw a hollow version of herself, and for the first time, she felt a deep, piercing sense of shame." What emotion did the character feel towards her reflection?

A. She was proud of her appearance. B. She was indifferent to her reflection. C. She was amused by her reflection. D. She was ashamed of her reflection.

135. What does "precarious" mean in: "The climber was in a precarious position, hanging dangerously from the cliff."

A. Stable B. Dangerously unstable C. Safe D. Comfortable

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the primary cause of darkness during an outage?

A. Power outage B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

137. What should be done to stop a small fire from spreading?

A. Call the fire brigade B. Close all windows C. Use fire extinguisher D. Wait for the wind

138. What should be done with people in flood‑hit areas?

A. Evacuate all residents B. Distribute relief goods C. Conduct awareness seminars D. Wait for rescue teams

139. What to do with animals during floods?

A. Distribute relief goods B. Wait for rescue teams C. Conduct awareness seminars D. Evacuate animals

140. What comes next: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?

A. EV B. EU C. EV D. EW

141. Some X are Y. What can we say about Y and X?

A. All Y are X B. Some Y are X C. No Y are X D. All X are Y

142. What is determined by the middle term's position?

A. Mood B. Figure C. Form D. Type

143. How many figures are there?

A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five

144. If it is a cat, it is a mammal. It is not a cat. What can you conclude?

A. It is not a mammal B. Cannot determine C. It is a mammal D. It is a cat

Physics 36 MCQs

145. The resistance of pure metal increases with:

A. Increase in temperature B. Decrease in temperature C. Increase in pressure D. Decrease in pressure

146. Newton's first law of motion is also known as:

A. Law of inertia B. Law of electromagnetism C. Law of universal gravity D. Law of conservation of momentum

147. Two buses moving at 100 km/h and 80 km/h respectively cross each other while moving in opposite directions. Velocity of one bus relative to the other is:

A. 100 km/h B. 20 km/h C. 80 km/h D. 180 km/h

148. Ignoring details associated with friction, extra forces exerted by arm and leg muscles, and other factors, we can consider a pole vault as the conversion of an athlete's running kinetic energy into gravitational potential energy. If an athlete is to lift his body 5 m during vault, what speed must he have when he plants his pole?

A. 5 m/s B. 10 m/s C. 15 m/s D. 20 m/s

149. In a rotating spaceship, to produce artificial gravity, what does the centripetal force do?

A. Has no effect inside the spaceship B. Pulls object towards the centre C. Increases spaceship's rotation D. Pushes the objects towards outer wall

150. If the given spring of spring constant K is cut into three identical segments, the spring constant of each segment is:

A. 1K B. K/2 C. K/3 D. 3K

151. What will be the mathematical form of first law of thermodynamics for a system whose variation of volume by pressure is shown?

A. Q = W B. Q = U/W C. Q = U + W D. Q = U

152. The Coulomb's law states

A. Force between two point charges is inversely proportional to the product of the charges and directly proportional to the square of the distance between them B. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them C. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the sum of charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them D. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and the square of the distance between them

153. Consider three-point charges A, B, and C as shown in figure. If the resultant force on charge B due to charge A and charge C is 0.024 N, the direction of resultant force will be

A. Towards Charge A B. Towards Charge C C. Towards Charge B D. Vertical to surface the charges are placed

154. Two +ve point charges placed 2m apart. Electric potential at midpoint will be:

A. Added to double B. Reduced to half C. Remains same D. Cancel each other

155. The source of magnetic field is:

A. An isolated magnetic pole B. Static electric charge C. Nonmagnetic substance D. Current loop

156. On which principle does the transformer work?

A. Self Induction B. Mutual induction C. Motional EMF D. Magnetic torque

157. The induced emf will flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces it. It is statement of:

A. Ampere's law B. Faraday Law C. Lenz's law D. Joule's law

158. In which spectral series is the far ultraviolet region of electromagnetic spectrum found?

A. Paschen series B. Balmer series C. Lyman series D. Pfund series

159. Which X-ray photon will have the longest wavelength?

A. Kα B. Kβ C. Lα D. Mα

160. In circular motion, if angular displacement is kept constant, decreasing the radius will:

A. Increase linear displacement B. Increase linear velocity C. Decrease linear displacement D. Not affect linear displacement

161. The capacitive reactance is given by:

A. XC = 1/(ωC) B. XC = ωC C. XC = 2πfC D. XC = 1/(2πfC)

162. Drift velocity of electrons in a conductor is typically:

A. Very small (mm/s) B. Very large (close to c) C. Zero D. Infinite

163. The electrical resistance of a conductor decreases with increase in:

A. Temperature for semiconductors B. Temperature for metals C. Length D. Area

164. The self-inductance of a coil is defined as the ratio of:

A. Flux linkage to current B. EMF to rate of change of current C. Both A and B D. Voltage to resistance

165. If a magnet is moved towards a coil, the induced current flows in a direction that:

A. Opposes the motion of the magnet B. Aids the motion C. Is unrelated D. Increases the flux

166. The direction of induced current can be determined by:

A. Lenz's law B. Ohm's law C. Kirchhoff's law D. Coulomb's law

167. Paramagnetic materials have μ_r:

A. Slightly greater than 1 B. Slightly less than 1 C. Much greater than 1 D. Equal to 1

168. The region near the p-n junction with no free charge carriers is called:

A. Depletion region B. Conduction region C. Valence region D. Energy band

169. A logic gate that outputs 1 only when all inputs are 1 is:

A. AND gate B. OR gate C. NOT gate D. NAND gate

170. An object will float if its density is:

A. Less than the fluid density B. Greater than the fluid density C. Equal to the fluid density D. Independent

171. The terminal velocity of a sphere falling through a viscous fluid is proportional to:

A. Square of its radius B. Radius C. 1/Radius D. Radius³

172. The law of conservation of momentum states that the total momentum of a closed system is:

A. Constant B. Changing C. Zero D. Maximum

173. The work done by a centripetal force is:

A. Zero B. Positive C. Negative D. Maximum

174. The number of protons in a nucleus is called the:

A. Atomic number (Z) B. Mass number (A) C. Neutron number D. Atomic mass

175. Electron capture is a process where an orbital electron is captured by the nucleus, causing a proton to become a neutron. This process competes with:

A. Positron emission B. Alpha decay C. Beta decay D. Gamma emission

176. The power delivered by a torque is:

A. P = τ ω B. P = F v C. P = τ / ω D. P = I α

177. The angular speed of the minute hand of a clock is:

A. 2π/3600 rad/s B. 2π/60 rad/s C. π/1800 rad/s D. π/3600 rad/s

178. The work done in a cyclic process is equal to the area enclosed by the cycle on a:

A. P-V diagram B. T-S diagram C. P-T diagram D. V-T diagram

179. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

A. Velocity B. Speed C. Mass D. Distance

180. The moment of a force about a point is the product of the force and the perpendicular distance from the point to the line of action. This is the magnitude of:

A. Torque B. Work C. Power D. Force

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