MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 4 Free Quiz

Biology

Chemistry

English

Logical Reasoning

Physics

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Lipid synthesis and metabolism takes place in which of the following organelle?

A. Mitochondria B. Vacuole C. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

2. Peripheral parts of cell are often like a:

A. Sol B. Gel C. D.

3. Follow the route of pepsinogen secreted by zymogen cells:

A. SER → RER → Golgi Complex → Secretory Vesicles B. SER → Mitochondria → Golgi Complex → Secretory Vesicles C. RER → SER → Golgi Complex → Secretory Vesicles D. Golgi complex → RER → SER → Secretory Vesicles

4. Transcription is the process in which an RNA copy of the DNA sequence and coding the gene is produced with the help of an enzyme called:

A. DNA polymerase B. RNA polymerase C. DNA transcriptase D. RNA transcriptase

5. Which of following is a peptide bond?

A. C-N B. C-P C. C-O D. -C-S

6. Which of the following is true about ATP?

A. Coenzyme B. Prosthetic group C. Enzyme D. organic ion of enzyme

7. Most enzymes have an optimum temperature of around

A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 20

8. The enzymes enable the conversion of substrates into products by:

A. Changing equilibrium in the direction of the substrate B. Increasing the activation energy C. Increasing the substrate concentration D. Lowering the activation energy

9. Non competitive inhibitors react with enzyme at:

A. Allosteric site B. Passive site C. Active site D. Regulatory site

10. Virus is what type of agent?

A. Cellular agent B. Infectious agent C. NON-infectious agent D. NON-protein agent

11. Which of the following is 'Not related' to enveloped virus?

A. They survive for a short time. B. Their envelope is sensitive to sunlight C. they are tolerant to antibodies. D. Envelope is derived from host.

12. In HIV viruses, reverse transcriptase convert single stranded RNA into double stranded DNA. This process is called:

A. Translation B. Duplication C. Replication D. Reverse transcription

13. An invagination of cell membrane which helps in cell division:

A. Fimbriae B. Nucleoid C. Mesosomes D. Endospores

14. Number of major layer/layers of cell wall in gram positive bacteria is /are:

A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4

15. The disease botulism is caused by:

A. salmonella B. campylobacter C. E.coli D. Clostridium botulinum

16. Freeing of an object from all living organisms,bacteria and their spores,fungi etc is called :

A. Sterilization B. Disinfection C. Decolamination D. Immunization

17. The pasteurization of milk is done effectively through ultra-high temperature in which milk is treated for 3 seconds at:

A. 72°C B. 100°C C. 140°C D. 170°C

18. Lungs are present in:

A. Jaw fishes B. cartilaginous species C. cyclostomata D. lung fishes

19. Carotenoids absorb light of:

A. Yellow-orange range B. Blue-violet range C. Orange-red range D. Green range

20. The carotenoids absorb light in the visible spectrum between -------- and -------- wavelengths.

A. 400-600nm B. 630-700nm C. 620-700nm D. 500-600nm

21. The first stable product of light-independent reaction having 3-carbon is:

A. 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde B. 1,3-bisphosphate glycerate C. 3-phosphoglyceric acid D. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

22. The only copper containing protein during light reactions of photosynthesis is

A. Plastoquinone B. Cytochrome C. Ferredoxin D. Plastocyanin

23. Which enzyme is secreted in the active form?

A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Peptidase D. Protease

24. A person with a removed gall bladder experiences difficulty in fat digestion due to:

A. Absence of bile B. Uncontrolled release of Bile C. Reduced Alkalinity of bile D. Absence of Bile pigments

25. The area between two lungs is called:

A. Periosteum B. Infundibulum C. Mediastinum D. Hilum

26. Chordae tendinae are present in ........ part of heart:

A. Aorta B. Atrium C. Right ventricle D. In both ventricle

27. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity:

A. Antibodies from mother's milk B. Previous chickenpox infection C. Inactivated polio vaccine D. Live polio vaccine

28. Which of the following type of T cells are required for the activation of B cells?

A. Helper T cells B. Cytotoxic T cells C. Suppressor T cells D. Memory T cells

29. Pulse is found in:

A. arteries B. Veins C. capillaries D. all of these

30. Which of the following is not a non-specific immune response:

A. HCL B. Mucus C. T Cells D. Spermines

31. Which of the following is true about bradykinin?

A. It is produced at the site of tissue injury B. It has no role in the leakage of fluids into the tissues in inflammation C. It destroys phagocytes D. It produces interferon gamma

32. Which one of the following muscles are considered as Voluntary Muscles?

A. Smooth muscles B. Cardiac muscles C. Skeletal muscles D. Glandular muscles

33. Which part of skeletal muscle remain stationary?

A. Origin B. insertion C. belly D. All undergo change

34. During resting membrane potential condition:

A. outer surface of neuron is more positive B. inner surface of neuron is more positive C. both of these are equally positive D. both of these are equally negative

35. These are required for the impulse to transfer from presynaptic to post synaptic neuron:

A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Proteins

36. The molecule responsible for conveying messages from one neuron to the next are called:

A. Hormones B. Activators C. neurotransmitters D. Enzymes

37. The number of spinal nerves that originates from the spinal cord:

A. 24 nerves B. 48 nerves C. 40 nerves D. 62 nerves

38. Most of the neurons in the CNS are:

A. Bipolar B. Multipolar C. Pseudounipolar D. Unipolar

39. Grey matter of spinal cord does not contain:

A. Cell bodies of sensory neurons B. Axons of motor neuron C. Cell bodies of interneurons D. Cell bodies of motor neurons

40. Ductless glands are known as:

A. Endocrine gland B. exocrine gland C. salivary gland D. bile glands

41. Which of the following is a steroid hormone?

A. Glucagon B. thyroxine C. epinephrine D. estrogen

42. Which hormone is secreted by variety of cells all over the body?

A. Prostaglandin B. Endorphins C. Secretin D. Erythropoietin

43. Sperms form in seminiferous tubules and stored in ……… part of reproductive organ?

A. Vasa efferentia B. Ductus deferens C. Epididymis D. Seminal vesicle

44. AIDS is caused by:

A. Bacteria B. Virus C. fungi D. Alga

45. The incubation period of syphilis is:

A. 1-2 weeks B. 2-3 weeks C. 3-4 weeks D. 07 days

46. The particular array of chromosomes that an individual possesses is called the:

A. Genotype B. Phenotype C. Karyotype D. Allele

47. Which of the following type of organs are supposed to be functional in ancestral species rather than in present day species:

A. Vestigial organs B. Analogous organs C. Homologous organs D. Embryonic

48. According to the biogenetic law of Ernst Haeckel:

A. There is survival of the fittest B. There is use and disuse of organs C. Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny D. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

49. Hippocampus plays an important role in the:

A. Formation of short-term memory B. Formation of image on retina C. Formation of long-term memory D. Formation of emotions

50. In which of the following combinations, both components have non-striated muscle fibers?

A. Intestine & biceps B. Intestine & blood vessels C. Heart & lungs D. Stomach & heart

51. What is the chemical composition of chromosomes?

A. RNA and lipids B. DNA and proteins C. Carbohydrates and nucleic acids D. Proteins and carbohydrates

52. The best way to avoid AIDS is:

A. Preventive measures B. Vaccination C. Medication D. Shots

53. Monoclonal antibodies are useful in cancer diagnosis by:

A. Replacing damaged tissue B. Changing the genetic code of cancer cells C. Killing healthy cells to reduce tumor spread D. Detecting specific tumor markers in samples

54. What are the steps of the lytic cycle?

A. Replication only B. Integration only C. Adsorption, penetration, replication, assembly, release D. No steps

55. What does photosynthesis convert?

A. Light to chemical B. Chemical to light C. Light to heat D. Chemical to mechanical

56. Which polysaccharides are used for energy storage?

A. Cellulose and chitin B. Starch and glycogen C. Glycogen and cellulose D. Chitin and starch

57. What type of lipid is cholesterol?

A. Phospholipid B. Triglyceride C. Wax D. Steroid

58. What are blunt ends?

A. Straight cut B. Staggered cut C. Single‑stranded cut D. No cut

59. What is the function of the cytoskeleton?

A. Energy production B. Structural support and movement C. Protein synthesis D. DNA replication

60. What is the function of chloroplasts?

A. Cellular respiration B. Photosynthesis C. Protein synthesis D. Lipid synthesis

61. What is the centromere?

A. Region where sister chromatids join B. Region where chromosomes attach to spindle C. Region where DNA replication starts D. Region where cell division ends

62. What does the central nervous system consist of?

A. Brain and nerves B. Brain and spinal cord C. Spinal cord and nerves D. Brain only

63. What is the occipital lobe involved in?

A. Reasoning B. Vision C. Hearing D. Touch

64. What do hydrolases catalyze?

A. Synthesis B. Hydrolysis C. Isomerization D. Oxidation

65. What is the study of enzymes called?

A. Enzymology B. Enzyme kinetics C. Catalysis D. Biochemistry

66. What is a classic example of natural selection?

A. Peppered moth B. Darwin's finches C. Antibiotic resistance D. Sickle cell anemia

67. What does "survival of the fittest" mean?

A. Physical fitness B. Reproductive success C. Strength D. Speed

68. What type of feedback is common in homeostasis?

A. Positive feedback B. Negative feedback C. No feedback D. Neutral feedback

69. What does positive feedback do?

A. Amplifies B. Counteracts C. Neutralizes D. Suppresses

70. Where does reabsorption occur in the nephron?

A. Glomerulus B. Renal tubules C. Collecting duct D. Loop of Henle

71. What else do kidneys regulate?

A. Blood pressure B. Blood glucose C. Blood pH D. Blood volume

72. What is pleiotropy?

A. Multiple traits B. One trait C. Multiple genes for one trait D. No traits

73. Where are genes located?

A. Chromosomes B. Mitochondria C. Ribosomes D. Golgi

74. What is parturition?

A. Childbirth B. Fertilization C. Implantation D. Lactation

75. What is spore formation?

A. Spore formation B. Budding C. Fragmentation D. Binary fission

76. What is anaerobic respiration?

A. Requires oxygen B. Does not require oxygen C. Produces more ATP D. No ATP

77. What is the function of cilia in the respiratory tract?

A. Trap and remove particles B. Produce mucus C. Exchange gases D. Warm air

78. What is the end product of glycolysis?

A. Pyruvate B. Acetyl‑CoA C. Lactate D. Ethanol

79. What is the theory of muscle contraction?

A. Sliding filament theory B. Cross‑bridge theory C. Contractile theory D. None

80. What theory explains muscle contraction?

A. Sliding filament theory B. Cross‑bridge theory C. Contractile theory D. None

81. What is the function of the vertebral column?

A. Protects spinal cord B. Supports body C. Allows movement D. All of these

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. Percentage composition by mass in CO2 is:

A. 30% C & 70% O B. 25% C & 75% O C. 27.27% C & 72.72% O D. 40% C & 60% O

83. For the gaseous phases reaction, when number of moles of reactants and products are equal:

A. The values of Kn and Kz is different B. The value of Kp is greater than Kz C. The value of Kz is greater than Kp D. The value of Kp and Kc are same

84. Correct order of boiling points of the given liquid is:

A. H₂O>HF>HCL> NH₃ B. H₂O>HF>NH₃>HCL C. HF>H₂O>NH₃>HCL D. HF>NH₃>NH₂>HCL

85. Which of the following has highest surface tension?

A. Benzene B. Alcohols C. Ether D. Water

86. The compound which exhibits highest vapour pressure is:

A. Water B. HF C. Petrol D. Acetic acid

87. Upon which factor vapor pressure is independent?

A. Temperature B. Intermolecular forces C. Density of liquid D. Surface area of liquid

88. Predict the shape of CsCl having radius ratio of 0.93.

A. Tetrahedral B. Octahedral C. Body centered cubic D. Hexagonal

89. The mass of electron is:

A. 1836 times more than mass of proton B. 1836 times less than mass of proton C. 1836 times more than mass of neutron D. 1836 times more than mass of hydrogen

90. The electronic configurations of some elements are given below. Recognize the element that belongs to group IIIA:

A. 1s2 2s2 2p1 B. 1s2 2s2 2p3 C. 1s2 2s2 2p2 D. 1s2 2s2 2p4

91. The unhybridized p orbital in sp² hybridization is:

A. Perpendicular to sp2 orbitals B. Along the hybrid orbitals C. In the same plane as hybrid orbitals D. Forms only sigma bonds

92. Which of the following sets constitutes all the molecules and ions of non-planar geometry?

A. PH₃, benzene, SO₃, BeCl₂, H₂S B. CH≡CH, CH, H₂O, BeCl₂, H₂S C. SO₂, C₂H₄, NF₃, NO₃⁻ D. CH₄, NH₄⁺, MnO₄⁻, NF₃

93. Liquid in the container has temperature 70°C. What will be the temperature in kelvin scale?

A. 350 K B. 343 K C. 300 K D. 283 K

94. Expansion takes place when a gas is evolved during a chemical reaction between marble chips and dilute HCl. Predict the energy change and work done:

A. w is positive, q is negative B. w is negative, q is positive C. q is positive, no work done D. w is positive, q is positive

95. At equilibrium, the concentration of reactants and product becomes:

A. Zero B. Equal C. Constant D. Infinite

96. In electrolysis of aqueous CuCl₂, the metal deposited at cathode is:

A. Sodium B. Aluminium C. Lead D. Copper

97. Reduction occurs at:

A. Anode B. Cathode C. Both D. None

98. According to collision theory of bimolecular reaction in gas phase, the minimum amount of energy required for an effective collision is known as:

A. Heat of reaction B. Rate of reaction C. Has no effect on reaction D. Energy of activation

99. The difference of lithium from the other alkali metals is mainly because of:

A. Large radius, low charge density B. Small radius, low charge density C. Large radius, high charge density D. Small radius, high charge density

100. Graphite and diamond are allotropes of carbon. Diamond is a non-conductor whereas graphite is a good conductor because:

A. Graphite has a layered structure B. In graphite, all valence electrons are tetrahedrally bonded C. In graphite one valence electron is free to move D. Graphite is soft and greasy

101. The cracking method used to obtain better quality gasoline is:

A. Radiations B. Catalytic C. Steam D. Thermal

102. 1-Butene and 2-Butene show which type of isomerism?

A. Functional group B. Position C. Metamerism D. Chain

103. Polymerization of ethene occurs at:

A. 400°C & 2 atm pressure B. 200°C and 100 atm pressure C. 400°C and 100 atm pressure D. 250°C and 50 atm pressure

104. Aldehydes do not give which identification test:

A. 2,4-DNPH test B. Sodium Nitroprusside Test C. Tollen's Test D. Fehling's Solution

105. Conversion of dihaloalkane into alkyne does not involve:

A. Addition B. Elimination C. Base D. Heat

106. Poly vinyl chloride (PVC) is the type of?

A. Homopolymer B. Thermosetting polymer C. Thermoplastic polymer D. Copolymer

107. What is 50% yield when actual yield and theoretical yield are 2 g and 4 g respectively?

A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 85%

108. The term "mole" was introduced by:

A. Avogadro B. Ostwald C. Dalton D. Berzelius

109. The value of R in L·atm·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ is:

A. 8.314 L·atm·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ B. 0.0821 J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ C. 1.987 cal·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ D. 0.0821 L·atm·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹

110. Dalton's law of partial pressures is:

A. P_total = P₁ + P₂ + ... B. P_total = P₁ × P₂ C. P_total = (P₁+P₂)/2 D. P_total = n₁P₁ + n₂P₂

111. The root mean square speed (v_rms) is:

A. √(3RT/M) B. √(8RT/πM) C. √(2RT/M) D. √(RT/M)

112. The value of R in SI units (J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹) is:

A. 8.314 cal B. 1.987 J C. 0.0821 J D. 8.314 J

113. Which has a higher boiling point, HF or HCl?

A. HCl > HF B. HBr > HF C. HI > HF D. HF > HCl

114. Evaporation rate increases with:

A. Decrease in temperature B. Decrease in surface area C. Increase in surface area D. Increase in pressure

115. Molecular solids consist of:

A. Ions B. Molecules C. Atoms D. Electrons

116. Isomorphism means:

A. Same chemical formula B. Same mass C. Same crystal structure D. Same color

117. In a scratched tin-plated iron, which corrodes?

A. Tin is more active than Fe B. Iron is more active than Sn C. Both are equally active D. Neither corrodes

118. Iodine at room temperature is:

A. Liquid B. Gas C. Amorphous solid D. Crystalline solid that sublimes

119. Pt and Pd are used in:

A. Hydrogenation B. Oxidation C. Halogenation D. Dehydration

120. EDTA forms a chelate complex because it is:

A. Monodentate ligand B. Bidentate ligand C. Polydentate ligand D. Chelating ligand (polydentate)

121. A carbocation is:

A. sp², trigonal planar B. sp³, tetrahedral C. sp, linear D. sp², tetrahedral

122. Phenol is prepared from benzene via:

A. Sulfonation, NaOH fusion, acidification B. Nitration, reduction C. Halogenation, hydrolysis D. Oxidation of benzene

123. Boiling point of carboxylic acids compared to alcohols:

A. Higher than alcohols B. Lower than alcohols C. Similar to alkanes D. Lower than aldehydes

124. Citric acid is found in:

A. Found in vinegar B. Found in citrus fruits C. Found in milk D. Found in tea

125. Nylon is a:

A. Ester B. Polyamide C. Polyester D. Polyolefin

126. General formula of amino acids is:

A. R-CH₂-COOH B. R-CH₂-NH₂ C. R-CH(NH₂)-COOH D. R-CH(OH)-COOH

English 9 MCQs

127. Identify the simile:

A. She trembled like a leaf in the wind. B. She was a statue, frozen in fear. C. She was drowning in doubt. D. Her thoughts were a whirlwind.

128. George Orwell's 'Animal Farm' is a stinging __on the Russian revolution.

A. Myth B. Fallacy C. Satire D. Legend

129. Choose the correct sentence:

A. He asked us would we care to go B. He asked us if we care to go C. He asked us we would care to go D. He asked us we will care to go

130. Select the synonym for: Rakish

A. Curved B. Formal C. Traditional D. Dashing

131. Select the synonym for: Feckless

A. Useless B. Careless C. Dauntless D. Fearless

132. The detective noticed a subtle change in the suspect's tone when he asked about her whereabouts on the night of the crime, which hinted at something more significant. What does "subtle" most likely mean?

A. Dramatic B. Notable C. Obvious D. Slight

133. Which sentence demonstrates the correct use of past tense?

A. She will go to the store yesterday. B. They will be eating lunch now. C. He had finished his homework before dinner. D. We are meeting them tomorrow.

134. When I was a bachelor lived by myself. Fill in the blank with correct punctuation mark.

A. (Semicolon) B. (Colon) C. (Comma) D. (apostrophe)

135. Choose the meaning of "optimistic" in: "Despite the setbacks, she remained optimistic about the future."

A. Pessimistic B. Negative C. Hopeless D. Positive and hopeful

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the most likely direct effect of widespread deforestation?

A. Soil erosion B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

137. What does high inflation cause in the economy?

A. Price rise B. Stock market crash C. Decreased demand D. Market stability

138. What should be the first course of action during a pandemic outbreak?

A. Quarantine all citizens B. Launch vaccination drive C. Close borders D. Distribute masks

139. What to use for electrical fires?

A. Use water B. Call the fire brigade C. Use fire extinguisher D. Close all windows

140. What is overlooked when attributing growth to a single policy?

A. Policy is the sole factor B. Multiple factors exist C. No other factors D. Growth is independent

141. What fallacy is it when people cite a non‑credible expert?

A. Appeal to authority B. Appeal to popularity C. Ad hominem D. Straw man

142. Which pairs are contradictories?

A. A and I B. E and O C. A and O, E and I D. A and E

143. What is the study of logic?

A. Valid inference B. Truth C. Morality D. Aesthetics

144. If P then Q. Q is true. What can you conclude?

A. P is true B. P is false C. P may be true D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. According to maximum power transfer theorem, the maximum power delivered by battery to output is:

A. E²/4r B. E²/5r C. E²/2r D. E²/3r

146. A fireman wants to slide down a rope. The breaking load of the rope is 3/4th of the weight of the man. With what acceleration should the fireman slide down? (Acceleration due to gravity is g)

A. g B. g/4 C. 3g/4 D. 0

147. A 1.75cm height weight-lifter raises weights with a mass of 50kg to a height of 0.5m above his head. How much work is being done by him? (g = 10 m/s²)

A. 212.5 J B. 250 J C. 50 J D. 1225 J

148. Which one of the following is the angular velocity of an electric motor if it is revolving at 400 rpm?

A. 51.2 rad/s B. 41.9 rad/s C. 45.2 rad/s D. 38.5 rad/s

149. In case of angular displacement, one radian is equal to:

A. 60 degrees B. 57.3 degrees C. 360 degrees D. 90 degrees

150. If the length of the second pendulum becomes four times, then its time period will become:

A. 4 times B. Half C. 2 times D. One fourth

151. If the fundamental frequency of vibration of a string fixed at both ends is 50Hz, the fourth harmonic will be:

A. 200Hz B. 150Hz C. 12.5Hz D. 250Hz

152. In Doppler effect if listener moves towards a stationary source then:

A. Observed frequency is greater than original frequency B. Observed frequency is less than original frequency C. Observed frequency is equal to original frequency D. Observed frequency is independent of original frequency

153. If we double the separation between two charges, then Coulomb's force will become:

A. Doubled B. Half C. 4-times D. ¼

154. Two +ve point charges placed 2m apart. Electric potential at midpoint will be:

A. Added to double B. Reduced to half C. Remains same D. Cancel each other

155. A one micro farad capacitor of a TV is subjected to 4000V potential difference. The energy stored in capacitor is:

A. 16J B. 4 × 10⁻³J C. 2 × 10⁻³J D. 8J

156. One meter long copper rod is moving with speed 20m/s in the magnetic field of strength 0.6 tesla. What is the value of induced emf?

A. 10V B. 12V C. 14V D. 16V

157. In principle, the transformer consists of two coils of copper, electrically insulated from each other, wound on the same?

A. Iron core B. Gold core C. Copper core D. Steel core

158. Lenz's law is used to find the direction of:

A. Induced current B. Induced emf C. Both D. Can't find direction

159. The conversion of alternating current into direct current is called:

A. Amplification B. Magnification C. Rectification D. Resolution

160. Mass number A refers to:

A. Number of electrons B. Number of neutrons C. Number of nucleons D. Number of protons

161. Which of the following is the longest wavelength of radiation for the Paschen series?

A. 187000000 m B. 0.00000187 m C. 187000000/m D. 0.00000187 /m

162. After 3 half-lives, the remaining fraction of a radioactive sample is:

A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/8 D. 1/16

163. The Lyman series corresponds to transitions ending at:

A. n=1 B. n=2 C. n=3 D. n=∞

164. The wavelength of the second line of Lyman series (n=3 to n=1) is:

A. 102.6 nm B. 121.6 nm C. 97.3 nm D. 91.2 nm

165. The self-inductance of a coil is proportional to:

A. Square of number of turns B. Number of turns C. Area D. All of the above

166. The frequency of induced EMF in a coil rotating with angular speed ω is:

A. f = ω / 2π B. f = 2πω C. f = ω D. f = 1/ω

167. A galvanometer is an instrument used to detect:

A. Small currents B. Voltage C. Resistance D. Power

168. The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by:

A. Increasing the number of turns B. Decreasing the magnetic field C. Decreasing area D. Using a weaker spring

169. A current loop placed in a magnetic field tends to align its magnetic moment:

A. Parallel to the field B. Anti-parallel to the field C. Perpendicular to the field D. At any angle

170. A flip-flop is a circuit that can store:

A. One bit of data B. One byte C. One word D. Multiple bits

171. An object will float if its density is:

A. Less than the fluid density B. Greater than the fluid density C. Equal to the fluid density D. Independent

172. The density of a fluid changes with temperature. For most liquids, density:

A. Decreases with temperature increase B. Increases with temperature C. Stays same D. Becomes zero

173. Kinetic friction is the frictional force between two surfaces that are:

A. Sliding relative to each other B. At rest C. Rolling D. In contact

174. When an object moves in a circle at constant speed, its velocity:

A. Changes direction B. Is constant C. Is zero D. Increases

175. The period of an object in uniform circular motion is:

A. T = 2πr/v B. T = v/(2πr) C. T = 2πv/r D. T = r/v

176. In positron emission (β⁺ decay), a proton converts into a neutron and emits:

A. Positron and neutrino B. Electron and antineutrino C. Alpha particle D. Gamma ray

177. In an adiabatic process, the heat exchange Q with the surroundings is:

A. Zero B. Positive C. Negative D. Infinite

178. If the force and displacement are in the same direction, the work done is:

A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Maximum

179. The efficiency of a machine is defined as:

A. Useful output energy / input energy × 100% B. Input energy / output energy × 100% C. Output power / input power D. Both A and C

180. The unit of energy in SI is the same as that of work, which is:

A. Joule B. Newton C. Watt D. Pascal

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