MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 5 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Plasma membrane is named so because it surrounds:

A. Semi fluid cell content B. Protoplasm C. Cell wall D. None

2. Which of the following may lead to death by age of three years?

A. Baucher disease B. Gaucher's disease C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Krabbe's Disease

3. Which cytoplasmic organelle make their own proteins?

A. Chromosomes B. Mitochondria C. Golgi apparatus D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

4. Monosaccharides are major components of:

A. DNA,ATP,RUBP,Cysteine B. DNA,NADP,ATP,RUBP C. DNA,NAD,Insulin D. DNA,RNA,Myosin

5. Which statement is true about regarding both starch and cellulose ?

A. They are both polymers of glucose B. they are geometric isomers of each other C. Both can be digested by humans D. Both used for energy storage in plants

6. If in lipids there is higher proportion of unsaturated fatty acids then it will be:

A. Oils B. Waxes C. Phenols D. Fats

7. The simplest amino acid is:

A. Lysine B. Glycine C. alanine D. Proline

8. Which molecular structure of enzyme is essential for the activity of enzyme:

A. Primary B. Secondary C. Quaternary D. Tertiary

9. The term feedback refers to:

A. Enzymes remain unaffected B. Product accelerates the production of enzymes C. Enzyme is inhibited by product D. both b & c are correct

10. Enzyme succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate into:

A. Malate B. Malonic acid C. Citrate D. Fumarate

11. Which of the following is a prokaryote?

A. Protista B. E.coli C. Amoeba D. Fungi

12. Damage to ------- cause death of bacteria:

A. Cell wall B. Cell membrane C. slime D. capsule

13. Number of layers of cell wall in Gram positive bacteria is :

A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4

14. During development in an animal, Mesoderm gives rise to:

A. Nervous system B. Alimentary canal lining C. Muscular and skeleton system D. Mouth

15. The body of diploblastic organisms lack which layer?

A. endoderm B. ectoderm C. mesoderm D. mesenchyme

16. Fasciola is endoparasite of:

A. Colon B. Liver C. Small intestine D. Bile duct

17. Mantle is the feature of ?

A. Annelids B. Echinoderms C. Chordates D. Mussel

18. Which part of chlorophyll molecule absorbs light?

A. Phytol B. Pyrrole ring C. Porphyrin ring D. Thylakoid membrane

19. Some electron from the second primary acceptor may pass back to chlorophyll molecules by electron carrier system, yielding ATP. This process is called:

A. Phosphorylation B. Non-cyclic phosphorylation C. Photophosphorylation D. Cyclic phosphorylation

20. In which part of the chloroplast fixation of carbon dioxide results formation of sugars?

A. Grana B. Stroma C. Intergrunum D. outer membrane of chloroplast

21. How many molecules of ATP will be utilized for phosphorylation of one glucose molecule during glycolysis:

A. one B. two C. three D. four

22. Digestion ___ starts in oral cavity due to the action of enzyme present in the saliva:

A. Starch B. Cellulose C. Fatty acids D. Poly-peptides

23. Which of the following is not a component of bile?

A. Digestive enzymes B. Salts C. Mucus D. Lecithin

24. Magnesium is an important nutrient in plants for the formation of:

A. Proteins B. Lipids C. Chlorophylls D. enzymes

25. Mature mammalian red blood cells do not have:

A. Nucleus B. Red color C. Fluids D. Haemoglobin

26. Cytotoxic T-cells:

A. directly kill invaders B. Aid B cells in their job C. both A and B D. suppress T cell activit

27. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity:

A. Antibodies from mother's milk B. Previous chickenpox infection C. Inactivated polio vaccine D. Live polio vaccine

28. The method which helps in developing immunity against bacteria is:

A. Radiotherapy B. Chemotherapy C. Vaccination D. Antibiotics

29. Which of the following skeletal muscle disorder is an example of autoimmune disorder?

A. Sciatica B. Femur and pectoral girdle C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Rickets

30. Each muscle fibre is surrounded by membrane which is called:

A. sarcomere B. sarcolemma C. twitch fibre D. capsule

31. Which one of the following muscles are considered as Voluntary Muscles?

A. Smooth muscles B. Cardiac muscles C. Skeletal muscles D. Glandular muscles

32. What happens to calcium when skeletal muscles recover from contraction?

A. Released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum B. Released from the myosin head C. Pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum D. Exchange for sodium ions

33. A long extension of a nerve cell is called:

A. Axon B. Auxins C. Schwann cell D. Dendrites

34. Which of the following is an example of spiral-shaped bacteria?

A. Diplococcus pneumonia B. Hyphomicrobium C. Escherichia coli D. Pseudomonas

35. These are required for the impulse to transfer from presynaptic to post synaptic neuron:

A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Proteins

36. Which of the following is a neurotransmitter?

A. Dopamine B. Hydrochloric acid C. Sodium ions D. Calcium ions

37. White matter of spinal cord is made up of:

A. Sensory Nerve fibers B. Myelinated Nerve fibers C. Motor nerve fibers D. Mixed Nerve fibers

38. It is the Seat of all conscious activities.

A. Hind Brain B. Cortex C. Spinal Cord D. Mid brain

39. Follicle Stimulating hormone is secreted by:

A. Ovary B. Pituitary gland C. Adrenal gland D. Testes

40. Which disorder would be diagnosed by a doctor on seeing a patient with a thick and dry skin, puffy eyes and low metabolic rate?

A. Cretinism B. Cushing disease C. Myxedema D. Addisons's Disease

41. Insufficient thyroxine in adults causes ------- disease.

A. Cretinism B. Graves disease C. hyperthyroidism D. Myxoedema

42. When Mendel crossed together two contrasting homozygous individuals, the phenotype of the hybrid in F1 cross appeared to be that of:

A. recessive parent B. Dominant parent C. Indifferent D. None of Above

43. Darwin's Origin of species by natural selection is mainly concerned with:

A. Origin of life B. Adaptation C. Extintion D. Speciation

44. The raw material that is used by natural selection for better survival is/are:

A. Variation only B. Mutation only C. Similarity D. Variation and mutation

45. Locus stands for

A. Position of gene on homologous chromosome B. Regions of chromosome C. Close regions of same chromosome D. Position of an allele within a DNA molecule

46. The neurotransmitters are secreted by the neuron from:

A. Axon ends B. Dendrite end C. Nissl's granules D. Cell body

47. A mature duplicated chromosome consists of:

A. Two identical double helical DNA molecules B. Two different double helical DNA molecules C. A double helical DNA molecule distributed in both chromatids D. Histone chains wrapped around DNA core

48. Which of the following is the correct higher (left) to lower (right) sequence of molecules with respect to their amount in the cell?

A. DNA → rRNA → tRNA → mRNA B. rRNA → tRNA → mRNA → DNA C. mRNA → tRNA → rRNA → DNA D. DNA → mRNA → tRNA → rRNA

49. In which of the following combination, both components have Hyaline cartilage?

A. Epiglottis & intervertebral disc B. Trachea & intervertebral disc C. Nose & pinna D. Nose & trachea

50. Which of the following characters is shared by both skeletal and cardiac muscles?

A. Presence of Striation B. Involuntary control C. Multinucleated fibers D. Intercalated discs

51. Which group of viruses can cause diseases like influenza, measles and rabies?

A. Plant viruses B. Animal viruses C. Fungal viruses D. Bacteriophages

52. Which class of animals excrete ammonia as their primary nitrogenous waste?

A. Uricotelic B. Urotelic C. Ammonotelic D. Ureotelic

53. What type of genetic material do viruses contain?

A. Always DNA B. DNA or RNA C. Always RNA D. Both DNA and RNA

54. Which cells does HIV primarily infect?

A. B‑cells B. T‑helper cells C. Macrophages D. Red blood cells

55. What are the possible forms of viral genomes?

A. Linear or circular, ss or ds B. Only linear C. Only circular D. Only ds

56. What is photorespiration?

A. Fixes CO₂ efficiently B. Fixes O₂ instead of CO₂ C. Produces glucose D. Consumes ATP

57. What property do lipids have?

A. Hydrophobic B. Hydrophilic C. Water‑soluble D. Polymers

58. What is the characteristic of saturated fats?

A. Have double bonds B. Have no double bonds C. Are liquid at room temperature D. Are unsaturated

59. Where does the substrate bind on an enzyme?

A. Allosteric site B. Active site C. Regulatory site D. Inhibitor site

60. What is DNA fingerprinting used for?

A. Identify bacteria B. Identify individuals C. Identify plants D. Identify viruses

61. What is the function of lysosomes?

A. Energy production B. Cellular digestion C. Protein synthesis D. Lipid synthesis

62. What surrounds the nucleus?

A. Nuclear envelope with pores B. Single membrane C. No membrane D. Solid wall

63. How many chambers does the heart have?

A. Two chambers B. Four chambers C. Three chambers D. Five chambers

64. What is the sac surrounding the heart?

A. Myocardium B. Pericardium C. Endocardium D. Epicardium

65. What is the amount of blood pumped per beat?

A. Blood pressure B. Cardiac output C. Heart rate D. Stroke volume

66. What does the pancreas produce?

A. Insulin and glucagon B. Adrenaline C. Thyroid hormones D. Growth hormone

67. What do villi and microvilli do?

A. Decrease surface area B. Increase surface area C. Do not affect D. Reduce absorption

68. What is the function of the large intestine?

A. Absorbs nutrients B. Absorbs water and electrolytes C. Digests food D. Produces enzymes

69. Where does deamination occur?

A. Liver B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Intestine

70. What do enzymes do to activation energy?

A. Increase activation energy B. Lower activation energy C. Do not affect activation energy D. Change the reaction equilibrium

71. What is feedback inhibition?

A. Product inhibits earlier enzyme B. Product activates enzyme C. Substrate inhibits enzyme D. Enzyme inhibits substrate

72. What activates trypsinogen?

A. Pepsin B. Enterokinase C. Trypsin D. Chymotrypsin

73. What is the study of enzymes called?

A. Enzymology B. Enzyme kinetics C. Catalysis D. Biochemistry

74. What is immunity?

A. Resist infection B. Cause infection C. Spread infection D. Cure infection

75. What is incomplete dominance?

A. Blending of traits B. Dominant trait only C. Recessive trait only D. Both traits expressed

76. What is the chromosome theory of inheritance?

A. Genes on chromosomes B. Genes in cytoplasm C. Genes in mitochondria D. Genes in chloroplasts

77. What controls breathing?

A. Brain B. Spinal cord C. Lungs D. Heart

78. What does the appendicular skeleton include?

A. Limbs and girdles B. Skull and vertebral column C. Rib cage and sternum D. Pelvis and ribs

79. Which joint allows sliding?

A. Gliding B. Hinge C. Pivot D. Ball‑and‑socket

80. What is the mollusk shell made of?

A. Calcium carbonate B. Chitin C. Silica D. Cellulose

81. What is the function of the vertebral column?

A. Protects spinal cord B. Supports body C. Allows movement D. All of these

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. How many chlorine atoms are in 2 moles of Cl₂?

A. 32.5 × 6.02 × 10²³ B. 35.5 × 6.02 × 10²³ C. 34 × 6.02 × 10²³ D. 2 × 6.02 × 10²³

83. During stoichiometric calculations, which of the following laws must be followed?

A. Dalton's law B. Law of cons of mass C. Avogadro's law D. Law of cons of energy

84. The average distance covered by the gas molecule between successive collisions is known

A. Free path B. Mean free path C. Total free path D. Total path

85. Vapour pressure is independent of which factor?

A. Temperature B. Inter molecular forces C. Density of liquid D. Surface area of liquid

86. Which of the following solids have strong metallic bond?

A. Potassium B. Phosphorus C. Calcium D. Sulphur

87. The molecules of iodine (I₂) form the:

A. Molecular crystals B. Covalent crystals C. Ionic crystals D. Metallic crystals

88. The p orbital has

A. 2 lobes B. 3 lobes C. 4 lobes D. 5 lobes

89. The Magnetic quantum number of 4f orbital would be

A. -2, -3, -1, 0, +2, +3, +4 B. -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3 C. -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, +4 D. -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3

90. Shape of subshell is explained by

A. l B. m C. n D. none

91. Which of the following is different in Na ( Z = 11), Mg+2 (Z = 12) and Al+3 (Z = 13)?

A. Number of shells B. Number of electrons C. Number of protons D. Electronic configuration

92. The force of attraction among H₂ molecules in solid H₂ are:

A. Hydrogen bonds B. Covalent bonds C. Coordinate covalent bonds D. Van Der Waal's forces

93. AB₄ type with no lone pairs geometry enables to form which shape of molecule?

A. Trigonal B. Regular tetrahedron C. Regular octahedron D. Regular pyramidal

94. Combustion of graphite to form CO₂ can be done by two ways. Reactions are: C + O₂ → CO₂ ΔH = –284 kJ/mol C + ½O₂ → CO ΔH = –110 kJ/mol CO + ½O₂ → CO₂ ΔH = –676 kJ/mol What will be enthalpy of formation of CO?

A. –110 kJ/mol B. –110 kJ/mol C. 110 kJ/mol D. 676 kJ/mol

95. Which of the equations shows twice the enthalpy change of neutralization as the following equation: HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O

A. NH₄Cl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O + NH₃ B. MgCO₃ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O C. KOH + HCl → KCl + H₂O D. H₂SO₄ + Mg(OH)₂ → MgSO₄ + 2H₂O

96. Born–Haber cycle is used to determine the lattice energies of:

A. Molecular solids B. Metallic solids C. Ionic solids D. Covalent solids

97. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte in solution?

A. Acetic acid B. Carbonic acid C. Ammonium hydroxide D. Potassium iodide

98. Oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄ is:

A. 0 B. 1 C. -7 D. 7

99. In the second period of elements, although oxygen lies next to nitrogen yet its first ionization energy is lower than that of nitrogen because:

A. Oxygen is paramagnetic in character B. In oxygen, there exists repulsion between pair of electrons in same orbital C. Nuclear charge of oxygen is greater D. Oxygen has higher electron affinity

100. Flame tests identify alkali metals when they are burnt. Which of the combinations given is the correct one?

A. Li: Red B. Na: Lilac C. K: Red D. Cs: Yellow

101. When CH₃-CH₂-OH is oxidized in the presence of K₂Cr₂O₇ and H₂SO₄, the product formed is:

A. CH₃-COOH B. H-COOH C. CH₃-C-OCH₃ D. CH₃-C-OCH₃

102. Ketones do not give ----- reactions.

A. Addition of NaHSO₃ B. Reduction by Fehling's solution C. Formation of oxime D. Reaction with hydrazine

103. Number of unpaired electrons present in the ground state of Fe3+ are (Atomic number of Fe=26).

A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six

104. 1 g of H₂ contains molecules:

A. 6.02 x 10²³ B. 3.01 x 10²³ C. 12.04 x 10²³ D. 1.5 x 10²³

105. The percentage of nitrogen in NH₃ is:

A. 17.6% B. 82.4% C. 75% D. 25%

106. The threshold frequency (ν₀) is related to work function as:

A. hν₀ = Φ B. hν₀ = 1/2 mv² C. ν₀ = c/λ D. E = hν

107. Mean free path:

A. Increases with pressure B. Decreases with temperature C. Increases with decrease in pressure D. Independent of pressure

108. Water rises in a glass capillary because:

A. Cohesive > adhesive B. Adhesive < cohesive C. Cohesive = adhesive D. Adhesive > cohesive

109. Specific heat of water is:

A. 4.18 J/g°C B. 2.09 J/g°C C. 1.00 J/g°C D. 0.45 J/g°C

110. Glass is an example of a(n):

A. Crystalline B. Amorphous C. Metallic D. Ionic

111. The number of crystal systems and Bravais lattices respectively are:

A. 7 and 7 B. 14 and 7 C. 7 and 14 D. 7 and 14

112. Isomorphism means:

A. Same chemical formula B. Same mass C. Same crystal structure D. Same color

113. Entropy change for phase transition is:

A. ΔS = ΔH/T B. ΔS = T/ΔH C. ΔS = ΔH × T D. ΔS = 1/T

114. The Arrhenius equation is:

A. k = A e^(Eₐ/RT) B. k = A e^(-Eₐ/RT) C. k = A e^(EₐT) D. k = A/T

115. The potential of SHE is:

A. +1.00 V B. -1.00 V C. +0.34 V D. 0.00 V

116. The Nernst equation is:

A. E = E° - (RT/nF) ln Q B. E = E° + (RT/nF) ln Q C. E = E° - (RT/F) ln Q D. E = E° - (nF/RT) ln Q

117. General valence configuration of Group IIIA is:

A. ns² np¹ B. ns² np² C. ns² np³ D. ns² np⁴

118. Silicon is primarily used:

A. Used as a fuel B. Used in fertilizers C. Used in electronics as semiconductor D. Used in jewelry

119. VSEPR theory states that electron pairs:

A. Minimize repulsion between electron pairs B. Maximize repulsion C. Arrange randomly D. Form linear shapes only

120. Octane number reference standards are:

A. n-Hexane = 100 B. Iso-octane = 0 C. n-Heptane = 100 D. Iso-octane = 100, n-heptane = 0

121. Alkynes are also called:

A. Paraffins B. Olefins C. Arenes D. Acetylenes

122. Alcohols have higher boiling points due to:

A. Lower boiling points B. Similar boiling points C. Higher boiling points D. Much lower boiling points

123. Nitriles on hydrolysis give:

A. Hydrolysis of amides only B. Hydrolysis of nitriles C. Hydrolysis of esters D. Hydrolysis of alkenes

124. Potash fertilizers provide:

A. Nitrogen source B. Potassium source C. Phosphorus source D. Magnesium source

125. 2,4-DNP gives a precipitate with:

A. Tollens' test B. Fehling's test C. Iodoform test D. 2,4-DNP test

126. Which undergoes aldol condensation readily?

A. Acetone B. Acetaldehyde C. Benzaldehyde D. Formaldehyde

English 9 MCQs

127. What does the word 'SPILL' mean?

A. Coil B. Deliver C. Spoil D. Spread

128. Dan _______ a lot of friends.

A. has B. have C. is having D. having

129. Choose the correct option.

A. His first inning's consists of four 6 and three 4. B. His first innings consists of four 6's and three 4's. C. His first inning consists of four 6's and three 4's. D. His first inning's consists of four 6's and three 4's.

130. Select the synonym for: Lampoon

A. Irk B. Lacerate C. Gratification D. Ridicule

131. Select the synonym for: Iniquity

A. Equality B. Injustice C. Weirdness D. Efficiency

132. Find the error: Scientist now hope that cloning can successfully be conducted in human beings in near future.

A. can successfully be conducted B. Scientists now hope that cloning C. in near future D. human beings in near future

133. The train ____ the station without stopping.

A. passed B. past C. passed D. past

134. The perfume had a ____ appeal.

A. Sensuous B. Sensual C. Sensuous D. Sensual

135. What is the meaning of "perplexed" in: "The detectives were completely perplexed by the sudden disappearance of the priceless artifact."

A. Excited B. Confused C. Angry D. Sleepy

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the most likely direct effect of widespread deforestation?

A. Soil erosion B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

137. Identify the main flaw: "A survey of 100 people shows most prefer product X, so all customers will buy it."

A. The sample is representative B. The sample is biased C. Data is irrelevant D. The survey is too large

138. What error is made when one event follows another?

A. Temporal sequence equals causation B. Temporal sequence does not equal causation C. No sequence D. Irrelevant

139. What comes next: AB, CD, EF, GH, IJ, ?

A. KL B. KL C. KM D. JK

140. What comes next: A, E, I, M, Q, ?

A. U B. U C. U D. V

141. Some X are Y. What can we say about Y and X?

A. All Y are X B. Some Y are X C. No Y are X D. All X are Y

142. If P is north of Q and Q is east of R, where is P relative to R?

A. P is north‑east of R B. Q is north of P C. R is south of Q D. P is west of R

143. If a number is divisible by 4, it is even. 8 is divisible by 4. What follows?

A. 8 is even B. 8 is odd C. 8 is divisible by 4 D. No conclusion

144. If you are a runner, you run fast. You run fast. What can you conclude?

A. You are a runner B. Cannot determine C. You run fast D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. The magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the applied voltage as long as temperature of conductor is kept constant. It is the statement of:

A. Joule's law B. Gauss's law C. Ohm's law D. Ampere's law

146. The I-V graph for a non-ohmic material is always:

A. Curved B. Horizontal C. Linear D. Perpendicular

147. Equivalent resistance between points A and B is:

A. 3/2 Ω B. 1/3 Ω C. 3Ω D. 2/3 Ω

148. The unit of power in British engineering system is:

A. Horsepower B. Watt C. J•s⁻¹ D. J•s

149. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about the nodes when the string is plucked:

A. Amplitude of vibration is zero B. Do not move along the string C. Produced at the fixed ends of strings D. Distance between consecutive nodes is 1 wavelength

150. Sodium line from star = 589nm, in lab = 497nm. This means the star is:

A. Moving away from the Earth B. Moving towards the Earth C. Stationary D. Revolving around a planet

151. When a gas is compressed isothermally, the product of its pressure and volume during the process is:

A. Not constant B. Constant C. Zero D. Proportional to entropy

152. First law of thermodynamics under adiabatic conditions can be mathematically written as:

A. Q = W B. Q = ΔU C. Q = U + W D. W = -ΔU

153. Specific heat capacity of a gas is measured in:

A. J.kg⁻¹.K⁻¹ B. J.kg⁻¹.K C. J.kg.K⁻¹ D. J.Kg.K

154. The internal energy of a gas during an isothermal process:

A. Decreases B. Increases C. Becomes Zero D. Remain constant

155. Electric field intensity inside a hollow charged sphere is:

A. Maximum B. Negative C. Zero D. Positive

156. If a slab of dielectric constant εr = 2 is inserted between the parallel plates of a charged 20μF capacitor. Its capacitance will:

A. Remain the same B. Be doubled C. Be halved D. Be four times

157. Energy stored in a capacitor is given by:

A. E = 1/2 CV² B. E = 2CV² C. E = CV² D. None of above

158. An AC current generator is a device that converts:

A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy B. Chemical energy into mechanical energy C. Sound energy into mechanical energy D. Electrical energy into mechanical energy

159. In nuclear reaction ₇N¹⁴ + ₂He⁴ → ₈O¹⁷ + __, the missing particle is:

A. Proton B. Alpha particle C. Electron D. Positron

160. The current in an AC circuit is said to be alternating because:

A. Its magnitude and direction change periodically B. Its magnitude is constant C. Its direction is constant D. Its frequency is zero

161. According to Bohr, the angular momentum of an electron is an integral multiple of:

A. h/2π B. h C. h/4π D. h/2

162. The unit of resistance is:

A. Ohm B. Volt per ampere C. Both A and B D. Watt

163. In a series combination of n identical resistors, the equivalent resistance is:

A. nR B. R/n C. n²R D. R

164. In a series circuit, if one bulb blows out, the other bulbs will:

A. Go out B. Glow brighter C. Glow dimmer D. Remain the same

165. The mutual inductance between two coils is 0.5 H. If the current in the primary changes at 10 A/s, the induced EMF in the secondary is:

A. 5 V B. 0.5 V C. 10 V D. 2 V

166. The direction of induced current can be determined by:

A. Lenz's law B. Ohm's law C. Kirchhoff's law D. Coulomb's law

167. The frequency of induced EMF in a coil rotating with angular speed ω is:

A. f = ω / 2π B. f = 2πω C. f = ω D. f = 1/ω

168. The direction of force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by:

A. Fleming's left-hand rule B. Fleming's right-hand rule C. Right-hand grip rule D. Lenz's law

169. The magnetic field at the centre of a solenoid is:

A. Same as inside, μ₀ n I B. Half of inside C. Zero D. μ₀ n I / 2

170. The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by:

A. Increasing the number of turns B. Decreasing the magnetic field C. Decreasing area D. Using a weaker spring

171. A half-wave rectifier conducts only during:

A. One half of the AC cycle B. Both halves C. No half D. Only the positive peak

172. The force between two point charges is given by:

A. Coulomb's law B. Ohm's law C. Faraday's law D. Lenz's law

173. A fluid that obeys Newton's law of viscosity is called:

A. Newtonian fluid B. Non-Newtonian fluid C. Ideal fluid D. Real fluid

174. Kinetic friction is given by:

A. f_k = μ_k N B. f_k = μ_s N C. f_k = N / μ_k D. f_k = μ_k / N

175. A beta particle is:

A. An electron (or positron) B. A helium nucleus C. A photon D. A neutron

176. The process of finding a single vector equivalent to a set of vectors is called:

A. Composition or resultant B. Resolution C. Dot product D. Cross product

177. The frequency of a wave is 50 Hz and its wavelength is 2 m. The speed is:

A. 100 m/s B. 25 m/s C. 52 m/s D. 100 m/s

178. A wave has speed 340 m/s and frequency 170 Hz. Its wavelength is:

A. 2 m B. 0.5 m C. 4 m D. 1 m

179. A bat emits ultrasonic sound waves and detects the echo to locate prey. This uses the principle of:

A. Reflection and Doppler effect B. Refraction C. Diffraction D. Interference

180. If the force and displacement are in the same direction, the work done is:

A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Maximum

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