MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 6 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 6 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Which part of plasma membrane controls the fluidity of the membrane:

A. Glycoprotein B. carrier protein C. lipid D. Carbohydrate

2. Which statement is true about lipid bilayer of plasma membrane?

A. Permeable to large ionic polar compounds B. Permeable to small ionic compounds C. Permeable to polar compound D. Impermeable to all of these

3. How many triplets of microtubules are present in centrioles:

A. 10 B. 8 C. 9 D. 7

4. The active mass movement of mitochondria in the cytoplasm is due:

A. Cyclosis B. Golgi apparatus C. Endoplasmic streaming movement D. Transfer RNA

5. Hydrolysis process is a reverse of __ process.

A. photolysis B. condensation C. deduction D. convection

6. Water is the most abundant compound in living organism its amount varies from:

A. 30 to 60% B. 50 to 60% C. 10-20% D. 70-90%

7. Erythrose is a type of monosaccharides which is commonly is known as :

A. Triose B. Pentose C. Tetrose D. heptose

8. The type of lipids which do not contain fatty acids are:

A. Phospholipids B. Waxes C. Steroids D. Acylglycerol

9. Lipids contain double amount of energy as compared to same amount of carbohydrates due to:

A. Lower proportion of C-H bond B. High proportion of C-H bonds C. High proportion of C-O bonds D. High proportion of oxygen

10. The number of amino acids that have been found to occur in cells and tissues are:

A. 170 B. 20 C. 25 D. 45

11. A disulphide bridge is found in which biomolecule?

A. Enzyme B. Protein C. Carbohydrate D. Lipid

12. Which function is not performed by proteins?

A. Providing structural support to cell B. catalyzing biochemical reactions C. transporting materials across cell membran D. providing insulation against heat loss

13. Phosphodiester bond is:

A. P—O—P—C—O—C B. C—O—P— C. C—O—P—O—C D. C—C—O—P

14. RV4 does not contain:

A. Lysine B. Cytosine C. phosphate D. Thymine

15. The major enzymes involved in transfer of phosphate group from ATP to Glucose is:

A. Isomerase B. Kinase C. Dehydrogenase D. Decarboxylase

16. Enzymes work by lowering the ___ of the reactions they catalyze

A. Kinetic energy B. Activation energy C. Heat energy D. Potential energy

17. Optimum pH for pancreatic lipase is:

A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

18. Function of pilus in bacteria is to:

A. Increase pathogenicity B. Degrade host plasma membrane C. Degrade host enzymes D. Exchange genetic material

19. The cells of non-virulent strain of streptococcus pneumoniae are:

A. Capsulated and called S-Type B. Non-capsulated and S-Type C. Capsulated and called R-Type D. Non-capsulated and R-Type

20. Bacteria that lack flagella are called:

A. Amphitrichous B. Atrichous C. Lophotrichous D. Peritrichous

21. All of the following are physical methods to control bacteria except:

A. Sterilization B. Boiling C. Radiation D. Antiseptics

22. Which one of following is example of free living carnivorous flatworm:

A. Liver fluke B. Dugesia C. Tapeworm D. Schistosoma

23. Round worms belong to which phylum?

A. Annelida B. Coelenterata C. Nematoda D. Platyhelminthes

24. Evolutionary progress towards formation of organ system in cnidarians includes development of enteron and

A. Rudimentary network of nerves B. Symmetry C. Cnidocytes D. Cellular organization

25. Which one is not a reactant of photosynthesis?

A. Oxygen B. light C. CO2 D. water

26. End Product of Calvin cycle is:

A. 3-phosphoglycerate B. 1-3 bisphosphoglycerate C. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate D. Glucose

27. Malate is oxidized by ------ to oxaloacetate in Krebs cycle :

A. ATP B. NADP C. NAD D. FAD

28. In chemiosmosis, the proton (H+) pumps moves from:

A. Stroma to Lumen B. Stroma to cytoplasm C. lumen to stroma D. Cytoplasm to stroma

29. Which statement is correct about glycolysis process?

A. 2 ATP are produced and 2 ATP are consumed B. 1 ATP is produced and 2 ATP are consumed C. 2 ATP are produced and 1 ATP are consumed D. 2 ATP are produced and 4 ATP are consumed

30. What is the residual volume of air which always remain inside of human:

A. 3.5 liter B. 0.5 liter C. 5 liter D. 1.5 liter

31. Breathing consists of:

A. 4 phases B. 3 phases C. One phase D. Two phase

32. In the heart the thick walled chambers are located at the

A. Apex B. lateral side C. lower side D. Dorsal side

33. Which of the following statements is correct about semilunar valves?

A. Present in veins to prevent backward flow B. Present in arteries to regulate jerks in pulsations C. Present in capillaries to regulate flow of blood D. Present in aorta to prevent backward flow

34. Which of following blood vessels have the highest pressure of blood:

A. Aorta B. Pulmonary arteries C. Pulmonary veins D. Vena cava

35. A bone that lies between the skull & postcranial skeleton is:

A. Hyoid bone B. Malleus bone C. Incus bone D. Stapes bone

36. A condition in which a joint becomes swollen painful and immovable is called:

A. Spondylosis B. Arthritis C. Sciatica D. Rickets

37. Where can we find H zone in the figure of fine structure of skeletal muscles myofibrils?

A. in the mid of A Band B. Sarcolemma C. Besides Z-line D. Along the I-band

38. The reflex action is the phenomenon which only involves:

A. Brain,receptors,Spinal cord B. Receptors,Neuron,Brain C. Receptors,Effectors,Spinal cord D. Receptors and effectors

39. It is the Seat of all conscious activities.

A. Hind Brain B. Cortex C. Spinal Cord D. Mid brain

40. In reflex arc the cell body of sensory neurons is located in:

A. Ventral root ganglion B. Gray matter of spinal cord C. White matter of spinal cord D. Dorsal root ganglion

41. Which of the following hormone is responsible for reducing the blood glucose level?

A. Thyroid hormone B. Insulin hormone C. Glucagon hormone D. ADH hormone

42. Which hormone is not secreted by placenta?

A. LH B. progesterone C. estrogen D. all are secreted by placenta

43. Which is a steroid hormone?

A. cortisone B. Adrenaline C. Insulin D. Thyroxin

44. Which among the following is NOT the role of Sertoli cells?

A. Protects sperms B. Provides nourishment to sperms C. Provides liquid medium to sperms D. Secrete Testosterone

45. The labour pain to expel fetus are due to action of oxytocin on:

A. Endometrium B. Myometrium C. perimetrium D. ovaries

46. Female reproductive system consists of all the following EXCEPT

A. Ovaries B. Oviduct C. Cervix D. Seminiferous tubules

47. The corpus luteum is essentially formed from:

A. Graafian follicle B. Oogonium C. Ovum D. Oocyte

48. A person was married to his cousin, and both are heterozygous for sickle cell anemia. Among their four kids, what will be the proportion of affected homozygotes?

A. 50% B. 25% C. 75% D. 100%

49. The animal species on Galapagos resemble species living on the:

A. Northern Europe B. Great Britain C. North American mainland D. South American mainland

50. Which is the common example of use and disuse of organs?

A. snake B. giraffe C. appendix D. ear muscles in man

51. From evolutionary point of view, which respiratory protein is common in many organisms?

A. Cytochrome a B. Cytochrome c C. cytochrome b D. cytochrome d

52. When a gene pair at one locus interacts with another gene at another locus,the interactions is called:

A. Dominance B. Multiple alleles C. Pleiotropy D. epistasis

53. The process of osmoregulation refers to:

A. The filtration of blood to remove metabolic waste B. The regulation of solute and water movement between an organism and its environment C. The creation of an osmotic gradient in the kidney medulla D. The secretion of hormones that control blood plasma

54. The public symphysis is a slightly moveable joint joined by which of the following tissue?

A. Elastic cartilage B. Fibrocartilage C. Costa Cartilage D. Articular cartilage

55. Reversible inhibitors differ from irreversible inhibitors because they:

A. Binds permanently and cannot be removed B. Bind temporarily and can be removed C. Permanently inactivate the enzyme D. Change enzyme structure permanently

56. In which of the following combination, both components have Hyaline cartilage?

A. Epiglottis & intervertebral disc B. Trachea & intervertebral disc C. Nose & pinna D. Nose & trachea

57. Crossing over involves exchange of genetic material between:

A. Sister chromatids of same chromosome B. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes C. Chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes D. Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

58. Why Lamarek is being remembered till today?

A. Due to his rejected but appealing theory of heredity B. Due to his universally acceptable theory of evolution C. Due to his accepted theory of heredity D. Due to his theory of evolution by natural selection

59. Water can circulate in living organisms due to:

A. Surface tension and polarity B. Cohesion and adhesion C. Solubility in cells D. Stable liquid range

60. The Golgi apparatus is structurally made of a series of flattened membrane bounded sets:

A. Grana B. Cristae C. Cisternae D. Vesicles

61. What is the integrated viral DNA in the lysogenic cycle called?

A. Prophage B. Provirus C. Bacteriophage D. Virion

62. Where does the envelope of an enveloped virus come from?

A. Viral capsid B. Host cell membrane C. Viral DNA D. Nucleus

63. What does bacteriophage mean?

A. Bacteria killer B. Bacteria eater C. Bacteria destroyer D. Bacteria inhibitor

64. What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?

A. NAD+ B. Oxygen C. FAD D. Cytochrome c

65. How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration related?

A. They are independent B. They are complementary C. They are opposite D. They are identical

66. In which organisms is chitin found?

A. Arthropods B. Plants C. Fungi D. Bacteria

67. What is the storage form of glucose in plants?

A. Glycogen B. Cellulose C. Starch D. Sucrose

68. What are non‑protein molecules that assist enzymes called?

A. Inhibitors B. Cofactors C. Substrates D. Allosteric regulators

69. Where is blood pressure highest?

A. Veins B. Arteries C. Capillaries D. Venules

70. What is the function of the lymphatic system?

A. Transports oxygen B. Helps maintain fluid balance C. Carries nutrients D. Carries waste

71. What is a heart attack?

A. Blocked blood flow to heart B. Blocked blood flow to brain C. Blocked blood flow to lungs D. Blocked blood flow to limbs

72. What does salivary amylase digest?

A. Protein B. Starch C. Lipids D. Nucleic acids

73. What does the pancreas secrete?

A. Digestive enzymes and bicarbonate B. Bile C. HCl D. Insulin

74. What plasma proteins are synthesized by the liver?

A. Albumin and clotting factors B. Hemoglobin C. Antibodies D. Enzymes

75. What are organic cofactors called?

A. Metal ions B. Coenzymes C. Prosthetic groups D. Inhibitors

76. How many classes are enzymes classified into?

A. Six classes B. Four classes C. Five classes D. Seven classes

77. What is genetic drift?

A. Natural selection B. Genetic drift C. Gene flow D. Mutation

78. What does shivering do?

A. Generate heat B. Release heat C. Conserve heat D. Lose heat

79. What is the pattern of autosomal dominant inheritance?

A. Skip generations B. Appear in every generation C. Appear only in males D. Appear only in females

80. Which systems are responsible for support and movement?

A. Skeletal and muscular systems B. Nervous and endocrine systems C. Digestive and respiratory systems D. Circulatory and excretory systems

81. What is the function of the vertebral column?

A. Protects spinal cord B. Supports body C. Allows movement D. All of these

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. The reactant which is consumed first in a chemical reaction is called:

A. Consumed reactant B. Limiting reactant C. Excess reactant D. Non-reacted reactant

83. Which of the following is the correct equation to calculate relative molecular mass of a gas?

A. M=mPR/VT B. M=PV/mRT C. M=mPRT/V D. M=mRT/PV

84. Which of the following is the most ideal gas?

A. H₂ B. N₂ C. O₂ D. He

85. Which of the following substance is malleable and ductile?

A. Sodium chloride B. Copper sulphate C. Mercury D. Aluminium

86. In an atom , A electron move in the energy level n=1, while the other electron move in n=3, What are ratios of Kinetic energy of A and B?

A. 1:03 B. 9:01 C. 3:01 D. 1:09

87. 'n' represents which of the following quantum number?

A. Azimuthal B. Principal C. Magnetic D. Spin

88. Which of the following has sp hybridization?

A. BF₃ B. BeCl₂ C. C₂H₄ D. CH₄

89. The average bond energy of C–Br is:

A. 228 kJ mol⁻¹ B. 200 kJ mol⁻¹ C. 250 kJ mol⁻¹ D. 290 kJ mol⁻¹

90. In endothermic reactions heat is absorbed from:

A. System B. Surrounding C. No change in heat D. Release into surrounding

91. One calorie is equal to:

A. 4.18 J B. 4.18 J C. 0.418 kJmol⁻¹ D. 0.418 kJ

92. Oxidation number of an element in free state is:

A. Negative B. Positive C. Zero D. 1

93. Which of the following is a balanced redox equation?

A. Na + Fe³⁺ → Na⁺ + Fe B. 3Na + Fe³⁺ → 3Na⁺ + Fe C. Zn + Ag⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Ag D. 2Zn + Ag⁺ → 2Zn²⁺ + Ag

94. Which of the following best describes the ionic reactions of inorganic compounds?

A. Very slow B. Moderately slow C. Very fast D. Not occurs

95. More the ionization energy of an element?

A. More electro positivity B. More the reducing power C. Less the metallic character D. Bigger the atomic radius

96. Which oxyacid of halogen is a strong oxidizing agent?

A. HClO₄ B. HClO₂ C. HClO₃ D. HClO

97. Which of the following has the smallest size?

A. Mg B. S C. P D. Na

98. Which of the following element is s-block element?

A. Sulphur B. Iron C. Potassium D. Neon

99. Which of the following would react with ozone in the atmosphere?

A. F B. O₂ C. O D. Cl

100. Benedict's solution is the combination of:

A. Cu(OH)₂ + NaOH + Tartaric acid (C₄H₆O₆) B. Cu(OH)₂ + NaOH + Citric acid (C₆H₈O₇) C. Ag(NH₃)₂OH + NaOH + H₂SO₄ D. NaCl + NaOH + Citric acid

101. Which of the following contains the maximum number of atoms?

A. 1 mole of CO₂ B. 1 mole of H₂O C. 1 mole of CH₄ D. 1 mole of NH₃

102. The number of electrons in 1 mole of H₂ gas is:

A. 6.02 x 10²³ B. 1.204 x 10²⁴ C. 2 mol electrons D. Both B and C

103. The Pauli exclusion principle states that:

A. Electrons occupy lowest energy levels B. Electrons fill orbitals singly first C. Electrons have wave-particle duality D. No two electrons have the same 4 quantum numbers

104. Gay-Lussac's law of combining volumes states:

A. Simple whole-number ratios B. Equal volumes C. Inverse ratios D. Complex ratios

105. Boiling is a:

A. Surface phenomenon B. Bulk phenomenon C. Occurs only at surface D. Occurs only at high pressure

106. Dipole-dipole forces exist between:

A. Nonpolar molecules only B. Ions only C. Polar molecules D. All molecules

107. Capillary rise height (h) is:

A. h ∝ r B. h ∝ r² C. h ∝ 1/r² D. h ∝ 1/r

108. Coordination number of Na⁺ in NaCl is:

A. 4 B. 8 C. 6 D. 6

109. An open system can exchange:

A. Only energy B. Only matter C. Both matter and energy D. Neither

110. For an exothermic reaction, ΔH is:

A. ΔH negative B. ΔH positive C. ΔU positive D. No change in heat

111. Kc ≈ 1 means:

A. Products dominate B. Reactants dominate C. Reactants and products are roughly equal D. No reaction occurs

112. The Arrhenius equation is:

A. k = A e^(Eₐ/RT) B. k = A e^(-Eₐ/RT) C. k = A e^(EₐT) D. k = A/T

113. Photochemical reactions are:

A. No effect B. Slows down C. Higher D. Stops

114. Charge passed in electrolysis is:

A. Q = I / t B. Q = t / I C. Q = V × I D. Q = I × t

115. Zr and Hf have similar sizes due to:

A. Very different B. Exactly equal C. First series is larger D. Similar sizes

116. Bronze is an alloy of:

A. Cu and Zn B. Cu and Ni C. Cu and Sn D. Cu and Al

117. Alkyl groups in benzene are:

A. Ortho/para directors B. Meta directors C. Deactivators D. No effect

118. The functional group of aldehydes is:

A. -OH B. -COOH C. -CHO D. -CO-

119. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl is:

A. 1-chloropropane B. 2-chloropropane C. Chloropropane D. 1-chlorobutane

120. The simplest alcohol is:

A. Ethanol B. Propanol C. Butanol D. Methanol

121. Vinegar contains:

A. Citric acid B. Lactic acid C. Tartaric acid D. Acetic acid

122. Solubility of carboxylic acids in water with increasing chain length:

A. Increases B. Remains same C. First increases then decreases D. Decreases

123. Difference between thermal and catalytic cracking:

A. No catalyst needed in both B. Catalytic cracking uses higher temperature C. Thermal cracking uses catalyst D. Catalytic cracking uses lower temperature and catalyst

124. Paper is made from:

A. Cellulose fibers from wood B. Cotton only C. Synthetic fibers D. Glass fibers

125. General formula of ketones is:

A. R-CHO B. R-COOH C. R-CO-R' D. R-OH

126. RMgX + aldehyde (other than HCHO) gives:

A. Aldehydes -> primary, Ketones -> secondary B. Aldehydes -> tertiary, Ketones -> primary C. Aldehydes -> secondary (except HCHO->primary), Ketones -> tertiary D. Aldehydes -> carboxylic acids, Ketones -> alcohols

English 9 MCQs

127. In winter, the days and nights is cold. Choose the part of the sentence that carries error:

A. In winter B. The days C. And night D. Is cold

128. He had a heart attack and all attempts to _______ him failed.

A. Renew B. Revise C. Resuscitate D. Refurnish

129. Indolence gives vent to __________disposition in human life.

A. Static B. Energetic C. Enthusiastic D. Filthy

130. Choose the correct sentence:

A. I leaned over the parapet and looked down B. I leaned at the parapet and looked down C. I leaned against the parapet and looked down D. I leaned down the parapet and looked down

131. Select the synonym for: Disdain

A. Vice B. Contempt C. Dislike D. Ignorance

132. We will stay here-----Monday.

A. Till B. Still C. since D. Untill

133. Identify the ERROR in the sentence: the chef quickly prepared, delicious and it served a meal.

A. Punctuation B. Style C. Vocabulary D. Word order

134. The antonym of "Indevour" is:

A. Inaction B. Inexact C. Effort D. Fat

135. The passage says: "The legend of the lost treasure has been passed down for generations. While it adds charm to the local culture, historians warn that local tales often embellish the truth, making it difficult to separate fact from fiction." If a student is researching the history of the area, this legend is:

A. It is completely historically accurate. B. It is a scientific fact. C. It is an unreliable source for historical accuracy. D. It is a modern invention.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What does deforestation directly cause?

A. Soil erosion B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

137. What is the top priority during floods?

A. Distribute relief goods B. Wait for rescue teams C. Evacuate all residents D. Conduct awareness seminars

138. What to use for flammable liquid fires?

A. Use water B. Call the fire brigade C. Use fire extinguisher D. Close all windows

139. What could bias the survey responses?

A. Neutral B. Leading C. Open‑ended D. Closed

140. What comes next: A, C, E, G, I, ?

A. K B. J C. L D. M

141. What comes next: A, G, M, S, Y, ?

A. E B. E C. D D. F

142. What fallacy occurs when the middle term is not distributed in a syllogism?

A. Undistributed middle B. Illicit major C. Illicit minor D. Affirmative conclusion from negative premise

143. What fallacy involves the major term?

A. Illicit major B. Illicit minor C. Undistributed middle D. Existential fallacy

144. What conclusion follows from one negative premise?

A. Negative conclusion B. Affirmative conclusion C. Either D. No conclusion

Physics 36 MCQs

145. Momentum is product of mass and velocity then momentum and velocity are:

A. Parallel B. Perpendicular C. Antiparallel D. Independent

146. 1 J/s is equal to:

A. 1 K B. 1 N C. 1 T D. 1 Watt

147. Power is dot product of:

A. Force and displacement B. Force and velocity C. Force and time D. Work and time

148. A 2 kg mass in SHM under F = −200x, velocity at mean = 100 m/s. Amplitude?

A. 1 m B. 10 m C. 100 m D. 200 m

149. The intensity level (sound level) of faintest audible intensity is:

A. 160 decibel B. Zero decibel C. 140 decibel D. 120 decibel

150. The apparent change in frequency caused by source/listener motion is called:

A. Compton effect B. Zeeman effect C. Stark effect D. Doppler effect

151. 10V potential difference is applied across the plate of 1 μF capacitor what is the energy stored in capacitor

A. 0.5 mJ B. 0.05 mJ C. 5 mJ D. 50 mJ

152. Capacitance of a capacitor does not depend upon:

A. Temperature B. Area C. Medium D. Separation between plates

153. Energy stored in a capacitor is given by:

A. E = 1/2 CV² B. E = 2CV² C. E = CV² D. None of above

154. It stores electrical potential energy:

A. Capacitor B. Conductor C. Inductor D. Generator

155. A loop of 5 turns of wire is placed in uniform magnetic field of 0.5T, then area of loop shrinks at a constant rate of 10m²/s, the emf induced is:

A. 2.5V B. 25V C. 250V D. 0.25V

156. The Lenz's law is also statement of law of conservation of:

A. Charge B. Mass C. Energy D. Pressure

157. The conversion of alternating current into direct current is called:

A. Amplification B. Magnification C. Rectification D. Resolution

158. The decay rate of radioactive substance is:

A. Constant with time B. Varies inversely with time C. Decreases exponentiation with time D. Decreases linearly with time

159. Which of the following series lies in infra-red region?

A. Lyman and Balmer B. Balmer and Paschen C. Paschen and Brackett D. Brackett and Pfund

160. If P is the momentum of an object and m is its mass, then its kinetic energy is:

A. P/2m B. P²/2m C. 1/2 Pm² D. 1/2 P²m

161. In an AC circuit, the ratio of rms voltage to rms current is called:

A. Impedance B. Resistance C. Reactance D. Conductance

162. The Rydberg constant can be expressed in terms of fundamental constants as:

A. R = (me^4)/(8ε₀² h³ c) B. R = (me^4)/(2ε₀² h²) C. R = (me^3)/(8ε₀² h³) D. R = (e^4)/(8ε₀² h³ c)

163. The internal resistance of a cell is due to:

A. Electrolyte resistance B. Plate resistance C. Both A and B D. External load

164. The EMF of a cell is 12 V and internal resistance is 2 Ω. The terminal voltage when it delivers a current of 2 A is:

A. 8 V B. 12 V C. 16 V D. 4 V

165. The quantum mechanical wave function was introduced by:

A. Schrodinger B. Heisenberg C. Einstein D. Planck

166. If the number of turns in a coil is doubled, the induced EMF for the same flux change becomes:

A. Double B. Half C. Four times D. Same

167. The core losses in a transformer include:

A. Hysteresis and eddy current losses B. Copper losses C. Both A and B D. Only copper loss

168. If the magnetic flux through a coil is constant, the induced EMF is:

A. Zero B. Non-zero constant C. Infinite D. Alternating

169. The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying wire was discovered by:

A. Oersted B. Faraday C. Ampere D. Biot-Savart

170. The magnetic field at a point due to a bar magnet on its axial line is:

A. B = (μ₀/4π) (2m/r³) B. B = (μ₀/4π) (m/r³) C. B = (μ₀/4π) (m/r²) D. B = (μ₀/4π) (2m/r²)

171. The study of electric charges at rest is called:

A. Electrostatics B. Electrodynamics C. Electromagnetism D. Electronics

172. The electric field due to a dipole on its equatorial line (far away) is:

A. E = k p / r³ B. E = 2k p / r³ C. E = k p / r² D. E = 2k p / r²

173. The angular velocity ω is related to linear velocity v by:

A. v = ω r B. v = ω / r C. v = r / ω D. v = ω r²

174. In beta-plus decay, a proton transforms into a neutron, a positron, and a:

A. Neutrino B. Antineutrino C. Electron D. Alpha

175. In a cyclic process, the net change in internal energy is:

A. Zero B. Positive C. Negative D. Maximum

176. The work done by a force F displacing an object by d is given by:

A. W = F · d B. W = F × d C. W = F d D. W = F / d

177. The fundamental frequency of a vibrating string fixed at both ends is given by:

A. f = v / (2L) B. f = v / L C. f = 2v / L D. f = v / (4L)

178. Beats are produced when two sound waves of slightly different frequencies superpose. The beat frequency is:

A. Difference of the two frequencies B. Sum of the two frequencies C. Average of the two D. Product

179. The phase difference between two points separated by a wavelength is:

A. 2π radians (360°) B. π radians (180°) C. π/2 radians (90°) D. 0

180. The total mechanical energy of a falling object (neglecting air resistance) is:

A. Constant B. Increasing C. Decreasing D. Zero

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