MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 7 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 7 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane states that protein molecules float in a fluid-layer:

A. Galactose B. Glucose C. Phospholipids D. Carbohydrates

2. The basic structural framework of all types of membranes are:

A. Glycolipids B. Glycoproteins C. Lipoproteins D. Nucleoproteins

3. Secondary cell wall in plants is present:

A. Outer to primary cell wall B. In between two primary cell walls C. Between the primary wall and plasma membrane D. Inner to plasma membrane

4. Which one are intermediates in respiration and photosynthesis both:

A. Ribose and heptulose B. GAD and DHA C. Glucose and galactose D. Fructose and ribulose

5. Glucose is classified as a:

A. monosaccharide B. disaccharide C. Oligosaccharide D. Polysaccharide

6. Less reactivity of sucrose is due to its:

A. High solubility in water B. Polar Nature C. Unavailability of functional Group D. Alpha 1-2 Glycosidic Linkage

7. The number of amino acids that have been found to occur in cells and tissues are:

A. 170 B. 20 C. 25 D. 45

8. In glycine R is _.

A. Fatty acid B. Ethane C. Hydrogen D. Methane

9. Which of the following combination of base pair is absent in DNA?

A. A—T B. C—G C. A—U D. T—U

10. Number of base pairs in one turn of DNA is:

A. 10 B. 2 C. 34 D. 54

11. MD is an example of:

A. Mononucleotide B. Trinucleotide C. Dinucleotide D. Tetranucleotide

12. Non protein but inorganic detachable σ-factor is called:

A. Activator B. Prosthetic group C. Co-enzyme D. Apoenzyme

13. The enzyme which can work on pH 7 of the medium is?

A. Pepsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Trypsin D. Pancreatic lypase

14. Chemical substance that can react with an enzyme faster than real substance and without producing a product is:

A. Accelerator B. Inhibitor C. Co-enzyme D. Activator

15. Enzymatic activity can be inhibited by:

A. Heavy metal ions B. Methane C. Mutase D. Noble gases

16. Bacteriophage viruses were discovered by:

A. Twort and herelle B. louis and virchow C. Ivanowski D. Edward Jenn

17. In bacteria the resistance against heat is provided by:

A. Granules B. Cysts C. spores D. plasmids

18. All of the following are disinfectants to control bacterial growth except :

A. Tincture of iodine B. mercuric chloride C. Potassium permanganate D. Hydrogen peroxide

19. The nervous system develops from which of the following layer during embryonic development:

A. Mesoderm B. Ectoderm C. Endoderm D. Mesoderm and endoderm

20. Shark belongs class

A. Chondichthyes B. Osteichthyes C. Echinodermata D. Urochordata

21. NADP-nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate is a carrier of:

A. #NAME? B. O2 Group C. Hydrogen Ion D. Phosphate group

22. When light falls on P-700, which event is likely to occur?

A. It induces photolysis B. Gains hydrogen C. Accept electrons D. It is oxidized

23. Synthesis of ATP during photosynthesis takes place at the region of?

A. Stroma B. Matrix C. Thylakoid D. Cisternae

24. End product of glycolysis in yeast is

A. Ethanol and carbon dioxide B. Lactate C. Pyruvate D. Acetyl Co A

25. Trypsinogen is released by acini cells of pancreas. It is activated into trypsin by --- enzyme.

A. Amylase B. enterokinase C. ribonuclease D. lipase

26. Smooth muscles are found in all mentioned below except :

A. Trachea B. Bronchioles C. Bronchi D. Alveoli

27. Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissues favors-------- of oxyhaemoglobin:

A. Dissociation B. Formation C. Stability D. Transformation

28. The percentage of carbon dioxide carried as carboxyhaemoglobin is:

A. 70% B. 23% C. 15% D. 7%

29. Which of following protein takes part in blood clotting:

A. Prothrombin B. Immunoglobulin C. Fibrinogen D. Globulin

30. Choose the correct flow of impulse transmission in the human heart?

A. SA Node → AV Node → Bundle of His → Bundle Branches → Purkinje Fibers B. AV Node → SA Node → Bundle of His → Purkinje Fibers C. Purkinje Fibers → SA Node → AV Node → Bundle of His D. SA Node → Purkinje Fibers → AV Node → Bundle Branches

31. In human heart, the left atrium receives

A. The superior vena cava B. The coronary sinus C. The inferior vena cava D. The four pulmonary veins

32. The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into blood stream at?

A. Abdominal vein B. jugular vein C. Subclavian vein D. Bile duct

33. What directly triggers the activation of natural killer cells?

A. Free radicals B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Interferons D. Oxygen

34. In pelvic region of human body, sacrum is formed by the fusion of:

A. 4 vertebrae B. 5 vertebrae C. 6 vertebrae D. 3 vertebrae

35. Vertebrae of the neck are called:

A. Coccygeal vertebrae B. Cervical vertebrae C. Sacral vertebrae D. Lumbar vertebrae

36. Which type of joint is present between ribs and vertebrae?

A. Fixed joints B. Moveable joints C. Ball and socket joints D. partially moveable joints

37. Mature bone cells are called:

A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. osteoclasts D. Chondrocytes

38. Which cavities are present around the joints and contain a thin oily fluid that reduces friction and keeps joints moving freely?

A. Synovial B. Ventricles C. Acetabulum D. Deltoid ridge

39. What do we call the cell surface membrane of a muscle fibre?

A. Sarcolemma B. Plasma membrane C. Sarcoplasm D. Myofibrils

40. Taste buds on the tongue are of:

A. Pressure Receptors B. Chemoreceptors C. thermoreceptors D. Photoreceptors

41. The pressure receptors that receive deep pressure stimulus in humans body are called ;

A. Meissners corpuscles B. Paccinian corpuscles C. Red blood corpuscles D. White blood corpuscles

42. In nervous system Acetylcholine and Nor-adrenalinen are two chemical messengers and are called --------

A. Neurotransmitters B. Hormones C. chemoreceptor D. enzymes

43. The part of brain which guides smooth and accurate motions and maintains body position is:

A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Pons D. Medulla

44. Which part of brain is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as thinking, reasoning and problem solving?

A. Medulla oblongata B. Cerebellum C. Cerebrum D. Hypothalamus

45. L-dopa or levo dopa is used to get relief from:

A. Epilepsy B. Alzheimer's disease C. Parkinson's disease D. dementia

46. In breastfeeding mothers which hormone would be at an increased level?

A. Prolactin B. Thyroxine C. Aldosterone D. Insulin

47. Hormones secreted by anterior pituitary and which controls the secretion of hormones of other endocrine glands are known as:

A. Releasing factor B. Inhibitors C. accelerator D. Tropic or trophic hormones

48. In human males, inhibin hormone is produce by

A. leydig cells B. Hensen's node cells C. Sertoli cells D. Interstitial cells

49. Sperms form in seminiferous tubules and stored in ……… part of reproductive organ?

A. Vasa efferentia B. Ductus deferens C. Epididymis D. Seminal vesicle

50. Male reproductive system consists of a pair of testes which lie in a sac called:

A. Pelvic cavity B. Abdominal cavity C. Scrotum D. Prostate gland

51. Female reproductive system consists of all the following EXCEPT

A. Ovaries B. Oviduct C. Cervix D. Seminiferous tubules

52. Luteinizing hormone , which is produced by the pituitary gland, promotes ovulation and stimulate the ovaries to produce:

A. Estrogen B. estrogen & Progesterone C. Progesterone D. Oxytocin

53. Phenotype is:

A. The genetic complement i.e the genes in an individual for a particular trait B. Partner of gene pair C. The form of appearance of a trait D. The position of a gene on the chromosome

54. The total number of genes present in a particular population, at a particular time is called:

A. Gene B. genotype C. genome D. Gene Pool

55. Evolution is the transformation & mode of existence of an organism in such manner that the descendants differ from their ancestor, according to?

A. Weismann B. Darwin C. Lamark D. Zimmermann

56. Once an action potential reaches the membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber, what is the first event that occurs in the contraction process?

A. Actin and myosin form a cross bridge B. Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum C. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum D. ATP is hydrolyzed by troponin

57. Which of the following is the correct higher (left) to lower (right) sequence of molecules with respect to their amount in the cell?

A. DNA → rRNA → tRNA → mRNA B. rRNA → tRNA → mRNA → DNA C. mRNA → tRNA → rRNA → DNA D. DNA → mRNA → tRNA → rRNA

58. Which layer of uterus nourishes the embryo after implantation?

A. Cervical epithelium B. Myometrium C. Endometrium D. Perimetrium

59. Which of the following muscle types are involuntary in action?

A. Skeletal and smooth B. Skeletal and cardiac C. Cardiac and smooth D. Smooth muscle only

60. Under a microscope plant cells appeared rigid in shape, unlike flexible animal cells. Which structure explain this difference?

A. Cell wall B. Vacuole C. Cytoskeleton D. Plasma membrane

61. According to Darwin, the main force behind evolution is:

A. Migration B. Genetic mutation C. Artificial selection D. Natural selection

62. What is the protein coat of a virus called?

A. Cell wall B. Plasma membrane C. Nucleus D. Capsid

63. What is the final event of the lytic cycle?

A. Release of new viruses without killing host B. Lysis of host cell C. Integration of viral DNA into host genome D. Host cell divides

64. What are the subunits of a capsid called?

A. Capsomeres B. Nucleotides C. Amino acids D. Lipids

65. What is a virion?

A. Viral protein B. Complete infectious particle C. Viral DNA D. Viral RNA

66. When can the lysogenic cycle switch to the lytic cycle?

A. Never switches B. Always switches C. Switches under stress D. Switches randomly

67. How are new viruses released in the lytic cycle?

A. By exocytosis B. By cell lysis C. By budding D. By fusion

68. What is the structural difference between DNA and RNA?

A. DNA is double‑stranded, RNA is single‑stranded B. Both are double‑stranded C. Both are single‑stranded D. RNA is double‑stranded, DNA is single‑stranded

69. Which organelle contains the genetic material?

A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria C. Ribosome D. Golgi

70. What are the main parts of the brain?

A. Cerebrum only B. Cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem C. Cerebrum and spinal cord D. Brainstem only

71. Where are photoreceptors located?

A. Lens B. Retina C. Cornea D. Iris

72. What does the pancreas secrete?

A. Digestive enzymes and bicarbonate B. Bile C. HCl D. Insulin

73. What are the functions of the digestive system?

A. Ingestion only B. Digestion only C. Absorption only D. All of these

74. What is the role of the hypothalamus in thermoregulation?

A. Detects and responds B. Only detects C. Only responds D. No role

75. What are the main types of T cells?

A. Helper and cytotoxic B. Memory and effector C. Regulatory and helper D. Cytotoxic and memory

76. What type of asexual reproduction occurs in bacteria?

A. Budding B. Binary fission C. Fragmentation D. Parthenogenesis

77. What is the menstrual cycle?

A. Male reproductive system B. Female reproductive system C. Both D. Neither

78. What is parturition?

A. Childbirth B. Fertilization C. Implantation D. Lactation

79. What is spore formation?

A. Spore formation B. Budding C. Fragmentation D. Binary fission

80. In which cells does lactic acid fermentation occur?

A. Muscle cells B. Yeast C. Plant cells D. Bacteria

81. Why is respiration essential?

A. Provides energy B. Produces oxygen C. Produces glucose D. None

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. Hydrogen burns in chlorine to produce HCl. The ratio of masses of reactants in the chemical reaction is: H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl

A. 01:35.5 B. 02:35.5 C. 01:07.7 D. 0.131944444

83. One mole of a substance is the amount of that has the same number of particles as there are atoms in exactly:

A. 1.008g of hydrogen gas (H₂) B. 12g of carbon-12 isotope C. 16g of oxygen gas (O₂) D. 12g of magnesium

84. Distillation under very reduced pressure is is --distillation.

A. Destructive B. Fractional C. Steam D. Vacuum

85. What is true about evaporation?

A. It occurs at all temperatures B. It is a surface phenomenon C. It causes cooling D. All of the above

86. All of the following compound have characteristic heat of fusion except?

A. NaCl B. Aluminium Oxide C. Iron Oxide D. silicates

87. Correct order of decreasing electron affinities of Group VII is:

A. F > Cl > Br > I B. Cl > F > Br > I C. I > Br > Cl > F D. Br > Cl > F > I

88. Total number of electron pairs present in the valence shell of central atom in water are:

A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5

89. Expansion takes place when a gas is evolved during a chemical reaction between marble chips and dilute HCl. Predict the energy change and work done:

A. w is positive, q is negative B. w is negative, q is positive C. q is positive, no work done D. w is positive, q is positive

90. Identify the CORRECT option required for maximum yield of ammonia by Haber's process:

A. High pressure, low temperature, continual removal of NH₃ B. Low pressure, low temperature, continual removal of NH₃ C. High pressure, high temperature, continual removal of NH₃ D. High pressure, low temperature, continual addition of NH₃

91. In Castner-Kellner cell:

A. NaOH + H₂ are produced at cathode B. Cl₂ is produced at anode C. NaOH + H₂ are produced at anode D. NaOH + H₂ is produced at cathode & Cl₂ is produced at anode

92. Reduction occurs at:

A. Anode B. Cathode C. Both D. None

93. When the change in concentration is 6×10⁻² mol dm⁻³ and time for that change is seconds, the rate of reaction will be:

A. 6×10⁻² mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹ B. 6×10⁻⁴ mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹ C. 6×10⁻² mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹ D. 6×10⁻⁵ mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹

94. The minimum amount of energy required by the colliding particles for effective collisions is called:

A. Activation energy B. Lattice energy C. Bond energy D. Hydration energy

95. Graphite and diamond are allotropes of carbon. Diamond is a non-conductor whereas graphite is a good conductor because:

A. Graphite has a layered structure B. In graphite, all valence electrons are tetrahedrally bonded C. In graphite one valence electron is free to move D. Graphite is soft and greasy

96. A metal reacts vigorously with cold water melting into a ball of molten metal. It moves across the surface of water giving off hydrogen gas and burns with yellowish golden flame. What could be the identity of this metal?

A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Lithium D. Calcium

97. Oxidation number of central metal atom is written in which language?

A. Greek B. Roman numerals C. English alphabet D. Numbers

98. The introduction of R–C+ group in benzene is called:

A. Acylation B. Carbonyl reaction C. Alkylation D. Formylation

99. Isopropyl chloride is an example of:

A. Primary alkyl halide B. Secondary alkyl halide C. Tertiary alkyl halide D. Quaternary alkyl halide

100. The order of reactivity of alcohol when O-H bond breaks is:

A. Primary alcohol > Secondary alcohol > Tertiary alcohol B. Secondary alcohol > Tertiary alcohol > Primary alcohol C. Tertiary alcohol > Secondary alcohol > Primary alcohol D. Primary alcohol > Tertiary alcohol > Secondary alcohol

101. Which of the following is correct regarding phenol:

A. Phenol and water are equally acidic B. Phenol is less acidic than carboxylic acid C. Phenol is less acidic than water D. Phenol is less acidic than ethanol

102. Ketones can be made by oxidation of:

A. Secondary alcohols B. Tertiary alcohols C. Aldehydes D. Primary alcohols

103. Ethyl acetate is an:

A. Amide B. Acid halide C. Ester D. Carboxylic acid

104. Which one of the following compounds act as catalyst when alcohols react with carboxylic acids?

A. Pt B. Conc. HNO₃ C. Ni D. Conc. H₂SO₄

105. Number of unpaired electrons in Boron in ground state is/are:

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

106. Which of following adhesive is used to bond broken pieces of jewelry?

A. Super glue B. Epoxy resin C. Silicon resin D. Starch

107. Consider the given reaction: N2+3H2→2NH3. If 56 g of N2 reacts with 12 g of H2 and produces 51 g of NH3, what is the theoretical yield (TY) of NH3 and the percentage yield (PY) of the reaction? (Molar mass of N2 = 28 g/mol, H2 = 2 g/mol and NH3 = 17 g/mol)

A. TY = 68 g and PY = 75% B. TY = 34 g and PY = 67% C. TY = 68 g and PY = 33% D. TY = 34 g and PY = 75%

108. An open system can exchange:

A. Only energy B. Only matter C. Both matter and energy D. Neither

109. Decreasing T favors the:

A. Endothermic direction B. No effect C. Depends on pressure D. Exothermic direction

110. In Haber process, temperature compromise:

A. High T always best B. Low T always best C. High T favors equilibrium D. Low T favors equilibrium, high T for rate

111. In contact process, temperature effect:

A. High T favors SO₃ B. Low T favors SO₃ C. Temperature has no effect D. Catalyst shifts equilibrium

112. Reaction rate is defined as:

A. Total amount of product formed B. Change in concentration per unit time C. Time taken for completion D. Energy released

113. Units of k for zero-order reaction:

A. mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹ B. s⁻¹ C. mol⁻¹ dm³ s⁻¹ D. mol⁻² dm⁶ s⁻¹

114. A reducing agent:

A. Causes oxidation, itself reduced B. Causes reduction, itself reduced C. Causes oxidation, itself oxidized D. Causes reduction, itself oxidized

115. A positive E°cell means:

A. ΔG° > 0 B. ΔG° = 0 C. Non-spontaneous D. Spontaneous

116. Which alkali metal is the hardest and least reactive?

A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Lithium D. Rubidium

117. Which catalyst is used in the Haber process?

A. Nickel B. Platinum C. Iron D. Vanadium pentoxide

118. Covalent bond is formed by:

A. Transfer of electrons B. Electrostatic attraction C. Sharing of electrons D. Metallic bonding

119. Shape of BF₃ is:

A. Linear B. Tetrahedral C. Trigonal planar D. Trigonal pyramidal

120. Halogenation of alkanes requires:

A. UV light or heat B. No initiator needed C. Acid catalyst D. Base catalyst

121. An electrophile:

A. Donates electron pair B. Is negatively charged C. Is a base D. Accepts electron pair

122. A carbanion is:

A. sp² hybridized B. sp³ hybridized (usually) C. sp hybridized D. Unhybridized

123. Alcohol in beverages is:

A. Ethanol B. Methanol C. Propanol D. Phenol

124. Phenol is:

A. Less acidic than alcohols B. Equally acidic C. Not acidic D. More acidic than alcohols

125. Lucas reagent is used for:

A. KMnO₄ B. FeCl₃ C. Lucas reagent (ZnCl₂/HCl) D. Na metal

126. Small carbonyl compounds are:

A. Miscible with water (small ones) B. Insoluble in water C. Partially soluble D. Not soluble at all

English 9 MCQs

127. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct:

A. He weighed himself two maunds. B. He weighed two maunds. C. He weighed themselves two maunds. D. He weighed itself two maunds.

128. By 2030, people ___ been reading the words of Charles Dickens for more than 190 years.

A. had B. will C. have D. will have

129. They sometimes feel ______________ for the mountains and the sea.

A. Yearning B. Yelling C. Yielding D. Yapping

130. Select the synonym for: Chivalry

A. Demon B. Cockerel C. Convention D. Stone

131. Don't be in such a hurry. The sentence contains an adjective of:

A. Number B. Distributive C. Quantity D. Demonstrative

132. The plane (ought to) be taking off in a minute. The underlined is:

A. Linking verb B. Modal auxiliary C. Helping verb D. Finite verb

133. Choose the correct sentence:

A. The Three Musketeers was written by Dumas. B. The Three Musketeers were written by Dumas. C. The Three Musketeers has written by Dumas. D. The Three Musketeers have written by Dumas.

134. The word "LABYRINTH" means

A. Maze B. Heap C. Hive D. Knack

135. Which sentence is grammatically correct?

A. I should of gone to the store earlier. B. I should have went to the store earlier. C. I should of went to the store earlier. D. I should have gone to the store earlier.

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the primary cause of darkness during an outage?

A. Power outage B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

137. What do subsidies cause?

A. Increased production B. Recession C. Stagnation D. Hyperinflation

138. What is the top priority during floods?

A. Distribute relief goods B. Wait for rescue teams C. Evacuate all residents D. Conduct awareness seminars

139. How to deter criminals?

A. Increase police patrols B. Install CCTV cameras C. Issue fines D. Reduce working hours

140. What is the basis of "everyone believes it"?

A. Emotional appeal B. Logical reasoning C. Evidence based D. Neutral

141. What comes next: Z, Y, W, S, K, ?

A. U B. U C. U D. V

142. Given All X are Y and All Y are Z, what follows?

A. All X are Z B. Some Z are X C. No Z are X D. Some X are Z

143. If John is older than Mary, and Mary is older than Tom, who is older?

A. John is older than Tom B. Tom is older than John C. Mary is older than John D. Cannot determine

144. All mammals have hair. Whales are mammals. What follows?

A. Whales have hair B. Whales do not have hair C. Some mammals have hair D. Hair is for mammals

Physics 36 MCQs

145. The domestic electricity supply in Pakistan has a frequency of:

A. 150Hz B. 50Hz C. 100Hz D. 25Hz

146. Which of the following is the correct definition of variable velocity?

A. Unequal distance is covered in equal time B. Equal displacements are made in unequal time C. Unequal displacement are made in equal interval of time D. Equal displacement are made in equal interval of time

147. When a body moves with uniform velocity then its:

A. Average velocity is zero B. Instantaneous velocity is greater than average velocity C. Instantaneous velocity is equal to average velocity D. Instantaneous velocity is less than average velocity

148. Slope of displacement-time graph gives the values of:

A. Displacement B. Velocity C. Acceleration D. Distance

149. Power is dot product of:

A. Force and displacement B. Force and velocity C. Force and time D. Work and time

150. The speed of sound in a medium containing ideal gas is NOT dependent on?

A. Density B. Pressure C. Moisture D. Temperature

151. The speed of sound in air is 332m/s. The speed of sound at 22°C will be:

A. 345.2m/s B. 340 m/s C. 350 m/s D. 330 m/s

152. The speed of sound in air does not depend on:

A. Density of medium B. Pressure C. Temperature D. Moisture

153. The thermodynamics is that branch of Physic in which we study:

A. Relations between heat and ionization energies B. Relations between chemical and mechanical energies C. Relations between kinetic and potential energies D. Relations between heat and mechanical energies

154. The sum of all forms of (kinetic and potential) of a substance is termed as?

A. Internal energy B. Elastic energy C. Heat energy D. Absolute energy

155. Transformer works on the principle of:

A. Lenz' law B. Faraday's law C. Mutual induction D. Ampere's law

156. In special theory of relativity, the law of conservation of energy and law of conservation of mass have been replaced with:

A. Law of conservation of mass only B. Law of conservation of energy only C. Law of conservation of mass-energy D. All of the above

157. Terminal voltage of a cell equals its EMF only when :

A. No current flows B. Current is maximum C. Internal resistance is infinite D. Load resistance is zero

158. A diver of mass m is swimming at a depth h below the sea level. If the reference level is taken at sea level, the gravitational potential energy of the diver is:

A. 0 B. high C. -high D. 2mph

159. If the frequency of AC is increased, the inductive reactance will:

A. Increase B. Decrease C. Remain same D. Become infinite

160. The average power dissipated in a series RLC circuit is maximum when:

A. Circuit is at resonance B. XL > XC C. XC > XL D. R is zero

161. The power factor of a circuit is 0.5. The phase difference between voltage and current is:

A. 60° B. 30° C. 45° D. 90°

162. The shortest wavelength in the Lyman series corresponds to the transition from:

A. n=∞ to n=1 B. n=2 to n=1 C. n=3 to n=1 D. n=4 to n=1

163. The kinetic energy of an electron in the nth orbit is:

A. +13.6/n² eV B. -13.6/n² eV C. +27.2/n² eV D. -27.2/n² eV

164. The advantage of a potentiometer over a voltmeter is:

A. It draws no current from the source B. It has high resistance C. It is cheap D. It is portable

165. The temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for:

A. Metals B. Semiconductors C. Insulators D. All of these

166. The work function of a metal is 2 eV. The threshold frequency is approximately:

A. 4.8 × 10¹⁴ Hz B. 3 × 10¹⁴ Hz C. 6 × 10¹⁴ Hz D. 1.2 × 10¹⁵ Hz

167. A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy using:

A. Electromagnetic induction B. Electrostatics C. Thermoelectric effect D. Photoelectric effect

168. The peak value of induced EMF in a rotating coil is:

A. E₀ = NBAω B. E₀ = NBA C. E₀ = NBA/ω D. E₀ = NABω

169. The induced EMF in a stationary coil with varying current in a nearby coil is an example of:

A. Mutual induction B. Self induction C. Electrostatic induction D. Thermoelectric effect

170. The flux linkage of a coil is defined as:

A. NΦ B. Φ/N C. L I D. Both A and C

171. The power loss in a transformer due to eddy currents can be reduced by:

A. Using laminated core B. Using solid core C. Increasing voltage D. Decreasing frequency

172. The electrostatic force is a:

A. Conservative force B. Non-conservative force C. Frictional force D. Magnetic force

173. The blood flow in arteries is an example of:

A. Laminar flow B. Turbulent flow C. Both D. Neither

174. The charge on an alpha particle is:

A. +2e B. +1e C. 0 D. -2e

175. The angular acceleration α is defined as the rate of change of:

A. Angular velocity B. Angular displacement C. Linear velocity D. Torque

176. A particle moving in a circle at constant speed has angular momentum that is:

A. Constant (if no torque) B. Changing direction C. Increasing D. Zero

177. A wheel has angular velocity of 20 rad/s. If it comes to rest in 5 s with constant deceleration, the angular deceleration is:

A. 4 rad/s² B. 5 rad/s² C. 2 rad/s² D. 10 rad/s²

178. In an isothermal process for an ideal gas, the internal energy ΔU is:

A. Zero B. Positive C. Negative D. Maximum

179. The cross product of i and j (i × j) is:

A. k B. -k C. 0 D. 1

180. The work-energy theorem is derived from Newton's second law. It is valid for:

A. Both constant and variable forces B. Only constant forces C. Only variable forces D. Only conservative forces

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