MDCAT (Practice Test) FLP 8 Free Quiz

Biolog

Chemis

Englis

Logica

Physic

MDCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 8 consists of 180 MCQs covering 5 subjects. You have 180 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biology 81 MCQs

1. In which type of cells, cell wall is not present?

A. Plant cells B. Bacterial cells C. Liver cells D. Fungal cells

2. Plasma membrane is differentially permeable membrane due to the presence of:

A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Lipids D. Vitamins

3. Lipoproteins and glycoproteins are formed in:

A. Golgi Apparatus B. Peroxisome C. Lysosome D. Mitochondria

4. The inner membrane of mitochondria is folded to form a finger like structure called:

A. Cristae B. Vesicle C. Matrix D. Cisternae

5. Plastids are only found in:

A. animals and Plants B. Animals C. Plants D. Viruses

6. Three hydrophobic fatty acid tails and a glycerol molecule join to form a :

A. Monoglyceride B. Diglyceride C. Triglyceride D. Phospholipid

7. Which of following is a peptide bond?

A. C-N B. C-P C. C-O D. -C-S

8. Select the protein providing support for the connective tissue:

A. Histones B. Keratin C. Elastin D. Collagen

9. The word protein is derived from which language?

A. Latin B. Greek C. Italic D. Hindi

10. Which enzyme is different from others?

A. Pepsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Trypsin D. Lactase

11. Non competitive inhibitors react with enzyme at:

A. Allosteric site B. Passive site C. Active site D. Regulatory site

12. In 1935 W.M.Stanely prepared an extract of:

A. tobacco mosaic virus B. Human Immunodeficiency Virus C. Flu virus D. Polio virus

13. Many bacteria are motile due to presence of :

A. Flagella B. Pilli C. Cilia D. Microtubules

14. Bacterial cell have ability to maintain its shape through:

A. Cell wall B. Cell wall & slime C. Capsule D. Slime

15. Number of major layer/layers of cell wall in gram positive bacteria is /are:

A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4

16. Students were asked to give a guess about unicellular organism with darkly stained nucleus. Which of following can be straight away excluded from the list:

A. Paramecium B. Amoeba C. Plasmodium D. Lactobacillus

17. Trypanosoma is transmitted in human beings by:

A. Plasmodium B. Anopheles C. House fly D. Tsetse fly

18. Ascaris is:

A. Diploblastic B. Triploblastic C. Haploid D. Acoelomates

19. Earthworm is an example of

A. Detritivores B. fluid feeder C. microphagous D. microphagous

20. Gills changes to eustachian tube in:

A. Fishes B. mammals C. Reptiles D. both b & c

21. Which of the following is the stage of cellular respiration for which oxygen is not essential:

A. Glycolysis B. Pyruvate oxidation C. Krebs cycle D. Electron transport chain

22. In glycolysis, glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate in converted into glycerate-3-phosphate by losing phosphate molecule:

A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 4

23. The enzymes required in glycolysis are present in:

A. Cell cytoplasm B. Golgi Apparatus C. Inner mitochondrial membrane D. Matrix of mitochondria

24. Trypsinogen is released by acini cells of pancreas. It is activated into trypsin by --- enzyme.

A. Amylase B. enterokinase C. ribonuclease D. lipase

25. Portion of stomach which is present immediately after oesophagus is known as:

A. Fundic portion B. Pyloric portion C. Gastric portion D. Cardiac portion

26. A person with a removed gall bladder experiences difficulty in fat digestion due to:

A. Absence of bile B. Uncontrolled release of Bile C. Reduced Alkalinity of bile D. Absence of Bile pigments

27. The following part is common in both the digestive system and the respiratory system of human beings;

A. trachea B. Pharynx C. Larynx D. Oesophagus

28. Histamine is produced by which of following cells:

A. Basophils B. Platelets C. Monocytes D. Eosinophils

29. The cells which play very important role in developing immunity are:

A. Monocytes B. Neutrophil C. Lymphocytes D. Thrombocytes

30. In ECG, QRS wave represents:

A. Ventricular systole B. atrial systole C. Diastole D. Recovery systole

31. The volume of blood pumped per minute by the left ventricle into the system circuit called:

A. Cardiac output B. systole C. Atrial system D. Ventricular system

32. Highest blood pressure is present in:

A. aorta B. arteries C. veins D. capillaries

33. Bone forming cells are:

A. Osteoblasts B. Osteoclasts C. Osteocytes D. Osteons

34. Which type of joint is present between ribs and vertebrae?

A. Fixed joints B. Moveable joints C. Ball and socket joints D. partially moveable joints

35. A joint in which ends of bones are covered with hyaline cartilage and held together by surrounding tube like capsule of dense fibrous tissue:

A. Cartilaginous joints B. Synovial joints C. Fibrous joints D. Immovable joints

36. Which of the following is not a feature of cartilaginous joint?

A. Joint cavity is absent B. Joint cavity is Present C. Synchondrosis contain hyaline cartilage D. Inflammatory

37. When calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum they bind with _ during muscle contraction.

A. Tropomyosin B. Sarcolemma C. Cytosol ions D. Troponin

38. The repeated protein pattern of myofibrils present between two Z-lines is called:

A. Sarcomere B. Zygomere C. Sarcolemma D. Cross bridges

39. The cell membrane of muscle cell is :

A. sarcoplasm B. sarcomere C. sarcolemma D. myofibrils

40. This muscle controls the diameter of blood vessels:

A. Smooth B. Striated C. Cardiac D. Skeletal

41. In a typical nerve , the action potential duration is:

A. 1 milli second B. 1 second C. 1 micro second D. 1 minute

42. These are required for the impulse to transfer from presynaptic to post synaptic neuron:

A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Proteins

43. Which of the following is a neurotransmitter?

A. Dopamine B. Hydrochloric acid C. Sodium ions D. Calcium ions

44. Which part of brain is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as thinking, reasoning and problem solving?

A. Medulla oblongata B. Cerebellum C. Cerebrum D. Hypothalamus

45. Which of the following helps in long term memory in humans?

A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Medulla D. Hippocampus

46. Hormone secreted in bulk due to decreased water content of blood is:

A. ADH B. Glucagon C. Thyroxin D. Oxytocin

47. What is true about Oxytocin?

A. Acts on kidney tubules B. Stimulates ICSH C. Perform cellular functions D. Dilate milk ducts of mammary glands

48. Feeding by living in or on the other organism (host) belonging to different species is called:

A. Mineral nutrition B. Saprophytic nutrition C. Parasitic nutrition D. Symbiotic nutrition

49. Inside ovary Primary oocyte divides through first meiotic division forming two haploid cells, secondary oocyte and:

A. Polar body B. Oogonium C. follicle cell D. Ovum

50. The estrogen hormone secretion during the oogenesis is stimulated by:

A. Leutinizing hormone B. FSH C. Inhibin hormone D. Testosterone hormone

51. To check the homozygosity or heterozygosity of apparently dominant trait, we do the test cross by crossing it with:

A. Any dominant trait B. Homozygous recessive trait C. Homozygous dominant trait D. heterozygous dominant trait

52. He presented the theory of origin of species by means of natural reaction.

A. Lamarch B. Linnaeus C. Hardy-Weinberg D. Darwin

53. Use and disuse of the postulate of organs was given by:

A. Darwin B. Weismann C. Wallace D. Lamarck

54. Kidneys perform their osmoregulatory role under the effect of Antidiuretic Hormone, which type of urine is produced in this situation?

A. Hypotonic urine with decreased volume B. Hypotonic urine with increased volume C. Hypertonic urine with decreased volume D. Hypertonic urine with increased volume

55. The primary function of larynx is:

A. Humidifying air B. Filtering dust C. Gaseous exchange D. Voice production

56. The secondary structure of proteins is stabilized by:

A. Ionic bonds B. Hydrogen bonds C. Disulfide bridges D. Hydrophobic exclusion

57. An active athlete has more stamina of running compared to an officer of same age with physically inactive lifestyle. Which of the following organelles has greatly increased in the muscle cells of athlete?

A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria C. Golgi bodies D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

58. Which is an enzyme activator secreted by the intestinal glands?

A. Amylase B. Pepsinogens C. Enterokinase D. Lipase

59. What is the characteristic of saturated fats?

A. Have double bonds B. Have no double bonds C. Are liquid at room temperature D. Are unsaturated

60. What is the state of unsaturated fatty acids at room temperature?

A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Semisolid

61. What is bioremediation?

A. Produce biofuels B. Clean up pollutants C. Make medicines D. Improve crops

62. What is the basic unit of life?

A. Atom B. Cell C. Tissue D. Organ

63. Where is blood pressure highest?

A. Veins B. Arteries C. Capillaries D. Venules

64. What is another name for the mitral valve?

A. Tricuspid valve B. Bicuspid valve C. Aortic valve D. Pulmonary valve

65. What are rods responsible for?

A. Color vision B. Dim light vision C. Bright light vision D. Peripheral vision

66. What is oxytocin involved in?

A. Growth B. Childbirth and milk ejection C. Metabolism D. Stress

67. What is the role of HCl in the stomach?

A. Activates pepsin B. Provides acidic environment C. Kills bacteria D. All of these

68. What is the function of the gallbladder?

A. Produces bile B. Stores and concentrates bile C. Digests fats D. Produces enzymes

69. What is the liver's role in detoxification?

A. Detoxifies B. Stores toxins C. Produces toxins D. Eliminates toxins

70. Do enzymes change the equilibrium?

A. Change equilibrium B. Do not change equilibrium C. Shift equilibrium to products D. Shift equilibrium to reactants

71. What type of regulation involves phosphorylation?

A. Allosteric regulation B. Covalent modification C. Feedback inhibition D. Competitive inhibition

72. What molecular evidence supports evolution?

A. Same genetic code B. Different genetic codes C. Similar proteins D. Similar cells

73. What is the estimated age of the Earth?

A. 4.6 million years B. 4.6 billion years C. 1 billion years D. 10 billion years

74. What helps maintain blood pH?

A. Buffer systems B. Kidneys C. Lungs D. Skin

75. What are the main types of T cells?

A. Helper and cytotoxic B. Memory and effector C. Regulatory and helper D. Cytotoxic and memory

76. What is the role of fever?

A. Helps fight infection B. Weaken immune response C. Causes infection D. Prevents infection

77. What happens in autoimmune diseases?

A. Self‑tolerance fails B. Self‑tolerance is strong C. Non‑self tolerance fails D. No tolerance

78. What is double fertilization?

A. Double fertilization B. Single fertilization C. Triple fertilization D. No fertilization

79. What connects bones?

A. Joints B. Ligaments C. Tendons D. Muscles

80. What theory explains muscle contraction?

A. Sliding filament theory B. Cross‑bridge theory C. Contractile theory D. None

81. What are osteoblasts?

A. Bone‑forming B. Bone‑resorbing C. Bone‑maintaining D. None

Chemistry 45 MCQs

82. No individual atom in sample of 1 mole of Neon has a mass of 20.18 a.m.u. Because it is:

A. Overall mass of an isobar B. It is a fractional mass C. It is molar mass of Ne D. Average atomic mass of Ne

83. Hydrogen burns in chlorine to produce HCl. The ratio of masses of reactants in the chemical reaction is: H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl

A. 01:35.5 B. 02:35.5 C. 01:07.7 D. 0.131944444

84. The pressure 14.7 psi is equal to:

A. 1 torr B. 1 pascal C. 1 atm D. 1 Nm

85. Vapour pressure is independent of which factor?

A. Temperature B. Inter molecular forces C. Density of liquid D. Surface area of liquid

86. Which of the following sub-shell does not exist?

A. 1p B. 5d C. 3s D. 2s

87. The mass of electron is:

A. 1836 times more than mass of proton B. 1836 times less than mass of proton C. 1836 times more than mass of neutron D. 1836 times more than mass of hydrogen

88. What is the proton (atomic number) of an element that has four unpaired electrons in its ground state?

A. 6 B. 14 C. 22 D. 26

89. Reactants have high energy than products in:

A. Exothermic Reaction B. Endothermic reaction C. Photochemical D. Non-Spontaneous

90. The lattice energy is also called:

A. Energy of affinity B. Bond energy C. Crystal energy D. Potential energy

91. A buffer solution resists or minimizes change in:

A. pOH B. Ph C. pKa D. pKb

92. The value of solubility product (Ksp) depends only on:

A. Temperature B. Solvent C. Pressure D. Catalyst

93. In electrochemical series, what is the electrode potential of all metals above hydrogen?

A. Zero B. Negative C. Positive D. Greater than zero

94. The rate constant 'k' in the rate equation is the rate of reaction when molar concentration of each of the reactant is:

A. 1 M B. 2 M C. 3 M D. 4 M

95. Arrange the following elements according to the trend of ionization energy (C, N, Ne, B).

A. Ne < N < C < B B. B < N < C < Ne C. B < C < N < Ne D. Ne < B < C < N

96. What is the composition of the alloy German silver?

A. Cu + Zn + Ni B. Cu + Ag + Ni C. Cu + Sn + Zn + Pb D. Al + Cu + Mg + Mn

97. How will you distinguish between methanol and ethanol?

A. By Lucas test B. By silver mirror test C. By oxidation D. By iodoform test

98. Why is it necessary to distill aldehyde formed from oxidation of primary alcohol through acidified potassium dichromate(VI) solution or acidified sodium dichromate(VI) solution?

A. Aldehyde formed may be oxidised further to carboxylic acid concerned B. Aldehyde formed is unstable and further decomposes back to original precursor, i.e. primary alcohol C. Aldehyde may be oxidised further to a ketone D. Aldehyde formed may react with primary alcohol, the original reactant

99. Carboxylic acid reacts with ammonia to form ammonium salts which on heating produces:

A. Carbonates B. Alkane C. Ester D. Amide

100. What is 50% yield when actual yield and theoretical yield are 2 g and 4 g respectively?

A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 85%

101. IUPAC name of CHCCI is:

A. Chloroethane B. Chloroethyne C. Chloroethene D. Ethylchloride

102. The empirical formula of glucose is:

A. CH₂O B. C₆H₁₂O₆ C. C₂H₄O₂ D. C₃H₆O₃

103. The number of atoms present in 0.5 mole of helium is:

A. 3.01 x 10²³ B. 6.02 x 10²³ C. 1.204 x 10²⁴ D. 6.02 x 10²²

104. The value of Planck's constant (h) is:

A. 6.626 x 10⁻²⁷ Js B. 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ Js C. 3.00 x 10⁸ Js D. 1.097 x 10⁷ Js

105. The Pauli exclusion principle states that:

A. Electrons occupy lowest energy levels B. Electrons fill orbitals singly first C. Electrons have wave-particle duality D. No two electrons have the same 4 quantum numbers

106. Surface tension is defined as:

A. Force per unit area B. Force per unit length C. Energy per unit area D. Pressure per unit area

107. SiO₂ (silica) has a:

A. Linear B. Layered C. 3D tetrahedral network D. Molecular

108. Isomorphism means:

A. Same chemical formula B. Same mass C. Same crystal structure D. Same color

109. At constant volume, ΔU is equal to:

A. q_p B. ΔH C. q_v D. w

110. Removing a product shifts equilibrium:

A. Left B. Right C. No shift D. Depends on pressure

111. Solubility product constant is:

A. K_sp B. K_a C. K_b D. K_w

112. The logarithmic form of Arrhenius equation is:

A. ln k = ln A - Eₐ/RT B. ln k = ln A + Eₐ/RT C. ln k = Eₐ/RT - ln A D. log k = log A + Eₐ/RT

113. A positive E° means:

A. Spontaneous reduction B. Non-spontaneous reduction C. Spontaneous oxidation D. No reaction

114. The inert pair effect is:

A. Formation of +4 ions B. Formation of +2 ions C. Formation of -2 ions D. Tendency of s-electrons to remain paired

115. Steel is an alloy of:

A. Fe and Ni B. Fe and Cr C. Cu and Zn D. Fe and C

116. Lanthanides predominantly show:

A. Only +3 B. +2 and +3 C. +3 and +4 D. Predominantly +3, but variable

117. Properties of benzene:

A. Non-toxic B. Used as a fuel C. Colorless, toxic, carcinogenic D. Colorless, non-toxic

118. The functional group of alkyl halides is:

A. -OH B. -NH₂ C. -X (halogen) D. -CN

119. Aromatic compounds follow:

A. Cyclic only B. Planar only C. Cyclic, planar, conjugated with (4n+2) π-electrons D. Conjugated only

120. Rate law for Sₙ2 is:

A. Rate = k [RX][Nu⁻] B. Rate = k [RX] C. Rate = k [Nu⁻] D. Rate = k [RX]²

121. Formula of glycerol is:

A. C₂H₄(OH)₂ B. C₃H₄(OH)₃ C. C₃H₅(OH)₃ D. C₃H₆(OH)₃

122. The simplest dicarboxylic acid is:

A. Malonic acid B. Oxalic acid C. Succinic acid D. Glutaric acid

123. Tertiary structure is:

A. Overall 3D shape of single chain B. Multiple subunits C. Linear sequence D. α-helix

124. Reaction for Haber process is:

A. N₂ + H₂ ⇌ NH₃ B. N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ C. N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ D. N₂ + 2H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃

125. Benzaldehyde + conc. NaOH gives:

A. Benzyl alcohol only B. Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate C. Benzoic acid only D. Toluene

126. Baeyer-Villiger oxidation of ketones gives:

A. Carboxylic acids B. Esters C. Alcohols D. Alkenes

English 9 MCQs

127. Choose the correct option.

A. Who isn't here yet asked Parveen. B. "Who isn't here yet?" asked Parveen. C. Who isnt here yet? asked Parveen D. "Who isnt here yet?" asked Parveen.

128. Spot the error: The police report exonerated Anwar of all charges of corruption and job was also restored.

A. The police report exonerated Anwar of all charges of corruption B. and job was also restored C. No error D. No error

129. Spot the error: When he was a child every time he were naughty, his foster-mother used to threaten to send him to Timbuktu.

A. When he was a child every time he were naughty B. his foster-mother used to threaten to send him to Timbuktu C. No error D. No error

130. Select the synonym for: Perish

A. Furious B. Secret C. Come to death D. Frustrated

131. Select the synonym for: Virulent

A. Progressive B. Healthy C. Harmful D. Positive

132. Select the synonym for: Chivalry

A. Demon B. Cockerel C. Convention D. Stone

133. Fill in the blank with appropriate option: The students, accompanied by the teacher __ entering the museum.

A. Is B. Has C. Have D. Are

134. Choose the synonym for "dreary" as used in the sentence: "The dreary landscape of the abandoned house made everyone feel sad."

A. Dreary B. Vibrant C. Cheerful D. Exhilarating

135. What is the meaning of "cogent" in: "The lawyer presented a cogent argument that convinced the jury."

A. Weak B. Confusing C. Illogical D. Persuasive

Logical Reasoning 9 MCQs

136. What is the most likely direct effect of widespread deforestation?

A. Soil erosion B. Urban flooding C. Drought D. Desertification

137. What does power failure lead to?

A. Use of candles B. Partial blackout C. Increased lightning D. Complete calm

138. How to deter criminals?

A. Increase police patrols B. Install CCTV cameras C. Issue fines D. Reduce working hours

139. Who should be prioritized for vaccination?

A. Quarantine all citizens B. Close borders C. Launch vaccination drive D. Distribute masks

140. All X are Y. All Y are Z. What conclusion is valid?

A. All X are Z B. Some Z are X C. All Z are X D. Some Z are X

141. How many terms must a valid syllogism have?

A. Two terms B. Three terms C. Four terms D. Any number

142. What inference changes quality and predicate complement?

A. Obversion B. Conversion C. Contraposition D. Inversion

143. What conclusion follows from two affirmative premises?

A. Affirmative conclusion B. Negative conclusion C. Either D. No conclusion

144. All mammals are vertebrates. Dolphins are mammals. What follows?

A. Dolphins are vertebrates B. Dolphins are not vertebrates C. Some mammals are vertebrates D. Vertebrates are mammals

Physics 36 MCQs

145. The escape velocity of a body in the gravitational field of Earth is dependent on:

A. Launch angle B. Mass & angle both C. Mass of Earth D. Mass of the body

146. Newton's 3rd law of motion is correlated with:

A. Law of conservation of energy B. Law of conservation of momentum C. Law of conservation of velocity D. All of these

147. A car is moving in a circular path at a constant speed. What provides the necessary centripetal force to keep the car moving in this path?

A. The car's inertia resisting any change in direction B. The car's mass pulling it towards the centre of the circle C. The engine's power pushing the car forward D. The friction between the tyres and the road

148. Momentum is product of mass and velocity, then momentum and velocity are:

A. Parallel B. Perpendicular C. Antiparallel D. Independent

149. The 1st law of thermodynamics is the generalization of the law of conservation of:

A. Mass B. Energy C. Charge D. Momentum

150. What is the increase in force between two charges if the separation between them is decreased by 50 percent:

A. Becomes four times B. Increases by half C. Doubles D. Triples

151. For rectification transformer used is:

A. With low input voltage B. With low input resistance C. Step up D. Step down

152. A device that converts AC into DC is called:

A. Diode B. Capacitor C. Transistor D. Inductor

153. While using radiation therapy, cancerous thyroid is treated with:

A. Carbon B. ²³⁵Uranium C. Thorium D. Iodine-131

154. In special theory of relativity, the law of conservation of energy and law of conservation of mass have been replaced with:

A. Law of conservation of mass only B. Law of conservation of energy only C. Law of conservation of mass-energy D. All of the above

155. As per 2ⁿᵈ photoelectric experiment, photoelectric effect does not occur if the frequency of the incident light is:

A. Below the threshold frequency B. Three times the threshold frequency C. Equals the threshold frequency D. Twice the threshold frequency

156. If P is the momentum of an object and m is its mass, then its kinetic energy is:

A. P/2m B. P²/2m C. 1/2 Pm² D. 1/2 P²m

157. The reciprocal of the resistivity of a material is called its:

A. impedance B. conductivity C. admittance D. reactance

158. If A=(a²+b²) and B=4(a²+b²), magnitude of A×B =

A. 4(a²+b²) B. 4abk C. 8(a+b) D. 0

159. The Brackett series of hydrogen corresponds to transitions ending at:

A. n=4 B. n=3 C. n=2 D. n=1

160. The advantage of a potentiometer over a voltmeter is:

A. It draws no current from the source B. It has high resistance C. It is cheap D. It is portable

161. In the photoelectric effect, electrons are emitted from a metal surface when:

A. Light of sufficient frequency falls on it B. Intense light falls on it C. Any light falls on it D. Temperature is increased

162. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular arc of radius R subtending angle θ at centre, carrying current I, is:

A. B = (μ₀ I θ) / (4π R) B. B = (μ₀ I θ) / (2π R) C. B = (μ₀ I θ) / (π R) D. B = (μ₀ I) / (2R)

163. The force between two magnetic poles is governed by:

A. Coulomb's law for magnetism B. Biot-Savart law C. Ampere's law D. Faraday's law

164. An n-type semiconductor is formed by doping with:

A. Pentavalent atoms B. Trivalent atoms C. Tetravalent atoms D. Divalent atoms

165. A semiconductor diode conducts in forward bias due to:

A. Reduction in depletion width B. Increase in depletion width C. Breakdown of the junction D. Thermal excitation

166. The electric potential energy of two charges q1 and q2 separated by r is:

A. U = k q1 q2 / r B. U = - k q1 q2 / r C. U = k q1 q2 / r² D. U = - k q1 q2 / r²

167. The electric potential at infinity is taken as:

A. Zero B. Infinite C. One D. Undefined

168. The torque on a dipole in an electric field is maximum when the angle between p and E is:

A. 90° B. 0° C. 180° D. 45°

169. The viscosity of a fluid is a measure of its:

A. Resistance to flow B. Density C. Compressibility D. Temperature

170. The lift on an airplane wing is due to:

A. Bernoulli's principle B. Archimedes' principle C. Pascal's law D. Continuity equation

171. Capillary action is due to:

A. Surface tension B. Viscosity C. Buoyancy D. Pressure

172. The coefficient of viscosity for an ideal fluid is:

A. Zero B. Infinite C. One D. Variable

173. The centripetal acceleration is given by:

A. a_c = v²/r B. a_c = v r C. a_c = v² r D. a_c = v/r

174. In projectile motion, the vertical component of velocity changes due to:

A. Gravity B. Air resistance C. Horizontal motion D. No change

175. The nucleus that is most stable (highest binding energy per nucleon) is:

A. Iron-56 B. Uranium-238 C. Hydrogen-1 D. Carbon-12

176. The angle between two vectors A and B can be found from the dot product as:

A. cosθ = (A·B)/(|A||B|) B. sinθ = (A·B)/(|A||B|) C. tanθ = (A·B)/(|A||B|) D. θ = A·B

177. The distance between a node and the adjacent antinode is:

A. λ/4 B. λ/2 C. λ D. 2λ

178. The bending of a wave as it passes from one medium to another is called:

A. Refraction B. Reflection C. Diffraction D. Interference

179. If the frequency of a wave is doubled, its period becomes:

A. Half B. Double C. Same D. Four times

180. The wave speed in terms of ω and k is:

A. v = ω/k B. v = k/ω C. v = ω k D. v = 1/(ω k)

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