NCAT (Practice Test) FLP 1 Free Quiz

NCAT (Practice Test) – FLP 1

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Biology

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Biology 40 MCQs

1. What type of genetic material do viruses contain?

A. Always DNA B. DNA or RNA C. Always RNA D. Both DNA and RNA

2. Why are viruses considered non‑living?

A. They are not living B. They are living C. They are prokaryotes D. They are eukaryotes

3. How can viruses be transmitted?

A. Only respiratory B. Only contact C. Multiple routes D. Only food

4. Which enzyme is characteristic of retroviruses?

A. Reverse transcriptase B. DNA polymerase C. RNA polymerase D. Ligase

5. What is the total ATP yield from aerobic respiration of one glucose?

A. 30‑32 B. 34‑36 C. 36‑38 D. 40‑42

6. What is the state of unsaturated fatty acids at room temperature?

A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Semisolid

7. What is gene knockout?

A. Amplify a gene B. Inactivate a gene C. Clone a gene D. Sequence a gene

8. What is the function of the nucleolus?

A. DNA replication B. Ribosomal RNA synthesis C. Protein synthesis D. Lipid synthesis

9. What is the structure of chloroplasts?

A. Single membrane B. Double membrane and own DNA C. No DNA D. No membrane

10. What are chromosomes?

A. Uncondensed DNA B. Condensed chromatin C. Protein D. RNA

11. What is the smooth ER involved in?

A. Lipid synthesis B. Protein synthesis C. Detoxification D. Both lipid synthesis and detoxification

12. Where is blood pressure highest?

A. Veins B. Arteries C. Capillaries D. Venules

13. What is the liquid component of blood?

A. Red blood cells B. Plasma C. White blood cells D. Platelets

14. What do dendrites do?

A. Away from the cell body B. Towards the cell body C. Between neurons D. To the synapse

15. What is the sympathetic nervous system responsible for?

A. Rest and digest B. Fight‑or‑flight C. Voluntary movement D. Sensation

16. How many hemispheres does the cerebrum have?

A. One hemisphere B. Two hemispheres C. Three hemispheres D. Four hemispheres

17. What is the occipital lobe involved in?

A. Reasoning B. Vision C. Hearing D. Touch

18. Which gland secretes growth hormone?

A. Thyroid B. Pituitary C. Adrenal D. Pancreas

19. What does salivary amylase digest?

A. Protein B. Starch C. Lipids D. Nucleic acids

20. What is the function of the anus?

A. Expels feces B. Absorbs water C. Digests food D. Produces enzymes

21. What are allosteric enzymes?

A. Active sites B. Allosteric sites C. Regulatory sites D. Cofactor sites

22. Do enzymes need metal ions?

A. Always need a cofactor B. Sometimes need a metal ion C. Never need cofactor D. Always need a coenzyme

23. What is the transition state?

A. High‑energy state B. Low‑energy state C. Intermediate state D. Product state

24. What do ligases catalyze?

A. Hydrolysis B. Joining with ATP C. Transfer D. Oxidation

25. What environmental conditions affect enzymes?

A. pH only B. Temperature only C. pH and temperature D. Pressure

26. What does "survival of the fittest" mean?

A. Physical fitness B. Reproductive success C. Strength D. Speed

27. What are the three domains of life?

A. Bacteria, Fungi, Animalia B. Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya C. Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes D. Animals, Plants, Fungi

28. What does evolution explain?

A. Diversity of life B. Origin of life C. Extinction D. Adaptation

29. What is the control center for homeostasis?

A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary C. Adrenal D. Thyroid

30. What does ADH do?

A. Increases urine volume B. Promotes water reabsorption C. Decreases water reabsorption D. No effect on water

31. What is innate immunity?

A. Specific B. Non‑specific C. Adaptive D. Acquired

32. What do phagocytes do?

A. Engulf and digest B. Produce antibodies C. Kill infected cells D. Present antigens

33. What is inflammation?

A. Specific B. Non‑specific C. Adaptive D. Acquired

34. What is genetics?

A. Heredity and variation B. Cell structure C. Evolution D. Ecology

35. What is Mendel's law of segregation?

A. Segregate during gamete formation B. Assort independently C. Combine during fertilization D. None

36. What is epistasis?

A. One gene masks another B. Genes interact C. Genes are linked D. Genes are independent

37. What is genetic counseling?

A. Understand inherited conditions B. Treat genetic disorders C. Predict future diseases D. All of these

38. What is parthenogenesis?

A. Without fertilization B. With fertilization C. With two parents D. With one parent

39. Which joint allows sliding?

A. Gliding B. Hinge C. Pivot D. Ball‑and‑socket

40. What protects the heart and lungs?

A. Skull B. Rib cage C. Vertebral column D. Pelvis

Chemistry 15 MCQs

41. The total number of atoms in 1 mole of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is:

A. 6.02 x 10²³ B. 1.204 x 10²⁴ C. 3.01 x 10²⁴ D. 4.816 x 10²⁴

42. Quantum numbers define the:

A. Charge and mass of electron B. Velocity of electron C. Number of electrons in an atom D. Energy and position of electron

43. Ionic solids are composed of:

A. Ions held by electrostatic forces B. Atoms held by covalent bonds C. Molecules held by van der Waals D. Delocalized electrons

44. The first law of thermodynamics is:

A. Entropy of universe increases B. Energy tends to disperse C. ΔU = q + w D. ΔG = ΔH - TΔS

45. If Q_sp > K_sp, then:

A. No precipitation B. Precipitation occurs C. All ions remain dissolved D. K_sp increases

46. Rate of disappearance of a reactant is:

A. d[A]/dt B. -d[A]/dt C. d[C]/dt D. Both B and C

47. The Daniell cell reaction is:

A. Cu + Zn²⁺ → Cu²⁺ + Zn B. Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu C. Zn + Cu → Zn²⁺ + Cu²⁺ D. Zn²⁺ + Cu²⁺ → Zn + Cu

48. Charge passed in electrolysis is:

A. Q = I / t B. Q = t / I C. Q = V × I D. Q = I × t

49. Anodic reaction in rusting is:

A. Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe B. O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻ → 4OH⁻ C. Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ (anode) D. Fe²⁺ + O₂ → Fe₂O₃

50. The functional group of amines is:

A. -NO₂ B. -NH₂ C. -CN D. -X

51. A carbanion is:

A. sp² hybridized B. sp³ hybridized (usually) C. sp hybridized D. Unhybridized

52. Classification of alcohols is based on:

A. Number of -OH groups B. Number of carbon atoms C. Number of hydrogen atoms D. Number of carbon atoms attached to C-OH

53. Uses of oxalic acid include:

A. In baking B. As a solvent C. As a bleaching and cleaning agent D. As a food additive

54. Enzymes are:

A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids

55. Electrolysis of brine gives:

A. NaCl + H₂O → NaClO + H₂ B. 2NaCl + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + Cl₂ + H₂ C. NaCl → Na + Cl₂ D. 2NaCl + H₂O → NaOH + Cl₂ + H₂

English 20 MCQs

56. The soup is ____ hot to eat.

A. to B. two C. too D. too

57. She is ____ at playing the piano.

A. Adapt B. Adept C. Adopt D. Adept

58. The manager gave his ____ to the new proposal.

A. Ascent B. Ascent C. Assent D. Assent

59. She is an ____ professor at the university.

A. Eminent B. Imminent C. Imminent D. Eminent

60. The doctor will ____ some medication.

A. Prescribe B. Proscribe C. Prescribe D. Proscribe

61. She has a ____ sense of wonder.

A. Childish B. Childlike C. Childish D. Childlike

62. The teacher's encouragement emboldened the shy student to speak in front of the class. What does "emboldened" most likely mean?

A. Discouraged B. Confident C. Angry D. Confused

63. What is the meaning of "lucrative" in: "The company decided to focus on the more lucrative international market, which promised substantial profits."

A. Unprofitable B. Difficult C. Profit-producing D. Risky

64. Which sentence uses commas correctly?

A. I bought apples, oranges, and bananas. B. I bought apples oranges and bananas. C. I bought apples, oranges and bananas. D. I bought apples oranges, and bananas.

65. Which sentence is more appropriate for formal academic writing?

A. I do not think that is a good idea. B. I don't think that's a good idea. C. That's not a good idea, I think. D. I think that's not a good idea.

66. Which sentence provides a supporting detail in a paragraph about the benefits of reading?

A. Reading is important for many reasons. B. For instance, reading improves vocabulary and critical thinking skills. C. In conclusion, reading is beneficial. D. Reading can be done anytime and anywhere.

67. Which sentence is grammatically correct?

A. There is a lot of water in the glass. B. There is a huge amount of water in the glass. C. There is a huge amount of waters in the glass. D. There are many water in the glass.

68. Which sentence correctly uses "irrespective of"?

A. Irrespective of it was raining, we went outside. B. Irrespective of the rain, we went outside. C. Irrespective of the rain, we went outside. D. Irrespective of the rain, we went outside.

69. What is the meaning of "espouse" in: "The activist was known to espouse the cause of environmental justice."

A. Reject B. Adopt and support C. Ignore D. Criticize

70. What is the meaning of "cogent" in: "The lawyer presented a cogent argument that convinced the jury."

A. Weak B. Confusing C. Illogical D. Persuasive

71. Choose the meaning of "benevolent" in: "The benevolent millionaire donated millions to build schools in impoverished areas."

A. Cruel B. Selfish C. Kind and generous D. Stingy

72. What does "keen" mean in: "The boy had a keen interest in solving puzzles."

A. Disinterested B. Bored C. Apathetic D. Enthusiastic

73. What is the meaning of "grim" in: "The grim reality of the situation slowly dawned on them."

A. Cheerful B. Bright C. Optimistic D. Gloomy and harsh

74. Choose the synonym for "jovial" in: "The jovial old man always greeted everyone with a smile."

A. Cheerful and friendly B. Gloomy C. Angry D. Sad

75. Choose the correct word: "The car lost ____ wheel."

A. The car lost it's wheel. B. The car lost its' wheel. C. The car lost its wheel. D. The car lost it is wheel.

Logical Reasoning 5 MCQs

76. What direct consequence follows a severe earthquake?

A. Building collapse B. Surface cracks C. Minor tremors D. Aftershocks

77. What is the confusion in the ice cream example?

A. Coincidence equals causation B. Coincidence does not equal causation C. No relation D. Irrelevant

78. What comes next: M, K, G, A, S, ?

A. I B. H C. J D. I

79. What shows relationships between categorical propositions?

A. Square of opposition B. Circle of inference C. Triangle of logic D. Venn diagram

80. If you eat healthy, you live long. You live long. What can you conclude?

A. You eat healthy B. Cannot determine C. You live long D. No conclusion

Physics 20 MCQs

81. The unit of inductive reactance is:

A. Ohm B. Henry C. Farad D. Siemens

82. An inductor allows DC but opposes AC because:

A. Its reactance is zero for DC and increases with frequency B. Its reactance is infinite for DC C. It has resistance D. It stores energy

83. If the frequency of AC is increased, the inductive reactance will:

A. Increase B. Decrease C. Remain same D. Become infinite

84. If the secondary voltage of a transformer is less than primary, it is a:

A. Step-down transformer B. Step-up transformer C. Isolation transformer D. Auto transformer

85. Joule's law of heating states that heat produced in a resistor is proportional to:

A. I² B. R C. t D. All of the above

86. Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction states that the induced EMF is proportional to:

A. Rate of change of magnetic flux B. Total magnetic flux C. Change in current D. Resistance of coil

87. The torque on a current-carrying coil in a magnetic field is maximum when the plane of the coil is:

A. Parallel to the field B. Perpendicular to the field C. At 45° D. At any angle

88. A diode can be used as a rectifier to convert:

A. AC to DC B. DC to AC C. High voltage to low voltage D. Low voltage to high voltage

89. Electric potential is defined as the:

A. Work done per unit charge B. Force per unit charge C. Charge per unit volume D. Energy per unit area

90. The force exerted by a fluid on a surface is due to:

A. Molecular collisions B. Gravity C. Viscosity D. Surface tension

91. Beta decay increases the atomic number by:

A. 1 B. 2 C. 0 D. 4

92. The nucleus that is most stable (highest binding energy per nucleon) is:

A. Iron-56 B. Uranium-238 C. Hydrogen-1 D. Carbon-12

93. The angular momentum of a satellite in orbit around Earth is conserved if:

A. No external torque acts (i.e., gravity is central) B. Its speed changes C. Its radius changes D. Mass changes

94. When a torque is applied to a body, it produces angular acceleration. The relationship is analogous to:

A. F = ma B. F = dp/dt C. Work = Fd D. Power = Fv

95. The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of the conservation of:

A. Energy B. Mass C. Momentum D. Charge

96. For an adiabatic process of an ideal gas, the relation between P and V is:

A. PV^γ = constant B. PV = constant C. T/V^(γ-1) = constant D. Both A and C

97. The vector projection of A on B is:

A. (A·B/|B|²) B B. (A·B/|B|) B C. (A×B/|B|²) B D. (A·B/|A|²) A

98. The speed of sound in air increases with temperature because:

A. Molecular motion increases, speeding up collisions B. Density increases C. Pressure decreases D. Humidity decreases

99. The gravitational potential energy of an object of mass 5 kg at a height of 4 m is (g=10 m/s²):

A. 200 J B. 20 J C. 400 J D. 50 J

100. The gravitational potential energy at infinity is taken as:

A. Zero B. Infinite C. Positive D. Negative

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