NTS GAT Subject (Biotechnology) FLP 1 Free Quiz

NTS GAT Subject (Biotechnology) – FLP 1

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NTS GAT Subject (Biotechnology) – FLP 1 consists of 100 MCQs covering 1 subjects. You have 120 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Biotechnology 100 MCQs

1. What is catabolism?

A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Metabolism D. Catalysis

2. What type of inhibition occurs when an inhibitor binds to the active site?

A. Competitive B. Non-competitive C. Uncompetitive D. Irreversible

3. What are proteins polymers of?

A. Nucleotides B. Monosaccharides C. Amino acids D. Fatty acids

4. What is the primary structure of a protein?

A. Alpha helix B. Beta sheet C. Tertiary structure D. Amino acid sequence

5. What are lipids?

A. Hydrophilic B. Polar C. Water-soluble D. Hydrophobic

6. What are the monomers of nucleic acids?

A. Amino acids B. Monosaccharides C. Nucleotides D. Fatty acids

7. What is the structure of RNA?

A. Double-stranded B. Helical C. Single-stranded D. Circular

8. What is the study of metabolites?

A. Metabolomics B. Genomics C. Proteomics D. Transcriptomics

9. What is GenBank a database for?

A. Proteins B. DNA sequences C. Structures D. Pathways

10. What is the study of evolutionary relationships?

A. Sequence alignment B. Phylogenetics C. Gene expression D. Protein structure

11. What represents evolutionary relationships?

A. Phylogenetic tree B. Protein structure C. Sequence alignment D. Gene expression pattern

12. What is a subset of machine learning that uses neural networks with many layers?

A. Deep learning B. Shallow learning C. Reinforcement learning D. Supervised learning

13. What is SAM/BAM format used for?

A. Aligned sequencing reads B. Sequences C. Structures D. Interactions

14. What did the 1000 Genomes Project provide?

A. Sequencing tool B. Catalog of human genetic variation C. Database D. Software

15. What integrates data to understand biological systems as a whole?

A. Systems biology B. Reductionist C. Molecular D. Cellular

16. What is the basic structural and functional unit of life?

A. Tissue B. Organ C. Cell D. Organism

17. What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells?

A. Eukaryotic B. Have a true nucleus C. Have membrane-bound organelles D. Lack a true nucleus and organelles

18. Which organelle contains the genetic material?

A. Nucleus B. Cytoplasm C. Mitochondria D. Ribosome

19. What is the site of protein synthesis?

A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomes C. Ribosomes D. Vacuoles

20. What is a selectively permeable barrier?

A. Cell membrane B. Cell wall C. Cytoplasm D. Nucleus

21. What is the division of the cytoplasm?

A. Mitosis B. Cytokinesis C. Meiosis D. Interphase

22. What is a group of similar cells performing a specific function?

A. Organ B. Tissue C. Organ system D. Organism

23. What is a structure composed of different tissues?

A. Organ B. Tissue C. Organ system D. Organism

24. What involves combining DNA from different sources?

A. Mutation B. Cloning C. Recombinant DNA D. Restriction

25. What is a DNA molecule used to carry foreign genetic material into a host cell?

A. Vector B. Gene C. Plasmid D. Chromosome

26. What is the transfer of DNA between bacteria through direct contact?

A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Transduction D. Transfection

27. What is the process of introducing DNA into eukaryotic cells?

A. Transformation B. Transduction C. Transfection D. Conjugation

28. What are organisms with altered genetic material called?

A. Natural B. Genetically modified C. Wild-type D. Mutant

29. What is the use of genes to treat or prevent disease?

A. Gene therapy B. Drug therapy C. Radiation therapy D. Surgery

30. What is involved in RNA interference?

A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. siRNA

31. What is Bt corn genetically modified for?

A. Insect-resistant (Bt) B. Herbicide-resistant C. Drought-tolerant D. Virus-resistant

32. What are Roundup Ready soybeans genetically modified for?

A. Insect-resistant B. Drought-tolerant C. Herbicide-resistant D. Virus-resistant

33. What contains genes from another species?

A. GMO B. Mutant C. Wild-type D. Transgenic

34. What is the creation of an organism genetically identical to another?

A. Reproductive cloning B. Therapeutic cloning C. Gene cloning D. Cell cloning

35. What is genetics?

A. Heredity and variation B. Heredity only C. Variation only D. Mutations only

36. What is Mendel's Law of Segregation?

A. Independent assortment B. Dominance C. Segregation D. Linkage

37. What is used to predict the outcome of genetic crosses?

A. Chromosome B. Punnett square C. Gene D. Allele

38. What is Turner syndrome?

A. XXY B. XYY C. XO D. XXX

39. What is used to map genes on chromosomes?

A. Mutation rate B. Selection coefficient C. Fitness D. Recombination frequency

40. What are T cells involved in?

A. Produce antibodies B. Innate immunity C. Cell-mediated immunity D. Macrophages

41. What contains an antigen to stimulate immunity?

A. Vaccine B. Antibiotic C. Antiviral D. Cytokine

42. What is the production of antibodies in response to an antigen?

A. Passive B. Active C. Natural D. Artificial

43. What are cytokines that have antiviral properties?

A. Antibodies B. Antigens C. Interferons D. Complement proteins

44. What occurs when the immune system attacks the body's own tissues?

A. Immunodeficiency B. Allergy C. Infection D. Autoimmune disease

45. What are identical antibodies produced by a single clone of cells?

A. Polyclonal B. Monoclonal C. Natural D. Synthetic

46. What technology is used to produce monoclonal antibodies?

A. Hybridoma B. PCR C. CRISPR D. RNAi

47. What uses the immune system to treat diseases?

A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation C. Immunotherapy D. Surgery

48. What are used in immunotherapy to enhance the immune response against cancer?

A. Antibiotics B. Antivirals C. Antifungals D. Checkpoint inhibitors

49. What are long-lived cells that provide rapid responses?

A. Effector cells B. Regulatory cells C. Memory cells D. Naïve cells

50. What type of immunity is mediated by antibodies?

A. Cell-mediated B. Humoral C. Innate D. Passive

51. What is industrial biotechnology?

A. Biological systems for industrial products B. Fermentation only C. Enzyme production only D. Waste treatment only

52. What is a key process in industrial biotechnology?

A. Distillation B. Filtration C. Fermentation D. Chromatography

53. How is biogas produced?

A. Anaerobic digestion B. Aerobic digestion C. Combustion D. Pyrolysis

54. What are microorganisms that enhance soil fertility?

A. Chemical fertilizers B. Organic fertilizers C. Biofertilizers D. Pesticides

55. What are live microorganisms that provide health benefits?

A. Pathogens B. Antibiotics C. Vaccines D. Probiotics

56. What are non-digestible food ingredients that promote beneficial bacteria?

A. Probiotics B. Prebiotics C. Antibiotics D. Vaccines

57. What includes the preparation of nutrients and inoculation?

A. Downstream B. Purification C. Upstream D. Recovery

58. What technique is used in downstream processing for purification?

A. Filtration B. Centrifugation C. Distillation D. Chromatography

59. What increases the production volume from laboratory to industrial scale?

A. Scale-up B. Scale-down C. Optimization D. Characterization

60. What ensures product consistency and safety?

A. Process control B. Quality assurance C. Batch control D. Quality control

61. What is the optimization of microbial strains for industrial production?

A. Fermentation B. Downstream C. Strain improvement D. Upstream

62. What modifies metabolic pathways to improve product yield?

A. Genetic engineering B. Strain improvement C. Fermentation D. Metabolic engineering

63. What aims to create a sustainable, zero-waste system using biological resources?

A. Circular bioeconomy B. Linear economy C. Fossil economy D. Recycling economy

64. What does sustainability in industrial biotechnology involve?

A. Using fossil fuels B. Increasing waste C. Using renewable resources and minimizing waste D. Reducing efficiency

65. What does microbiology study?

A. Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa B. Bacteria only C. Viruses only D. Fungi only

66. What is Gram staining used for?

A. Viruses B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Protozoa

67. What are Gram-positive bacteria?

A. Gram-negative B. Thin peptidoglycan C. Stain pink D. Thick peptidoglycan, stain purple

68. What type of bacteria require oxygen for growth?

A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic C. Facultative D. Microaerophilic

69. What is a virus composed of?

A. Cell B. Bacterium C. Fungus D. DNA or RNA in protein coat

70. What are disease-causing microorganisms called?

A. Pathogens B. Beneficial C. Harmless D. Probiotics

71. What are antibiotics used to treat?

A. Viruses B. Fungi C. Bacterial infections D. Protozoa

72. What are live microorganisms that provide health benefits?

A. Probiotics B. Pathogens C. Antibiotics D. Vaccines

73. What is the process of eliminating all microorganisms, including spores?

A. Sterilization B. Disinfection C. Sanitation D. Antisepsis

74. What reduces the number of microorganisms but does not eliminate spores?

A. Sterilization B. Antisepsis C. Disinfection D. Sanitation

75. What is the application of antimicrobial agents to living tissue?

A. Sterilization B. Disinfection C. Sanitation D. Antisepsis

76. What uses steam under pressure for sterilization?

A. Microscope B. Autoclave C. Centrifuge D. Incubator

77. What uses microorganisms to clean up environmental pollutants?

A. Bioremediation B. Disinfection C. Sterilization D. Antisepsis

78. What is fermentation?

A. Respiration B. Photosynthesis C. Fermentation D. Glycolysis

79. What are used in the production of yogurt and cheese?

A. Pathogenic B. Viruses C. Fungi D. Lactic acid bacteria

80. What allows bacteria to acquire genes from other bacteria?

A. Horizontal gene transfer B. Vertical gene transfer C. Mutation D. Recombination

81. What is the community of microorganisms living in a particular environment?

A. Single microorganism B. Pathogen C. Microbiome D. Vaccine

82. What is translation?

A. Translation B. Transcription C. Replication D. Splicing

83. Which enzyme is responsible for DNA replication?

A. RNA polymerase B. Helicase C. DNA polymerase D. Ligase

84. What is a gene?

A. A chromosome B. An allele C. A segment of DNA coding for a product D. A nucleotide

85. What is an operon?

A. Plasmid B. Operon C. Chromosome D. Transposon

86. Which is a classic example of gene regulation in bacteria?

A. Lac operon B. Trp operon C. Ara operon D. Gal operon

87. What is a plasmid?

A. Gene B. Operon C. Plasmid D. Transposon

88. What cut DNA at specific sequences?

A. Ligases B. Polymerases C. Helicases D. Restriction enzymes

89. What are telomeres?

A. Centromeres B. Origins of replication C. Telomeres D. Genes

90. What are introns?

A. Exons B. Introns C. Codons D. Anticodons

91. What are exons?

A. Exons B. Introns C. Codons D. Anticodons

92. Where does protein synthesis occur?

A. Ribosome B. Nucleus C. Mitochondria D. Endoplasmic reticulum

93. What is the basic unit of DNA packaging?

A. Gene B. Chromosome C. Nucleosome D. Plasmid

94. What is the ability of a plant cell to regenerate into a whole plant?

A. Differentiation B. Dedifferentiation C. Transdifferentiation D. Totipotency

95. What bacterium is used to transfer genes into plants?

A. E. coli B. Agrobacterium tumefaciens C. Bacillus D. Pseudomonas

96. What is used in plant genetic transformation?

A. Ti plasmid B. Viral vector C. Bacterial artificial chromosome D. Yeast plasmid

97. What controls plant growth and development in tissue culture?

A. Antibiotics B. Plant growth regulators C. Herbicides D. Pesticides

98. What is the process of increasing nutrient content in crops?

A. Mutagenesis B. Biofortification C. Hybridization D. Tissue culture

99. What type of crops are developed for water-scarce environments?

A. Drought-tolerant B. Insect-resistant C. Herbicide-resistant D. Virus-resistant

100. What uses plants to produce pharmaceuticals or industrial proteins?

A. Fermenter B. Bioreactor C. Biofertilizer D. Plant bioreactor

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