NTS GAT Subject (Biotechnology) FLP 2 Free Quiz

1. What is biochemistry?

A. Chemical processes within living organisms B. Metabolism only C. Enzymes only D. Proteins only

2. What is a cofactor?

A. Substrate B. Cofactor C. Product D. Inhibitor

3. What are the simplest form of carbohydrates?

A. Polysaccharides B. Monosaccharides C. Disaccharides D. Oligosaccharides

4. What is the three-dimensional shape of a protein?

A. Tertiary structure B. Primary structure C. Secondary structure D. Quaternary structure

5. What are lipids?

A. Hydrophilic B. Polar C. Water-soluble D. Hydrophobic

6. What are major components of cell membranes?

A. Phospholipids B. Triglycerides C. Steroids D. Waxes

7. What converts light energy into chemical energy?

A. Respiration B. Fermentation C. Glycolysis D. Photosynthesis

8. What pigment captures light energy in photosynthesis?

A. Carotenoid B. Chlorophyll C. Phycobilin D. Melanin

9. What is the structure of RNA?

A. Double-stranded B. Helical C. Single-stranded D. Circular

10. What is bioinformatics?

A. Computational analysis of biological data B. Genomics only C. Proteomics only D. Sequencing only

11. What is the study of the transcriptome?

A. Genomics B. Transcriptomics C. Proteomics D. Metabolomics

12. What is the Protein Data Bank a database for?

A. Protein structures B. DNA sequences C. RNA sequences D. Gene expression

13. What is the process of identifying features in a genome?

A. Sequencing B. Genome annotation C. Assembly D. Alignment

14. What is SAM/BAM format used for?

A. Aligned sequencing reads B. Sequences C. Structures D. Interactions

15. What was the Human Genome Project?

A. Bioinformatics tool B. Database C. Sequencing method D. International genome mapping effort

16. What did the 1000 Genomes Project provide?

A. Sequencing tool B. Catalog of human genetic variation C. Database D. Software

17. What does cell biology study?

A. Cell structure, function, and processes B. Structure only C. Function only D. Processes only

18. What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells?

A. Eukaryotic B. Have a true nucleus C. Have membrane-bound organelles D. Lack a true nucleus and organelles

19. Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?

A. Mitochondria B. Ribosomes C. Lysosomes D. Chloroplasts

20. What is involved in protein and lipid synthesis?

A. Golgi apparatus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Mitochondria D. Ribosome

21. What is the site of protein synthesis?

A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomes C. Ribosomes D. Vacuoles

22. What store water, nutrients, and waste in plant cells?

A. Vesicles B. Vacuoles C. Lysosomes D. Peroxisomes

23. What is the gel-like substance that fills the cell?

A. Nucleus B. Cell membrane C. Cell wall D. Cytoplasm

24. What is the process of releasing materials from the cell?

A. Endocytosis B. Phagocytosis C. Pinocytosis D. Exocytosis

25. What is programmed cell death?

A. Apoptosis B. Necrosis C. Autophagy D. Phagocytosis

26. What are undifferentiated cells with potential to become specialized?

A. Differentiated cells B. Dead cells C. Cancer cells D. Stem cells

27. What is a group of similar cells performing a specific function?

A. Organ B. Tissue C. Organ system D. Organism

28. What involves combining DNA from different sources?

A. Mutation B. Cloning C. Recombinant DNA D. Restriction

29. What enzyme is used to join DNA fragments?

A. Restriction enzyme B. DNA ligase C. Polymerase D. Helicase

30. What is the transfer of DNA between bacteria through direct contact?

A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Transduction D. Transfection

31. What is used to identify cells that have taken up foreign DNA?

A. Gene B. Promoter C. Terminator D. Selectable marker

32. What are commonly used as selectable markers?

A. Reporter genes B. Antibiotic resistance genes C. Regulatory genes D. Structural genes

33. What is a gene-editing tool derived from bacterial immune systems?

A. CRISPR-Cas9 B. TALEN C. ZFN D. siRNA

34. What are gene-editing tools that use engineered proteins?

A. CRISPR B. TALEN C. ZFN D. siRNA

35. What are gene-editing tools that use transcription activator-like effector proteins?

A. CRISPR B. ZFN C. siRNA D. TALEN

36. What are Roundup Ready soybeans genetically modified for?

A. Insect-resistant B. Drought-tolerant C. Herbicide-resistant D. Virus-resistant

37. What produces genetically identical copies of an organism?

A. Mutation B. Cloning C. Recombination D. Transformation

38. What is the creation of an organism genetically identical to another?

A. Reproductive cloning B. Therapeutic cloning C. Gene cloning D. Cell cloning

39. Who is known as the father of genetics?

A. Darwin B. Lamarck C. Gregor Mendel D. Watson

40. What is Mendel's Law of Segregation?

A. Independent assortment B. Dominance C. Segregation D. Linkage

41. What is used to predict the outcome of genetic crosses?

A. Chromosome B. Punnett square C. Gene D. Allele

42. What results in both alleles being expressed equally?

A. Incomplete B. Complete C. Co-dominance D. Epistasis

43. What is Turner syndrome?

A. XXY B. XYY C. XO D. XXX

44. What type of inheritance does color blindness follow?

A. X-linked recessive B. Y-linked C. Autosomal D. Mitochondrial

45. What occurs when one gene masks the effect of another?

A. Epistasis B. Pleiotropy C. Polygenic D. Linkage

46. What is linkage in genetics?

A. Different chromosomes B. Independent C. Linkage D. Unlinked

47. What project mapped the entire human genome?

A. Human Genome Project B. Human Proteome Project C. Human Cell Atlas D. Human Microbiome Project

48. What is the complete set of genetic material in an organism?

A. Gene B. Chromosome C. Genome D. Allele

49. What is innate immunity?

A. Adaptive B. Acquired C. Specific D. Non-specific

50. What are T cells involved in?

A. Produce antibodies B. Innate immunity C. Cell-mediated immunity D. Macrophages

51. What are proteins that bind to specific antigens?

A. Antigens B. Cytokines C. Complement proteins D. Antibodies

52. What is the production of antibodies in response to an antigen?

A. Passive B. Active C. Natural D. Artificial

53. What are signaling molecules produced by immune cells?

A. Cytokines B. Antibodies C. Antigens D. Complement proteins

54. What is the failure of the immune system to function properly?

A. Immunodeficiency B. Autoimmunity C. Allergy D. Inflammation

55. What is AIDS?

A. Bacterial infection B. Fungal infection C. Parasitic infection D. Late stage of HIV

56. What are identical antibodies produced by a single clone of cells?

A. Polyclonal B. Monoclonal C. Natural D. Synthetic

57. What are used in immunotherapy to enhance the immune response against cancer?

A. Antibiotics B. Antivirals C. Antifungals D. Checkpoint inhibitors

58. What are the two main types of immunity?

A. Innate and adaptive B. Active and passive C. Natural and artificial D. Humoral and cell-mediated

59. What type of immunity is mediated by T cells?

A. Cell-mediated B. Humoral C. Innate D. Passive

60. What is a vessel used for biological reactions?

A. Bioreactor B. Fermenter C. Reactor D. Separator

61. What is biodiesel produced from?

A. Petroleum B. Vegetable oils or animal fats C. Coal D. Natural gas

62. What uses microorganisms to remove pollutants from water?

A. Biological treatment B. Chemical treatment C. Physical treatment D. Thermal treatment

63. What is the application of biotechnology to food production?

A. Agricultural B. Environmental C. Food D. Medical

64. What is the recovery and purification of products from fermentation?

A. Downstream processing B. Upstream processing C. Fermentation D. Inoculation

65. What includes the preparation of nutrients and inoculation?

A. Downstream B. Purification C. Upstream D. Recovery

66. What increases the production volume from laboratory to industrial scale?

A. Scale-up B. Scale-down C. Optimization D. Characterization

67. What ensures product consistency and safety?

A. Process control B. Quality assurance C. Batch control D. Quality control

68. What guidelines ensure product quality?

A. Quality control B. GMP C. Quality assurance D. Safety standards

69. What modifies metabolic pathways to improve product yield?

A. Genetic engineering B. Strain improvement C. Fermentation D. Metabolic engineering

70. What does microbiology study?

A. Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa B. Bacteria only C. Viruses only D. Fungi only

71. What are bacteria?

A. Eukaryotic B. Multicellular C. Prokaryotic single-celled D. Acellular

72. What are protozoa?

A. Single-celled eukaryotic B. Multicellular C. Prokaryotic D. Acellular

73. What is Gram staining used for?

A. Viruses B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Protozoa

74. What type of bacteria require oxygen for growth?

A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic C. Facultative D. Microaerophilic

75. What type of bacteria do not require oxygen?

A. Aerobic B. Facultative C. Anaerobic D. Microaerophilic

76. What are disease-causing microorganisms called?

A. Pathogens B. Beneficial C. Harmless D. Probiotics

77. What are antibiotics used to treat?

A. Viruses B. Fungi C. Bacterial infections D. Protozoa

78. What is yeast?

A. Bacterium B. Virus C. Fungus (yeast) D. Protozoan

79. What is the process of eliminating all microorganisms, including spores?

A. Sterilization B. Disinfection C. Sanitation D. Antisepsis

80. What reduces the number of microorganisms but does not eliminate spores?

A. Sterilization B. Antisepsis C. Disinfection D. Sanitation

81. What uses steam under pressure for sterilization?

A. Microscope B. Autoclave C. Centrifuge D. Incubator

82. What are used in the production of yogurt and cheese?

A. Pathogenic B. Viruses C. Fungi D. Lactic acid bacteria

83. What does molecular biology study?

A. DNA, RNA, and proteins at the molecular level B. DNA only C. RNA only D. Proteins only

84. What is translation?

A. Translation B. Transcription C. Replication D. Splicing

85. Which enzyme is responsible for DNA replication?

A. RNA polymerase B. Helicase C. DNA polymerase D. Ligase

86. Which enzyme is responsible for transcription?

A. DNA polymerase B. Helicase C. Ligase D. RNA polymerase

87. Where is an anticodon found?

A. tRNA B. mRNA C. DNA D. rRNA

88. What causes a frameshift mutation?

A. Point mutation B. Silent mutation C. Frameshift mutation D. Missense mutation

89. What is an operon?

A. Plasmid B. Operon C. Chromosome D. Transposon

90. Which is a classic example of gene regulation in bacteria?

A. Lac operon B. Trp operon C. Ara operon D. Gal operon

91. What is a plasmid?

A. Gene B. Operon C. Plasmid D. Transposon

92. What enzyme synthesizes DNA from RNA?

A. Reverse transcriptase B. RNA polymerase C. DNA polymerase D. Ligase

93. What removes introns from pre-mRNA?

A. Ribosome B. Polymerase C. Helicase D. Spliceosome

94. What are exons?

A. Exons B. Introns C. Codons D. Anticodons

95. What does it mean that the genetic code is degenerate?

A. Universal B. Overlapping C. Degenerate D. Non-overlapping

96. Where does protein synthesis occur?

A. Ribosome B. Nucleus C. Mitochondria D. Endoplasmic reticulum

97. What is an undifferentiated mass of plant cells grown in vitro?

A. Differentiated tissue B. Root C. Shoot D. Callus

98. What are plants that contain genes from other species?

A. Hybrid B. Mutant C. Wild-type D. Transgenic

99. What are Roundup Ready crops genetically modified for?

A. Herbicide-resistant B. Insect-resistant C. Virus-resistant D. Drought-tolerant

100. What are secondary metabolites with antioxidant properties?

A. Alkaloids B. Terpenoids C. Phenolics D. Flavonoids

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