NTS GAT Subject (Business Administration) FLP 2 Free Quiz

1. What is accounting?

A. Recording, classifying, summarizing financial transactions B. Only recording C. Only classifying D. Only summarizing

2. What system records each transaction with a debit and a credit?

A. Double-entry B. Single-entry C. Cash basis D. Accrual basis

3. What lists all accounts with their balances?

A. Income statement B. Trial balance C. Balance sheet D. Cash flow statement

4. What does the income statement show?

A. Balance sheet B. Cash flow statement C. Trial balance D. Income statement

5. What does the balance sheet show?

A. Income statement B. Balance sheet C. Cash flow statement D. Trial balance

6. What method spreads cost evenly over the asset's life?

A. Declining balance B. Sum-of-years C. Units of production D. Straight-line

7. What entries are made at the end of the period?

A. Correcting entries B. Closing entries C. Adjusting entries D. Reversing entries

8. What is a fiscal year?

A. Calendar year B. Fiscal year C. Month D. Quarter

9. What is an audit?

A. Independent examination B. Review C. Compilation D. Tax return

10. What is business economics?

A. Applies economic theory to business decisions B. Macroeconomics C. Microeconomics D. Managerial economics

11. What does macroeconomics study?

A. Individual firms B. Market behavior C. Business strategy D. Economy as a whole

12. What does price elasticity of demand measure?

A. Price elasticity B. Income elasticity C. Cross-price elasticity D. Supply elasticity

13. What does elastic demand mean?

A. Less B. Equal C. Zero D. More

14. What market structure has many buyers and sellers, identical products?

A. Perfect competition B. Monopoly C. Oligopoly D. Monopolistic competition

15. What is a sunk cost?

A. Opportunity cost B. Sunk cost C. Fixed cost D. Variable cost

16. What is GDP?

A. GDP B. GNP C. NNP D. NDP

17. What does monetary policy involve?

A. Monetary policy B. Fiscal policy C. Trade policy D. Industrial policy

18. What is a trade deficit?

A. Surplus B. Balanced C. Zero D. Deficit

19. What is business research?

A. Systematic collection and analysis of information B. Only data collection C. Only analysis D. Only interpretation

20. What type of research uses non-numerical data?

A. Quantitative B. Qualitative C. Mixed D. Experimental

21. What does the null hypothesis state?

A. Alternative B. Directional C. Non-directional D. Null

22. What sampling method divides the population into subgroups?

A. Stratified B. Random C. Convenience D. Cluster

23. What is reliability?

A. Validity B. Reliability C. Precision D. Accuracy

24. What test is used for categorical data?

A. T-test B. ANOVA C. Regression D. Chi-square

25. What test compares means between two groups?

A. ANOVA B. T-test C. Chi-square D. Regression

26. What test compares means among three or more groups?

A. ANOVA B. T-test C. Chi-square D. Regression

27. What is a confidence interval?

A. P-value B. Effect size C. Standard deviation D. Confidence interval

28. What examines the content of communication?

A. Content analysis B. Survey C. Experiment D. Observation

29. What involves protecting participants and ensuring integrity?

A. Analysis B. Data collection C. Research ethics D. Reporting

30. What does the time value of money state?

A. Inflation B. Risk C. Return D. Time value of money

31. What does capital budgeting involve?

A. Working capital B. Capital budgeting C. Short-term financing D. Cash management

32. What does a positive NPV indicate?

A. Zero B. Negative C. Positive D. Uncertain

33. What is liquidity?

A. Liquidity B. Profitability C. Solvency D. Efficiency

34. What does financial risk refer to?

A. Financial risk B. Business risk C. Market risk D. Operational risk

35. What is a financial ratio?

A. Absolute value B. Percentage C. Ratio D. Trend

36. What does the income statement show?

A. Balance sheet B. Cash flow statement C. Equity statement D. Income statement

37. What is a financial market?

A. Product market B. Labor market C. Financial market D. Service market

38. What is the relationship between risk and return?

A. Unrelated B. Positively correlated C. Negatively correlated D. Inversely related

39. What are the primary functions of HRM?

A. Recruitment only B. Training only C. Recruitment, training, performance, compensation D. Compensation only

40. What is performance appraisal?

A. Performance appraisal B. Recruitment C. Training D. Compensation

41. What does compensation include?

A. Only salary B. Only bonuses C. Only benefits D. Salary, wages, bonuses, benefits

42. What is job analysis?

A. Job design B. Job analysis C. Job description D. Job specification

43. What is onboarding?

A. Recruitment B. Selection C. Training D. Onboarding

44. What is retention?

A. Turnover B. Attrition C. Retention D. Layoff

45. What is performance management?

A. Appraisal B. Feedback C. Coaching D. Performance management

46. What type of interview focuses on hypothetical scenarios?

A. Behavioral B. Structured C. Unstructured D. Situational

47. What is a career path?

A. Job analysis B. Job design C. Job description D. Career path

48. What manages employee data?

A. Payroll B. Recruitment C. HRIS D. Performance

49. What links compensation to performance?

A. Performance-based pay B. Seniority-based pay C. Skill-based pay D. Flat-rate pay

50. What is market segmentation?

A. Targeting B. Positioning C. Differentiation D. Segmentation

51. What does branding create?

A. Branding B. Pricing C. Distribution D. Promotion

52. Which stage involves low sales and high costs?

A. Growth B. Introduction C. Maturity D. Decline

53. Which stage features rapid sales growth?

A. Growth B. Introduction C. Maturity D. Decline

54. Which stage has the highest sales volume?

A. Introduction B. Growth C. Maturity D. Decline

55. What are distribution channels?

A. Promotion B. Pricing C. Product D. Distribution channels

56. What uses online channels to promote products?

A. Traditional B. Direct C. Personal D. Digital marketing

57. What focuses on keeping existing customers?

A. Acquisition B. Retention C. Expansion D. Penetration

58. What provides data for marketing decisions?

A. Advertising system B. Promotion system C. Distribution system D. Marketing information system

59. What outlines how to achieve marketing objectives?

A. A tactic B. A marketing strategy C. A campaign D. A message

60. What does "marketing myopia" mean?

A. Marketing myopia B. Customer focus C. Competitor focus D. Pricing focus

61. What involves managing stock levels and orders?

A. Capacity B. Inventory management C. Quality D. Scheduling

62. What focuses on minimizing waste and maximizing value?

A. Lean production B. Mass production C. Batch production D. Job production

63. What is a methodology for process improvement?

A. JIT B. Six Sigma C. TQM D. Lean

64. What does the supply chain include?

A. All steps in delivering a product B. Production only C. Distribution only D. Procurement only

65. What is logistics?

A. Production B. Marketing C. Logistics D. Finance

66. What is scheduling?

A. Inventory B. Quality C. Scheduling D. Capacity

67. What is the critical path?

A. Critical path B. Shortest path C. Average path D. Optional path

68. What is a philosophy of continuous improvement?

A. JIT B. TQM C. Six Sigma D. Kaizen

69. What is the 5S methodology?

A. Kaizen B. 5S C. Lean D. Six Sigma

70. What produces items in groups?

A. Mass B. Job C. Batch D. Lean

71. What matches production processes with product types?

A. BCG B. Product-process matrix C. Ansoff D. Porter

72. What is the arrangement of physical resources?

A. Facility layout B. Process layout C. Product layout D. Cellular layout

73. What theory assumes employees are motivated and seek responsibility?

A. Theory Y B. Theory X C. Theory Z D. McGregor

74. What type of leadership focuses on supervision and performance?

A. Transformational B. Transactional C. Charismatic D. Servant

75. What dimensions did the Ohio State Studies identify?

A. Initiating structure and consideration B. Task vs relationship C. Directive vs participative D. Autocratic vs democratic

76. How many bases of power are there?

A. Three B. Five C. Four D. Six

77. What is organizational commitment?

A. Satisfaction B. Engagement C. Loyalty D. Organizational commitment

78. What is the Hawthorne effect?

A. Hawthorne effect B. Placebo effect C. Pygmalion effect D. Halo effect

79. What is the Pygmalion effect?

A. Halo effect B. Hawthorne effect C. Placebo effect D. Pygmalion effect

80. How many conflict resolution strategies are there?

A. Two B. Three C. Five D. Six

81. What are the four functions of management?

A. Planning, organizing, leading, controlling B. Only planning C. Only organizing D. Only leading

82. What is decentralization?

A. Centralization B. Formalization C. Standardization D. Decentralization

83. What is accountability?

A. Accountability B. Authority C. Responsibility D. Delegation

84. What type of system interacts with its external environment?

A. Closed B. Fixed C. Open D. Static

85. What type of system does not interact with its environment?

A. Open B. Dynamic C. Adaptive D. Closed

86. What function involves motivating and directing employees?

A. Planning B. Organizing C. Leading D. Controlling

87. What is a policy?

A. Policy B. Rule C. Procedure D. Strategy

88. What is CSR?

A. Profit maximization B. Shareholder value C. Corporate social responsibility D. Market share

89. What is a strategy?

A. A tactic B. An objective C. A long-term plan for competitive advantage D. A policy

90. What is competitive advantage?

A. Cost advantage B. Differentiation C. Focus D. Competitive advantage

91. What matrix categorizes business units as Stars, Cash Cows, Question Marks, Dogs?

A. BCG matrix B. Porter C. SWOT D. PEST

92. What defines the organization's purpose?

A. Vision B. Strategy C. Mission D. Objective

93. What does SWOT analysis include?

A. Internal only B. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats C. External only D. Both

94. What strategy aims to be the lowest-cost producer?

A. Cost leadership B. Differentiation C. Focus D. Diversification

95. What strategy increases sales in existing markets?

A. Market development B. Product development C. Market penetration D. Diversification

96. What strategy enters new markets with existing products?

A. Penetration B. Product development C. Diversification D. Market development

97. What strategy involves new products in existing markets?

A. Market development B. Product development C. Penetration D. Diversification

98. What is a joint venture?

A. Merger B. Acquisition C. Joint venture D. Alliance

99. What strategy focuses on specific functions?

A. Corporate B. Competitive C. Operational D. Functional

100. What is a strategic plan?

A. A strategic plan B. A budget C. A forecast D. A report

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