NTS GAT Subject (Business Administration) FLP 3 Free Quiz

1. What is the accounting equation?

A. Assets = Liabilities - Equity B. Assets = Equity - Liabilities C. Assets = Liabilities + Equity D. Assets + Liabilities = Equity

2. What does a credit do to a liability account?

A. Increases assets B. Increases liabilities C. Decreases liabilities D. Decreases equity

3. What is a collection of accounts?

A. Journal B. Trial balance C. Income statement D. Ledger

4. What lists all accounts with their balances?

A. Income statement B. Trial balance C. Balance sheet D. Cash flow statement

5. What method spreads cost evenly over the asset's life?

A. Declining balance B. Sum-of-years C. Units of production D. Straight-line

6. What is a current liability?

A. Current liability B. Long-term liability C. Equity D. Deferred revenue

7. What is equity?

A. Liabilities B. Assets C. Equity D. Revenue

8. What is accounts payable?

A. Accounts receivable B. Accounts payable C. Notes receivable D. Inventory

9. What inventory method assumes last in, first out?

A. FIFO B. LIFO C. Weighted average D. Specific identification

10. What entries are made at the end of the period?

A. Correcting entries B. Closing entries C. Adjusting entries D. Reversing entries

11. What is a fiscal year?

A. Calendar year B. Fiscal year C. Month D. Quarter

12. What is an audit?

A. Independent examination B. Review C. Compilation D. Tax return

13. What does macroeconomics study?

A. Individual firms B. Market behavior C. Business strategy D. Economy as a whole

14. What is supply?

A. Demand B. Price C. Supply D. Utility

15. What does the law of supply state?

A. Decreases B. Constant C. Unrelated D. Increases

16. What does price elasticity of demand measure?

A. Price elasticity B. Income elasticity C. Cross-price elasticity D. Supply elasticity

17. What does elastic demand mean?

A. Less B. Equal C. Zero D. More

18. What market structure has many buyers and sellers, identical products?

A. Perfect competition B. Monopoly C. Oligopoly D. Monopolistic competition

19. What is an oligopoly?

A. Perfect competition B. Monopoly C. Oligopoly D. Monopolistic competition

20. What is marginal cost?

A. Total cost B. Average cost C. Variable cost D. Marginal cost

21. What is a sunk cost?

A. Opportunity cost B. Sunk cost C. Fixed cost D. Variable cost

22. What is GDP?

A. GDP B. GNP C. NNP D. NDP

23. What is inflation?

A. Deflation B. Disinflation C. Inflation D. Hyperinflation

24. What does monetary policy involve?

A. Monetary policy B. Fiscal policy C. Trade policy D. Industrial policy

25. What is a trade deficit?

A. Surplus B. Balanced C. Zero D. Deficit

26. What is absolute advantage?

A. Comparative advantage B. Competitive advantage C. Absolute advantage D. Strategic advantage

27. What type of research uses numerical data?

A. Quantitative B. Qualitative C. Descriptive D. Exploratory

28. What does the null hypothesis state?

A. Alternative B. Directional C. Non-directional D. Null

29. What is a common method of collecting primary data?

A. Survey B. Experiment C. Observation D. Interview

30. What type of sample ensures equal chance of selection?

A. Systematic B. Random C. Stratified D. Convenience

31. What sampling method divides the population into subgroups?

A. Stratified B. Random C. Convenience D. Cluster

32. What sampling method selects groups?

A. Stratified B. Random C. Cluster D. Systematic

33. What is reliability?

A. Validity B. Reliability C. Precision D. Accuracy

34. What is a pilot study?

A. Pilot study B. Main study C. Hypothesis test D. Sampling method

35. What test compares means between two groups?

A. ANOVA B. T-test C. Chi-square D. Regression

36. What test compares means among three or more groups?

A. ANOVA B. T-test C. Chi-square D. Regression

37. What involves protecting participants and ensuring integrity?

A. Analysis B. Data collection C. Research ethics D. Reporting

38. What does the time value of money state?

A. Inflation B. Risk C. Return D. Time value of money

39. What is the IRR?

A. Cost of capital B. Payback period C. Profitability index D. IRR

40. What does the debt-to-equity ratio measure?

A. Liquidity B. Profitability C. Efficiency D. Debt-to-equity

41. What does DuPont analysis break down ROE into?

A. Profit margin, asset turnover, financial leverage B. ROA C. ROI D. ROS

42. What does dividend policy determine?

A. Investment policy B. Financing policy C. Dividend policy D. Budgeting policy

43. What does financial risk refer to?

A. Financial risk B. Business risk C. Market risk D. Operational risk

44. What does the income statement show?

A. Balance sheet B. Cash flow statement C. Equity statement D. Income statement

45. What does the cash flow statement show?

A. Cash flow statement B. Income statement C. Balance sheet D. Equity statement

46. What is capital structure?

A. Working capital B. Liquidity C. Profitability D. Capital structure

47. What does the Modigliani-Miller theorem suggest?

A. Capital structure irrelevance B. With taxes C. With bankruptcy D. With agency costs

48. What is a stock market?

A. Bond market B. Commodity market C. Derivative market D. Stock market

49. What does diversification reduce?

A. Unsystematic risk B. Systematic risk C. Market risk D. Systemic risk

50. What does beta measure?

A. Alpha B. Standard deviation C. Beta D. Sharpe ratio

51. What is recruitment?

A. Selection B. Onboarding C. Training D. Recruitment

52. What does compensation include?

A. Only salary B. Only bonuses C. Only benefits D. Salary, wages, bonuses, benefits

53. What does a job description list?

A. Job description B. Job specification C. Job design D. Job analysis

54. What is onboarding?

A. Recruitment B. Selection C. Training D. Onboarding

55. What is retention?

A. Turnover B. Attrition C. Retention D. Layoff

56. What refers to the presence of differences in a workforce?

A. Diversity B. Inclusion C. Equity D. Equal opportunity

57. What manages employee data?

A. Payroll B. Recruitment C. HRIS D. Performance

58. What involves interactions between management and unions?

A. Employee relations B. Community relations C. Public relations D. Labor relations

59. What are the 4Ps of the marketing mix?

A. Product, Price, Place, People B. Product, Price, Place, Process C. Product, Price, Place, Promotion D. Product, Price, Place, Physical evidence

60. What is a target market?

A. Segmentation B. Target market C. Positioning D. Differentiation

61. Which stage features rapid sales growth?

A. Growth B. Introduction C. Maturity D. Decline

62. Which stage has the highest sales volume?

A. Introduction B. Growth C. Maturity D. Decline

63. What types of strategies are included in pricing?

A. Promotion B. Pricing strategy C. Distribution D. Product

64. What builds a positive image and manages communication?

A. Advertising B. Personal selling C. Public relations D. Sales promotion

65. What involves managing stock levels and orders?

A. Capacity B. Inventory management C. Quality D. Scheduling

66. What focuses on minimizing waste and maximizing value?

A. Lean production B. Mass production C. Batch production D. Job production

67. What is a continuous quality improvement approach?

A. Inventory B. Scheduling C. Capacity D. Total Quality Management

68. What is logistics?

A. Production B. Marketing C. Logistics D. Finance

69. What is the bullwhip effect?

A. Inventory B. Scheduling C. Capacity D. Bullwhip effect

70. What ensures products meet standards?

A. Planning B. Quality control C. Scheduling D. Inventory

71. What is a visual tool for scheduling tasks?

A. PERT B. CPM C. Flowchart D. Gantt chart

72. What is a project management tool for scheduling?

A. Gantt B. PERT C. CPM D. WBS

73. How many levels are in Maslow's hierarchy?

A. Two levels B. Three levels C. Four levels D. Five levels

74. What is the highest level in Maslow's hierarchy?

A. Esteem B. Self-actualization C. Social D. Safety

75. What are motivators in Herzberg's theory?

A. Hygiene factors B. Maintenance factors C. Dissatisfiers D. Motivators

76. What type of leadership focuses on supervision and performance?

A. Transformational B. Transactional C. Charismatic D. Servant

77. What is groupthink?

A. Cohesion B. Groupthink C. Polarization D. Loafing

78. What is organizational culture?

A. Shared values, beliefs, norms B. Structure C. Strategy D. Climate

79. What is power in organizations?

A. Authority B. Leadership C. Control D. Power

80. What is expert power?

A. Referent B. Legitimate C. Expert D. Coercive

81. What type of team works remotely?

A. Virtual teams B. Co-located teams C. Cross-functional teams D. Self-managed teams

82. Who is known as the father of scientific management?

A. Henri Fayol B. Peter Drucker C. Frederick Taylor D. Max Weber

83. What is decentralization?

A. Centralization B. Formalization C. Standardization D. Decentralization

84. What does contingency theory suggest?

A. Contingency B. Universal C. Fixed D. Permanent

85. What approach focuses on the entire organization?

A. Scientific B. Human relations C. Administrative D. Bureaucratic

86. What principle ensures a clear line of authority?

A. Unity of command B. Span of control C. Scalar chain D. Division of work

87. What function monitors performance and makes corrections?

A. Controlling B. Planning C. Organizing D. Leading

88. What does SWOT analysis include?

A. Internal only B. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats C. External only D. Both

89. What strategy aims to be the lowest-cost producer?

A. Cost leadership B. Differentiation C. Focus D. Diversification

90. What strategy offers unique products or services?

A. Cost leadership B. Focus C. Differentiation D. Diversification

91. What strategy targets a specific market segment?

A. Cost leadership B. Differentiation C. Diversification D. Focus

92. What strategy increases sales in existing markets?

A. Market development B. Product development C. Market penetration D. Diversification

93. What strategy involves new products in existing markets?

A. Market development B. Product development C. Penetration D. Diversification

94. What is a strategic alliance?

A. Merger B. Acquisition C. Joint venture D. Strategic alliance

95. What is a joint venture?

A. Merger B. Acquisition C. Joint venture D. Alliance

96. What theory considers all stakeholders?

A. Shareholder B. Stakeholder C. Profit D. Market

97. What strategy defines how a firm competes?

A. Competitive B. Corporate C. Functional D. Operational

98. What strategy deals with the overall scope?

A. Competitive B. Functional C. Corporate D. Operational

99. What is a strategic plan?

A. A strategic plan B. A budget C. A forecast D. A report

100. What monitors the implementation of strategy?

A. Planning B. Evaluation C. Strategic control D. Formulation

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