NTS GAT Subject (Chemical Engineering) FLP 3 Free Quiz

NTS GAT Subject (Chemical Engineering) – FLP 3

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NTS GAT Subject (Chemical Engineering) – FLP 3 consists of 100 MCQs covering 1 subjects. You have 120 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Chemical Engineering 100 MCQs

1. What is chemical plant design?

A. Designing and planning chemical plants B. Fluid flow and pressure C. Thermal energy transfer D. Separation processes

2. What determines the sequence of operations and equipment sizes?

A. Mechanical design B. Process design C. Structural design D. Electrical design

3. What is the time required to recover the initial investment?

A. ROI B. NPV C. Payback period D. IRR

4. What is the sum of discounted cash flows?

A. ROI B. NPV C. IRR D. Payback period

5. What is the discount rate that makes NPV zero?

A. IRR B. ROI C. Payback period D. MARR

6. What study is used to identify hazards in a plant?

A. FMEA B. HAZOP C. Risk assessment D. Safety audit

7. What process identifies, evaluates, and controls risks?

A. HAZOP B. FMEA C. Risk assessment D. Safety audit

8. What regulations in chemical plant design address emissions and waste?

A. Safety B. Environmental C. Process D. Mechanical

9. What is a key goal in chemical plant design?

A. Waste minimization B. Safety C. Cost D. Efficiency

10. What includes PFDs, P&IDs, and equipment specifications?

A. Process design package B. Mechanical design C. Structural design D. Electrical design

11. What includes pipe sizing, routing, and support?

A. Equipment design B. Piping design C. Instrumentation D. Layout

12. What is a series of operations that converts raw materials into products?

A. Unit operation B. Unit process C. Chemical process D. Chemical reaction

13. What is the accounting of mass entering and leaving a process?

A. Energy balance B. Mass balance C. Momentum balance D. Entropy balance

14. What type of process has no accumulation of mass or energy?

A. Transient B. Unsteady-state C. Steady-state D. Batch

15. What is a discontinuous process with finite amounts of material?

A. Continuous B. Batch C. Steady-state D. Semi-batch

16. What is a process that operates without interruption?

A. Continuous B. Batch C. Semi-batch D. Steady-state

17. What is the ratio of moles of a component to total moles?

A. Mass fraction B. Volume fraction C. Weight fraction D. Mole fraction

18. What is the ratio of mass of a component to total mass?

A. Mole fraction B. Mass fraction C. Volume fraction D. Weight fraction

19. What is the ideal gas law?

A. PV = nRT B. PV = nRT C. PV = nRT D. PV = nRT

20. What law states that mass cannot be created or destroyed?

A. Energy B. Mass C. Momentum D. Entropy

21. What is the calculation of reactants and products in chemical reactions?

A. Mass balance B. Energy balance C. Stoichiometry D. Reaction kinetics

22. What returns a portion of the product or effluent to the process?

A. Recycle B. Bypass C. Purge D. Make-up

23. What replaces material lost from the process?

A. Recycle B. Make-up C. Bypass D. Purge

24. What are used to represent the sequence of operations in a chemical process?

A. P&IDs B. Block diagrams C. Process flow diagrams D. Piping diagrams

25. What does chemical reaction engineering study?

A. Chemical reactors and rates of reactions B. Fluid flow and pressure C. Thermal energy transfer D. Separation processes

26. What does a catalyst do to activation energy?

A. Lowers activation energy B. Increases activation energy C. Has no effect D. Changes rate constant

27. What increases the reaction rate by providing an alternative pathway?

A. Reactant B. Product C. Catalyst D. Inhibitor

28. What is the integrated rate law for a second-order reaction?

A. ln[A] = -kt + ln[A]₀ B. [A] = -kt + [A]₀ C. ln[A] = kt + ln[A]₀ D. 1/[A] = kt + 1/[A]₀

29. What equation relates reaction rate to temperature using transition state theory?

A. Arrhenius B. van't Hoff C. Clausius-Clapeyron D. Eyring

30. What reactor has no inflow or outflow during the reaction?

A. Continuous B. Batch C. Semi-batch D. Plug flow

31. What is the average time a fluid element spends in a reactor?

A. Space time B. Space velocity C. Hold-up time D. Residence time

32. What is the continuity equation for incompressible flow?

A. P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ B. V₁ = V₂ C. A₁V₁ = A₂V₂ D. A₁ = A₂

33. What is laminar flow?

A. Laminar flow B. Turbulent flow C. Transitional flow D. Compressible flow

34. What is the boundary layer in fluid flow?

A. Core flow B. Wake C. Potential flow D. Boundary layer

35. What law states that pressure in a confined fluid is transmitted equally?

A. Bernoulli B. Pascal C. Archimedes D. Newton

36. What does a Pitot tube measure?

A. Flow rate B. Pressure C. Velocity D. Density

37. What is the velocity profile for laminar flow in a pipe?

A. Uniform B. Parabolic C. Turbulent D. Linear

38. What is determined from the Moody chart?

A. Reynolds number B. Roughness C. Friction factor D. Diameter

39. What device extracts energy from a fluid?

A. Pump B. Turbine C. Compressor D. Blower

40. What is conduction?

A. Convection B. Radiation C. Conduction D. Advection

41. What is Fourier's Law?

A. q = h(Ts - T∞) B. q = εσT⁴ C. q = -kA dT/dx D. q = -k dT/dx

42. What is Newton's Law of Cooling?

A. Fourier B. Stefan-Boltzmann C. Newton D. Planck

43. What does the convective heat transfer coefficient depend on?

A. Constant B. Material property C. Independent D. Depends on fluid and flow

44. What is emissivity?

A. Absorptivity B. Reflectivity C. Transmissivity D. Emissivity

45. What does U represent in heat transfer?

A. Overall heat transfer coefficient B. Convective coefficient C. Thermal conductivity D. Thermal resistance

46. What is LMTD?

A. Average temperature B. Maximum temperature C. LMTD D. Minimum temperature

47. What is the Nusselt number?

A. Reynolds B. Prandtl C. Nusselt D. Grashof

48. What dimensionless number indicates flow regime in heat transfer?

A. Nusselt B. Reynolds C. Prandtl D. Grashof

49. What number is used in natural convection?

A. Grashof B. Reynolds C. Prandtl D. Nusselt

50. What number compares internal and external thermal resistances?

A. Fourier B. Nusselt C. Prandtl D. Biot

51. What is mass transfer?

A. Movement of mass from one location to another B. Fluid flow and pressure C. Thermal energy transfer D. Chemical reactions

52. What is the movement of molecules from high to low concentration?

A. Convection B. Osmosis C. Diffusion D. Advection

53. What is the transfer of mass by fluid motion?

A. Convection mass transfer B. Diffusion C. Osmosis D. Advection

54. What is the mass transfer analog of the Nusselt number?

A. Schmidt B. Prandtl C. Grashof D. Sherwood

55. What separation process is based on differences in volatility?

A. Absorption B. Extraction C. Distillation D. Adsorption

56. What is the transfer of a solute from one liquid to another?

A. Distillation B. Extraction C. Adsorption D. Absorption

57. What is the driving force for mass transfer?

A. Temperature B. Concentration gradient C. Pressure D. Velocity

58. What mass transfer coefficient accounts for resistance in one phase?

A. Individual B. Overall C. Film D. Boundary

59. What analogy uses similar dimensionless numbers?

A. Reynolds B. Prandtl C. Nusselt D. Heat-mass transfer analogy

60. What is used in the Chilton-Colburn analogy for mass transfer?

A. j-factor B. Stanton C. Prandtl D. Schmidt

61. Which controller eliminates steady-state error?

A. Proportional B. Derivative C. Integral D. None

62. What does the derivative controller do?

A. Proportional B. Integral C. None D. Derivative

63. What is the transfer function?

A. Time ratio B. Laplace ratio C. Frequency ratio D. Gain

64. What criterion determines stability without solving the characteristic equation?

A. Nyquist B. Bode C. Root locus D. Routh-Hurwitz

65. What determines overshoot and settling time in a second-order system?

A. Natural frequency B. Gain C. Damping ratio D. Time constant

66. What is an overdamped system?

A. Overdamped B. Underdamped C. Critically damped D. Undamped

67. What is the settling time of a system?

A. Rise time B. Peak time C. Delay time D. Settling time

68. What transform is used in control systems for analysis?

A. Fourier B. Z-transform C. Laplace D. Hilbert

69. What is process thermodynamics?

A. Application of thermodynamics to chemical processes B. Fluid flow and pressure C. Thermal energy transfer D. Separation processes

70. What is the First Law of Thermodynamics?

A. ΔS = Q/T B. ΔH = ΔU + PΔV C. ΔU = Q - W D. ΔG = ΔH - TΔS

71. What does the Third Law of Thermodynamics state?

A. Entropy increases B. Entropy approaches zero C. Entropy constant D. Entropy infinite

72. What does a positive ΔG indicate?

A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Undefined

73. What reaction absorbs heat?

A. Endothermic B. Exothermic C. Isothermal D. Adiabatic

74. What law states that enthalpy change is independent of the pathway?

A. First Law B. Second Law C. Hess's Law D. Third Law

75. What is the enthalpy change when a solute dissolves?

A. Formation B. Combustion C. Solution D. Neutralization

76. What is the energy required to break a bond?

A. Formation B. Combustion C. Neutralization D. Bond dissociation

77. What is the energy released when ions are hydrated?

A. Hydration B. Lattice enthalpy C. Bond dissociation D. Solvation

78. What equation relates vapor pressure to temperature?

A. Clausius-Clapeyron B. Arrhenius C. van't Hoff D. Gibbs-Helmholtz

79. What equation relates reaction rate to temperature?

A. Clausius-Clapeyron B. van't Hoff C. Arrhenius D. Gibbs-Helmholtz

80. What happens to entropy when a solid dissolves in a liquid?

A. Decreases B. Increases C. Stays the same D. Fluctuates

81. What are separation processes?

A. Methods to separate mixtures into components B. Fluid flow and pressure C. Thermal energy transfer D. Chemical reactions

82. What is the transfer of a solute from a gas to a liquid?

A. Distillation B. Extraction C. Adsorption D. Absorption

83. What is the transfer of a solute from one liquid to another?

A. Distillation B. Extraction C. Adsorption D. Absorption

84. What separation process is based on the formation of solid crystals?

A. Distillation B. Extraction C. Drying D. Crystallization

85. What is the removal of moisture from a solid?

A. Distillation B. Drying C. Extraction D. Crystallization

86. What method is used for minimum reflux ratio calculation?

A. Fenske B. Underwood C. McCabe-Thiele D. Ponchon-Savarit

87. What are mixtures with constant boiling point and composition?

A. Ideal B. Non-ideal C. Azeotropes D. Eutectic

88. What type of distillation is used for high-boiling materials?

A. Steam B. Azeotropic C. Vacuum D. Extractive

89. What separation process is based on differences in solubility?

A. Distillation B. Adsorption C. Crystallization D. Liquid-liquid extraction

90. What membrane process uses concentration difference?

A. Reverse osmosis B. Electrodialysis C. Dialysis D. Ultrafiltration

91. What is used in packed column design?

A. HTU B. NTU C. HETS D. HETP

92. What law describes heat transfer?

A. Fick's Law B. Fourier's Law C. Newton's Law D. Navier-Stokes

93. What law describes mass transfer?

A. Fick's Law B. Fourier's Law C. Newton's Law D. Navier-Stokes

94. What is the ratio of thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity?

A. Lewis B. Prandtl C. Schmidt D. Sherwood

95. What is the mass transfer analog of the Nusselt number?

A. Prandtl B. Schmidt C. Sherwood D. Lewis

96. What analogy relates heat, mass, and momentum transfer?

A. Chilton-Colburn B. Reynolds C. Prandtl D. Nusselt

97. What is used in the Chilton-Colburn analogy for heat and mass transfer?

A. Stanton B. Prandtl C. j-factor D. Schmidt

98. What type of boundary layer has smooth, orderly flow?

A. Turbulent B. Laminar C. Transitional D. Compressible

99. What is the distance from the surface where velocity reaches 99% of free-stream velocity?

A. Displacement thickness B. Momentum thickness C. Boundary layer thickness D. Thermal thickness

100. What is the region where concentration changes from wall to free-stream?

A. Velocity B. Thermal C. Concentration D. Momentum

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