NTS GAT Subject (Environmental Sciences) FLP 2 Free Quiz

NTS GAT Subject (Environmental Sciences) – FLP 2

120:00

Answered: 0 / 100

Remaining: 100

Enviro

NTS GAT Subject (Environmental Sciences) – FLP 2 consists of 100 MCQs covering 1 subjects. You have 120 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Environmental Sciences 100 MCQs

1. What species are at risk of extinction?

A. Vulnerable B. Near-threatened C. Least concern D. Endangered

2. What is the protection of species in their natural habitats?

A. Ex-situ B. In-situ C. In-vitro D. In-vivo

3. What is a designated area for conservation?

A. National park B. Wildlife sanctuary C. Protected area D. Biosphere reserve

4. What is a protected area for wildlife conservation?

A. National park B. Wildlife sanctuary C. Biosphere reserve D. Protected area

5. What is the primary cause of biodiversity loss?

A. Pollution B. Climate change C. Habitat loss D. Overexploitation

6. What species have a disproportionate effect on their ecosystem?

A. Invasive B. Endemic C. Keystone D. Endangered

7. What are the benefits provided by ecosystems to humans?

A. Resources B. Goods C. Services D. Ecosystem services

8. What are regions with high biodiversity and high threat?

A. Protected areas B. Biodiversity hotspots C. National parks D. Wildlife sanctuaries

9. What supports climate change mitigation and adaptation projects?

A. GEF B. GCF C. GEF D. Green Climate Fund

10. What is the UN agency for environmental affairs?

A. UNEP B. UNDP C. FAO D. WHO

11. What UN agency works on food security and biodiversity?

A. UNEP B. UNDP C. FAO D. WHO

12. What is climate change?

A. Long-term changes in weather patterns B. Increase in Earth's temperature C. Trapping of heat by gases D. Ozone layer thinning

13. What potent greenhouse gas has a higher global warming potential than CO₂?

A. Methane B. CO₂ C. N₂O D. CFCs

14. What body assesses the science of climate change?

A. UNEP B. IPCC C. WMO D. WHO

15. What international treaty addresses climate change?

A. Paris Agreement B. Montreal Protocol C. Kyoto Protocol D. Copenhagen Accord

16. What is a major consequence of climate change?

A. Drought B. Floods C. Heatwaves D. Sea-level rise

17. What involves adjusting to the effects of climate change?

A. Adaptation B. Mitigation C. Resilience D. Vulnerability

18. What technology reduces CO₂ emissions?

A. Renewable B. Nuclear C. Geothermal D. CCS

19. What is the ability to withstand and recover from climate impacts?

A. Climate resilience B. Mitigation C. Adaptation D. Vulnerability

20. What depends on exposure, sensitivity, and adaptive capacity?

A. Resilience B. Mitigation C. Vulnerability D. Adaptation

21. What refers to the negative impacts that cannot be avoided?

A. Mitigation B. Loss and damage C. Adaptation D. Resilience

22. What is a reservoir that releases more CO₂ than it absorbs?

A. Carbon budget B. Carbon sink C. Carbon footprint D. Carbon source

23. What does environmental chemistry study?

A. Chemical processes in the environment B. Interactions between organisms C. Contaminants in the environment D. Global climate change

24. What is the solid outer layer of the Earth?

A. Atmosphere B. Lithosphere C. Hydrosphere D. Biosphere

25. What is a major greenhouse gas?

A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide C. Nitrogen D. Argon

26. What greenhouse gas is released from agricultural activities?

A. Oxygen B. Nitrogen C. Nitrous oxide D. Argon

27. What layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

A. Troposphere B. Stratosphere C. Mesosphere D. Thermosphere

28. What type of smog is formed by sunlight reacting with pollutants?

A. Photochemical smog B. Industrial smog C. Acid rain D. Ozone depletion

29. What type of smog is formed by burning coal?

A. Photochemical B. Acid rain C. Industrial smog D. Ozone depletion

30. What is the breakdown of substances by light?

A. Biodegradation B. Photodegradation C. Chemical degradation D. Physical degradation

31. What are toxic chemicals that resist degradation?

A. Biodegradable B. Non-toxic C. Water-soluble D. Persistent organic pollutants

32. What is a network of interconnected food chains?

A. Food chain B. Energy pyramid C. Food web D. Trophic level

33. What organisms make their own food through photosynthesis?

A. Consumers B. Producers C. Decomposers D. Scavengers

34. What type of succession occurs on newly formed land where no soil exists?

A. Secondary B. Tertiary C. Primary D. Quaternary

35. What type of succession occurs on disturbed land where soil already exists?

A. Primary B. Tertiary C. Quaternary D. Secondary

36. What is the maximum population size that an environment can sustain?

A. Population growth rate B. Carrying capacity C. Population density D. Limiting factor

37. What is a symbiotic relationship where both species benefit?

A. Commensalism B. Parasitism C. Competition D. Mutualism

38. What is the interaction between organisms for limited resources?

A. Predation B. Symbiosis C. Competition D. Parasitism

39. What is the interaction where one organism kills and eats another?

A. Competition B. Symbiosis C. Parasitism D. Predation

40. What is the increase in Earth's average temperature?

A. Global warming B. Greenhouse effect C. Climate change D. Ozone hole

41. What refers to long-term changes in weather patterns?

A. Global warming B. Greenhouse effect C. Climate change D. Ozone depletion

42. What is Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?

A. Evaluating environmental impacts of a proposed project B. Environmental laws and regulations C. Management of natural resources D. Waste disposal and management

43. What is the development of measures to avoid, reduce, or offset environmental impacts?

A. Mitigation B. Screening C. Scoping D. Impact analysis

44. What impacts are immediate and easily attributable to the project?

A. Direct impacts B. Indirect impacts C. Cumulative impacts D. Secondary impacts

45. What is the ongoing observation of environmental conditions?

A. Environmental monitoring B. Environmental auditing C. EIA D. Compliance

46. What is adherence to environmental laws and regulations?

A. Monitoring B. Auditing C. Environmental compliance D. EIA

47. What are a forum for stakeholders to express opinions on a project?

A. Optional B. Not required C. Public hearings D. For experts only

48. What is the option that best meets project objectives with least environmental harm?

A. No-action alternative B. Mitigation alternative C. Preferred alternative D. Best alternative

49. What is offsetting unavoidable impacts by creating equivalent benefits elsewhere?

A. Mitigation B. Avoidance C. Minimization D. Compensation

50. What does the mitigation hierarchy include?

A. Avoidance, minimization, compensation B. Avoidance, minimization, restoration, compensation C. Restoration, compensation D. Avoidance, minimization

51. What is the monitoring and evaluation of a project after approval?

A. Screening B. Scoping C. EIA follow-up D. Impact analysis

52. What does the EIA process help decision-makers do?

A. Optional B. Not required C. Helps decision-makers D. For experts only

53. What is a non-binding agreement on climate change?

A. Copenhagen Accord B. Kyoto Protocol C. Paris Agreement D. Montreal Protocol

54. What international treaty addresses persistent organic pollutants?

A. Basel Convention B. Rotterdam Convention C. Stockholm Convention D. Minamata Convention

55. What US law established EIA?

A. Clean Air Act B. Clean Water Act C. NEPA D. Safe Drinking Water Act

56. What US law regulates air pollution?

A. Clean Water Act B. NEPA C. Safe Drinking Water Act D. Clean Air Act

57. What is the system of rules and institutions for managing the environment?

A. Environmental policy B. Environmental law C. Environmental governance D. Environmental management

58. What UN agency works on food security and biodiversity?

A. UNEP B. FAO C. UNDP D. WHO

59. What organization sets international health guidelines, including environmental health?

A. WHO B. UNEP C. FAO D. UNDP

60. What is environmental pollution?

A. Introduction of harmful substances into the environment B. Interactions between organisms C. Chemical processes in the environment D. Global climate change

61. What is the presence of harmful substances in the atmosphere?

A. Water pollution B. Soil pollution C. Air pollution D. Noise pollution

62. What is the contamination of water bodies by harmful substances?

A. Air pollution B. Soil pollution C. Noise pollution D. Water pollution

63. What pollutants are formed by reactions in the atmosphere?

A. Primary B. Tertiary C. Quaternary D. Secondary

64. What primary air pollutants are from combustion processes?

A. SO₂ B. CO C. NOx D. O₃

65. What secondary air pollutant is formed by reactions of NOx and VOCs?

A. SO₂ B. CO C. NO₂ D. O₃

66. What is the use of microorganisms to clean up pollutants?

A. Bioremediation B. Phytoremediation C. Mycoremediation D. Rhizoremediation

67. What US law regulates water pollution?

A. Clean Air Act B. Safe Drinking Water Act C. Clean Water Act D. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

68. What international treaty addresses persistent organic pollutants?

A. Stockholm Convention B. Basel Convention C. Rotterdam Convention D. Minamata Convention

69. What international treaty addresses prior informed consent for hazardous chemicals?

A. Stockholm Convention B. Basel Convention C. Minamata Convention D. Rotterdam Convention

70. What international treaty addresses mercury pollution?

A. Stockholm Convention B. Minamata Convention C. Basel Convention D. Rotterdam Convention

71. What international treaty addresses climate change?

A. Montreal Protocol B. Paris Agreement C. Kyoto Protocol D. Copenhagen Accord

72. What resources can be replenished naturally over time?

A. Non-renewable B. Finite C. Exhaustible D. Renewable

73. What type of resource is water?

A. Non-renewable B. Finite C. Exhaustible D. Renewable but can be depleted

74. What meets present needs without compromising future generations?

A. Economic growth B. Sustainable development C. Industrialization D. Modernization

75. What ecosystem services control processes like climate regulation?

A. Provisioning B. Cultural C. Regulating D. Supporting

76. What assigns economic value to environmental goods and services?

A. Cost-benefit analysis B. Environmental valuation C. Environmental accounting D. Resource assessment

77. What integrates environmental costs into economic accounts?

A. Cost-benefit analysis B. Environmental valuation C. Environmental accounting D. Resource assessment

78. What is waste management?

A. Collection, transport, processing, recycling, and disposal of waste B. Environmental laws and regulations C. Management of natural resources D. Evaluation of environmental impacts

79. What does the waste hierarchy prioritize?

A. Recycling only B. Disposal only C. Prevention, reduction, reuse, recycling, disposal D. Reuse only

80. What are the 3Rs of waste management?

A. Reduce, Recycle, Recover B. Reduce, Reuse, Recover C. Reuse, Recycle, Recover D. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

81. What is the use of an item more than once without significant alteration?

A. Recycling B. Recovery C. Reuse D. Disposal

82. What is the decomposition of organic waste to produce fertilizer?

A. Incineration B. Landfill C. Composting D. Recycling

83. What holds producers responsible for the entire life cycle of their products?

A. Polluter pays principle B. User pays principle C. Precautionary principle D. EPR

84. What is the total amount of greenhouse gases emitted?

A. Waste footprint B. Water footprint C. Carbon footprint D. Ecological footprint

85. What is the total amount of water used?

A. Waste footprint B. Carbon footprint C. Ecological footprint D. Water footprint

86. What US law governs waste management?

A. RCRA B. Clean Air Act C. Clean Water Act D. Safe Drinking Water Act

87. What US law is for cleaning up hazardous waste sites?

A. RCRA B. Clean Air Act C. CERCLA D. Clean Water Act

88. What is the reduction or elimination of pollution at the source?

A. Waste minimization B. Pollution prevention C. Recycling D. Reuse

89. What is water on the surface of the Earth?

A. Groundwater B. Atmospheric water C. Soil water D. Surface water

90. What is water stored beneath the Earth's surface?

A. Surface water B. Groundwater C. Atmospheric water D. Soil water

91. What is the upper surface of the zone of saturation?

A. Water table B. Water level C. Groundwater level D. Aquifer level

92. What is the contamination of water bodies by harmful substances?

A. Water scarcity B. Water quality C. Water pollution D. Water quantity

93. What measures the amount of oxygen required to chemically oxidize pollutants?

A. BOD B. COD C. Total organic carbon D. Dissolved oxygen

94. What is the collection and storage of rainwater?

A. Water conservation B. Water quality C. Rainwater harvesting D. Water supply

95. What is the use of treated wastewater for various purposes?

A. Water reuse B. Desalination C. Water conservation D. Rainwater harvesting

96. What is a storage area for water?

A. Canal B. Reservoir C. Well D. Pond

97. What is the assessment of water use and efficiency?

A. Water auditing B. Water quality C. Water conservation D. Water supply

98. What is the total amount of water used?

A. Carbon footprint B. Ecological footprint C. Water footprint D. Waste footprint

99. What is the artificial application of water to soil for crop production?

A. Water conservation B. Rainwater harvesting C. Desalination D. Irrigation

100. What is a water-efficient irrigation method?

A. Flood irrigation B. Drip irrigation C. Sprinkler irrigation D. Surface irrigation

Home Quick Quizzes Medical Colleges

Full Length Papers Free Quiz

For Daily Updates Follow Us

Country Wise Scholarships

🇵🇰 Pakistan's Scholarships 🇺🇸 USA's Scholarships 🇬🇧 UK's Scholarships 🇨🇦 Canada's Scholarships 🇨🇳 China's Scholarships 🇸🇦 Saudi Arabia's Scholarships 🇦🇪 UAE's Scholarships 🇲🇾 Malaysia's Scholarships 🇪🇺 Europe's Scholarships 🇰🇷 South Korea's Scholarships

MBBS BDS in China

"Past Paper and Practice Test Free Quiz"

Entry Tests Preparation

Free Online Quiz

Cadet Colleges Test

Online Practice English Gen Knowledge General Science Intelligence Mathematics

ECAT

Practice Test Chemistry Computer Science English Maths Physics

ECAT FLP 1 ECAT FLP 2

FAST

Entry Test Advanced Maths Analytical Skills Basic Maths English

FAST FLP 1 FAST FLP 2

GIKI

Practice Test English Maths Physics

GIKI FLP 1 GIKI FLP 2

HAT General

HEC Aptitude Test Analytical Reasoning Quantitative Reasoning Verbal Reasoning English

HAT General FLP 1 HAT General FLP 2

HAT Subject

HEC Aptitude Test Agriculture Biotechnology Business Administration Chemical Engineering Chemistry

HAT Subject FLP 1 HAT Subject FLP 2

HEC ETC

USAT A Entry Test USAT COM Entry Test USAT CS Entry Test USAT E Entry Test USAT GS Entry Test USAT M Entry Test

HEC ETC FLP 1 HEC ETC FLP 2

HEC LAT

Practice Test English General Knowledge Islamiat Pak Studies Urdu

HEC LAT FLP 1 HEC LAT FLP 2

IELTS

Practice Test Grammar Reading Vocabulary

IELTS FLP 1 IELTS FLP 2

Intelligence Test

AFNS ISSB PAF Pak Army Age Problem Blood Relations

ISSB Initial Tests

Academic Test Intelligence Test Chemistry English Physics Verbal

ISSB Initial Tests FLP 1 ISSB Initial Tests FLP 2

Join PAF

Academic Test Intelligence Test English Maths Physics Verbal

Join PAF FLP 1 Join PAF FLP 2

KMU CAT

Entry Test Biology Chemistry English Physics

MDCAT

BUMHS Past Papers DUHS Past Papers ETEA Past Papers IBA Past Papers NMDCAT Past Papers NUMS Past Papers PMC Past Papers Practice Test SZABMU Past Papers UHS Past Papers

MDCAT FLP 1 MDCAT FLP 2

NCAT

Practice Test Biology Chemistry English Logical Reasoning Physics

NCAT FLP 1 NCAT FLP 2

NTS

NAT IA Test NAT ICOM Test NAT ICS Test NAT IE Test NAT IGS Test NAT IM Test

NTS FLP 1 NTS FLP 2

NTS GAT General

Aptitude Test Analytical Reasoning Quantitative Reasoning Verbal Reasoning English

NTS GAT General FLP 1 NTS GAT General FLP 2

NTS GAT Subject

Aptitude Test Agriculture Biotechnology Business Administration Chemical Engineering Chemistry

NTS GAT Subject FLP 1 NTS GAT Subject FLP 2

NUST NET

Practice Test English Maths Physics

NUST NET FLP 1 NUST NET FLP 2

OET

Practice Test Grammar Reading Vocabulary

OET FLP 1 OET FLP 2

PU AHS

Entry Test English General Knowledge Islamiat Pak Studies Quantitative Reasoning

PU COM

Entry Test Accounting Commerce Economics English Quantitative Reasoning

PU CSS

Entry Test Computer Science English Maths Physics Quantitative Reasoning

PU E

Entry Test Chemistry English Logical and Analytical Thinking Maths Physics

PU GS

Entry Test English General Science Quantitative Reasoning

PU M

Entry Test Biology Chemistry English Physics Quantitative Reasoning

SZABMU AHS

Entry Test Biology Chemistry English Islamic Studies Pakistan Studies

View All Tests →

Facebook YouTube WhatsApp Instagram

Stay updated with latest news & updates

Aggregate Calculator

Calculate your MDCAT aggregate for MBBS admissions

Calculate Now →