NTS GAT Subject (Software Engineering) FLP 1 Free Quiz

NTS GAT Subject (Software Engineering) – FLP 1

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NTS GAT Subject (Software Engineering) – FLP 1 consists of 100 MCQs covering 1 subjects. You have 120 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Software Engineering 100 MCQs

1. What is agile software development?

A. Iterative, flexible, customer collaboration B. Waterfall C. V-model D. Spiral

2. What does the Agile Manifesto value?

A. Processes over individuals B. Tools over individuals C. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools D. Both

3. What is the product backlog?

A. Product backlog B. Sprint backlog C. Release backlog D. None

4. What is the sprint backlog?

A. Product backlog B. Release backlog C. Sprint backlog D. None

5. What is the sprint retrospective?

A. Planning B. Retrospective C. Review D. Backlog grooming

6. What is the sprint review?

A. Sprint review B. Retrospective C. Daily stand-up D. Backlog grooming

7. What integrates development and operations for continuous delivery?

A. Waterfall B. Scrum C. Kanban D. DevOps

8. What does CI/CD stand for?

A. Construction Integration B. Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery C. Development Integration D. Deployment Integration

9. What ensures code changes are ready for release?

A. Integration B. Deployment C. Continuous Delivery D. Monitoring

10. What architecture enables independent deployment?

A. Monolithic B. Layered C. Microservices D. Client-server

11. What collects logs from multiple sources?

A. Integration B. Deployment C. Log aggregation D. Testing

12. What does the DevOps lifecycle include?

A. Only build B. Plan, code, build, test, release, deploy, operate, monitor C. Only test D. Only deploy

13. What is test-driven development?

A. Code first B. Test after C. Tests before code D. No tests

14. What does velocity measure in Scrum?

A. Work completed in a sprint B. Quality C. Cost D. Scope

15. What is a "class" in OOAD?

A. An object B. A method C. A blueprint for creating objects D. A property

16. What is a "use case" in OOAD?

A. A class B. A use case C. An object D. A method

17. What does a class diagram in OOAD show?

A. Class diagram B. Sequence diagram C. Activity diagram D. State diagram

18. What does a sequence diagram in OOAD show?

A. A class diagram B. An activity diagram C. A sequence diagram D. A state diagram

19. What is "generalization" in OOAD?

A. Aggregation B. Composition C. Generalization D. Association

20. What is a "constructor" in OOAD?

A. A destructor B. A constructor C. A method D. A property

21. What is "multiple inheritance" in OOAD?

A. Multiple inheritance B. Single inheritance C. Encapsulation D. Abstraction

22. What does the "view" represent in MVC?

A. View B. Model C. Controller D. Router

23. What is UML in OOAD?

A. A programming language B. A framework C. A database D. A standard notation for OOAD

24. What does a state diagram in OOAD model?

A. A class diagram B. A state diagram C. A sequence diagram D. An activity diagram

25. What does an activity diagram in OOAD model?

A. Activity diagram B. Class diagram C. Sequence diagram D. State diagram

26. What does a package diagram in OOAD do?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. A package diagram D. A state diagram

27. What is a key component of SCM that tracks changes to source code?

A. Testing B. Design C. Version control D. Deployment

28. What is a baseline in SCM?

A. A branch B. A tag C. A release D. A formally approved version

29. What is a commit in version control?

A. Saving changes B. A branch C. A tag D. A merge

30. What is a branch in version control?

A. A commit B. A tag C. A branch D. A merge

31. What is a check-in in version control?

A. Checkout B. Branch C. Check-in D. Merge

32. What creates a working copy of files?

A. Commit B. Merge C. Tag D. Check-out

33. What automatically builds and tests code changes?

A. Deployment B. Continuous Integration C. Release D. Monitoring

34. What is a release in SCM?

A. Build B. Test C. Release D. Commit

35. What defines the SCM processes for a project?

A. A test plan B. A configuration management plan C. A design document D. A user manual

36. What ensures configuration items are consistent with documentation?

A. Audit B. Build C. Test D. Release

37. What is a specific state of a configuration item?

A. A branch B. A tag C. A version D. A commit

38. What integrates changes by rewriting history?

A. Merging B. Branching C. Tagging D. Rebasing

39. What automates the build, test, and deployment process?

A. A pipeline B. A repository C. A branch D. A tag

40. What is software architecture?

A. Low-level details B. Detailed implementation C. High-level structure D. Code-level design

41. What architecture organizes a system into layers?

A. Monolithic B. Client-server C. Layered D. Peer-to-peer

42. Which pattern mediates between domain and data mapping?

A. Factory B. Observer C. Repository D. Strategy

43. What does the "Liskov Substitution Principle" state?

A. Single Responsibility B. Open-Closed C. Interface Segregation D. Liskov Substitution

44. What is a design pattern?

A. A code snippet B. A library C. A reusable solution D. A framework

45. What architecture structures an application as a collection of loosely coupled services?

A. Monolithic B. Microservices C. Client-server D. Layered

46. What does a sequence diagram in UML show?

A. Sequence diagram B. Class diagram C. Activity diagram D. State diagram

47. What does a deployment diagram in UML show?

A. A sequence diagram B. A deployment diagram C. A class diagram D. A component diagram

48. What is the waterfall model?

A. Agile B. Iterative C. Spiral D. Linear sequential

49. What is the V-model?

A. Agile B. V-model C. Prototype D. Spiral

50. Which phase of the SDLC involves correcting defects and enhancing functionality?

A. Design B. Implementation C. Maintenance D. Testing

51. What does the agile manifesto value?

A. Processes over individuals B. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools C. Tools over individuals D. Neither

52. What methodology focuses on eliminating waste and delivering value quickly?

A. Waterfall B. V-model C. Lean D. Spiral

53. What approach follows a detailed plan with defined stages and deliverables?

A. Plan-driven B. Agile C. Lean D. DevOps

54. What are the main phases of software engineering?

A. Only coding B. Requirements, design, implementation, testing, maintenance C. Only design D. Only testing

55. How does the cost of fixing a defect change as it moves to later stages?

A. Increases exponentially B. Decreases C. Remains the same D. Is unpredictable

56. What does a software product include?

A. Only code B. Code, documentation, and user manuals C. Only documentation D. Only user manuals

57. What is software quality?

A. Meeting requirements and user expectations B. Running fast C. Being cheap D. Being small

58. What is the software lifecycle?

A. Only coding B. Only testing C. Conception to retirement D. Only deployment

59. What do software engineering ethics require?

A. Only profit B. Public interest and confidentiality C. Only speed D. Only innovation

60. What is SWEBOK?

A. A guide to required knowledge B. A programming language C. A development tool D. A final product

61. What is the "big bang" model?

A. Waterfall B. Agile C. Big bang D. Spiral

62. What is a software engineer?

A. Only coding B. All stages of development C. Only testing D. Only design

63. What does a "software process model" define?

A. Defines the order of activities B. A tool C. A language D. A product

64. What does the "software engineering landscape" include?

A. Only tools B. Only methods C. Only processes D. Tools, methods, and processes

65. What does the "software product" include?

A. Executable code, documentation, and configuration data B. Only executable code C. Only documentation D. Only configuration data

66. What are the four types of software maintenance?

A. Only corrective B. Only adaptive C. Corrective, adaptive, perfective, preventive D. Only perfective

67. What type of maintenance prevents future problems?

A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Preventive D. Perfective

68. What does the fourth law of software evolution state?

A. Technical stability B. Organizational stability C. Financial stability D. Market stability

69. What does re-engineering involve?

A. Only reverse engineering B. Only forward engineering C. Only restructuring D. Reverse, restructuring, and forward engineering

70. What affects maintenance effort?

A. Only age B. Only size C. Only complexity D. Age, size, and complexity

71. How does maintenance cost compare to development cost over the lifetime?

A. Less than development B. Exceeds initial development C. Equal to development D. Negligible

72. What does MTTR measure?

A. Reliability B. Maintainability C. Usability D. Portability

73. What is crucial during maintenance to control changes?

A. Testing B. Design C. Coding D. Software configuration management

74. What assesses the effects of a change in maintenance?

A. A design review B. Impact analysis C. A test plan D. A user manual

75. What is a WBS?

A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Schedule C. Budget D. Risk plan

76. What is the "critical path" in project scheduling?

A. The shortest path B. The cheapest path C. The longest path of dependent tasks D. The riskiest path

77. What does risk management include?

A. Identification, analysis, mitigation B. Identification only C. Analysis only D. Mitigation only

78. What is agile project management?

A. Iterative and adaptive B. Sequential and rigid C. V-shaped D. Spiral

79. What does CPI indicate in EVM?

A. Schedule Performance Index B. Cost Performance Index C. Quality Performance Index D. Risk Performance Index

80. What does SPI indicate in EVM?

A. Schedule Performance Index B. Cost Performance Index C. Quality Performance Index D. Risk Performance Index

81. What is PERT used for?

A. A Gantt chart B. A WBS C. A method for scheduling with uncertainty D. A risk plan

82. What is the WBS?

A. A hierarchical decomposition of work B. A schedule C. A budget D. A risk plan

83. Who is a stakeholder in requirements engineering?

A. Only users B. Anyone with a vested interest C. Only developers D. Only managers

84. What is a "user story"?

A. A use case B. A requirement C. A user story D. A test case

85. Which standard defines quality attributes for software?

A. ISO/IEC 25010 B. ISO 9001 C. IEEE 830 D. IEEE 12207

86. What technique ranks requirements based on importance and urgency?

A. Traceability B. Validation C. Elicitation D. Prioritization

87. What is requirements change management?

A. A tool B. A process C. A document D. A meeting

88. What can lead to misinterpretation and defects in requirements?

A. Ambiguity B. Clarity C. Precision D. Completeness

89. What is a requirement?

A. A feature B. A statement of what a system must do or have C. A design D. A test

90. What is the requirements document?

A. Official record of requirements B. A test plan C. A design document D. A user manual

91. What type of testing tests individual components?

A. Integration B. System C. Acceptance D. Unit

92. What type of testing tests the complete system?

A. System B. Unit C. Integration D. Acceptance

93. What type of testing verifies user requirements?

A. Unit B. Integration C. Acceptance D. System

94. What is Beta testing?

A. Internal B. External users C. Developers D. Testers

95. What type of testing tests without internal code knowledge?

A. White-box B. Gray-box C. Black-box D. Unit

96. What testing ensures new changes don't break existing functionality?

A. Unit B. Regression C. Integration D. Acceptance

97. What is smoke testing?

A. Smoke B. Regression C. Unit D. Integration

98. What type of testing identifies vulnerabilities?

A. Performance B. Load C. Security D. Unit

99. What type of testing evaluates user-friendliness?

A. Performance B. Security C. Load D. Usability

100. What does the defect lifecycle include?

A. Only new B. Only fixed C. New, assigned, fixed, closed D. Only closed

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