NTS GAT Subject (Software Engineering) FLP 2 Free Quiz

NTS GAT Subject (Software Engineering) – FLP 2

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NTS GAT Subject (Software Engineering) – FLP 2 consists of 100 MCQs covering 1 subjects. You have 120 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Software Engineering 100 MCQs

1. What does the Agile Manifesto value?

A. Processes over individuals B. Tools over individuals C. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools D. Both

2. What is the sprint backlog?

A. Product backlog B. Release backlog C. Sprint backlog D. None

3. What is the sprint retrospective?

A. Planning B. Retrospective C. Review D. Backlog grooming

4. What is the sprint review?

A. Sprint review B. Retrospective C. Daily stand-up D. Backlog grooming

5. What integrates development and operations for continuous delivery?

A. Waterfall B. Scrum C. Kanban D. DevOps

6. What does CI/CD stand for?

A. Construction Integration B. Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery C. Development Integration D. Deployment Integration

7. What manages containers and their interactions?

A. Integration B. Orchestration C. Deployment D. Testing

8. What does agile estimation often use?

A. Hours B. Story points C. Days D. Months

9. What does velocity measure in Scrum?

A. Work completed in a sprint B. Quality C. Cost D. Scope

10. What is backlog grooming?

A. A meeting B. A retrospective C. Backlog grooming D. A review

11. What is a "class" in OOAD?

A. An object B. A method C. A blueprint for creating objects D. A property

12. What is an "object" in OOAD?

A. A blueprint B. A method C. A property D. An instance of a class

13. What is "encapsulation" in OOAD?

A. Inheritance B. Encapsulation C. Polymorphism D. Abstraction

14. What does a class diagram in OOAD show?

A. Class diagram B. Sequence diagram C. Activity diagram D. State diagram

15. What does "composition" mean in OOAD?

A. Association B. Composition C. Aggregation D. Inheritance

16. What does "aggregation" mean in OOAD?

A. Aggregation B. Composition C. Association D. Inheritance

17. What is a "destructor" in OOAD?

A. Destructor B. Constructor C. Method D. Property

18. What is "overloading" in OOAD?

A. Overriding B. Inheritance C. Overloading D. Encapsulation

19. What is GRASP in OOAD?

A. A design pattern B. A framework C. A set of patterns for assigning responsibilities D. A method

20. What does the "model" represent in MVC?

A. View B. Model C. Controller D. Router

21. What does the "controller" do in MVC?

A. View B. Model C. Controller D. Router

22. What does a package diagram in OOAD do?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. A package diagram D. A state diagram

23. What is a key component of SCM that tracks changes to source code?

A. Testing B. Design C. Version control D. Deployment

24. What is a baseline in SCM?

A. A branch B. A tag C. A release D. A formally approved version

25. What is a branch in version control?

A. A commit B. A tag C. A branch D. A merge

26. What is a tag in version control?

A. A branch B. A commit C. A merge D. A tag

27. What combines changes from different branches?

A. A commit B. A merge C. A tag D. A branch

28. What creates a working copy of files?

A. Commit B. Merge C. Tag D. Check-out

29. What is a widely used distributed version control system?

A. SVN B. Git C. CVS D. Mercurial

30. What automatically builds and tests code changes?

A. Deployment B. Continuous Integration C. Release D. Monitoring

31. What architecture organizes a system into layers?

A. Monolithic B. Client-server C. Layered D. Peer-to-peer

32. Which pattern defines a one-to-many dependency?

A. Singleton B. Observer C. Factory D. Strategy

33. What does the "Open-Closed Principle" state?

A. Single Responsibility B. Liskov Substitution C. Open-Closed D. Interface Segregation

34. What does the "Liskov Substitution Principle" state?

A. Single Responsibility B. Open-Closed C. Interface Segregation D. Liskov Substitution

35. What does a sequence diagram in UML show?

A. Sequence diagram B. Class diagram C. Activity diagram D. State diagram

36. What does a component diagram in UML show?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. An activity diagram D. A component diagram

37. What does a package diagram in UML do?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. A package diagram D. A deployment diagram

38. What is the first phase of the SDLC?

A. Design B. Implementation C. Requirements gathering and analysis D. Testing

39. What is the waterfall model?

A. Agile B. Iterative C. Spiral D. Linear sequential

40. What is the V-model?

A. Agile B. V-model C. Prototype D. Spiral

41. What is the "build and fix" model?

A. Waterfall B. Agile C. Spiral D. Build and fix

42. What does the agile manifesto value?

A. Processes over individuals B. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools C. Tools over individuals D. Neither

43. What model releases software in pieces?

A. Big bang B. Incremental C. Waterfall D. V-model

44. What happens in the "transition" phase of RUP?

A. Coding B. Testing C. Design D. Deployment

45. Which RUP phase focuses on refining requirements and architecture?

A. Inception B. Elaboration C. Construction D. Transition

46. What does the spiral model emphasize?

A. Coding B. Testing C. Design D. Risk analysis

47. What does RAD stand for in SDLC?

A. Waterfall B. RAD C. Spiral D. V-model

48. What is the primary goal of software engineering?

A. Speed of development B. Complexity of code C. High-quality software within time and budget D. Documentation volume

49. What does the "software crisis" refer to?

A. Lack of programming languages B. Too many programmers C. Excessive testing D. Difficulty delivering reliable software

50. Who is a stakeholder in a software project?

A. Only developers B. Anyone with an interest C. Only managers D. Only users

51. What is a software process?

A. A product B. A tool C. A set of activities D. A programming language

52. What is the "waterfall" model?

A. Iterative B. Spiral C. Sequential D. Agile

53. How does IEEE define software engineering?

A. Only development B. Only operation C. Only maintenance D. Development, operation, and maintenance

54. What does a software product include?

A. Only code B. Code, documentation, and user manuals C. Only documentation D. Only user manuals

55. What is the software lifecycle?

A. Only coding B. Only testing C. Conception to retirement D. Only deployment

56. What do software engineering ethics require?

A. Only profit B. Public interest and confidentiality C. Only speed D. Only innovation

57. What does the "bubble theory" suggest about software complexity?

A. Linearly B. Logarithmically C. Exponentially D. Quadratic

58. What does the "separation of concerns" principle advocate?

A. Duplication B. Distinct features with minimal overlap C. Complexity D. Coupling

59. What is SWEBOK?

A. A guide to required knowledge B. A programming language C. A development tool D. A final product

60. What is the "big bang" model?

A. Waterfall B. Agile C. Big bang D. Spiral

61. What is a software engineer?

A. Only coding B. All stages of development C. Only testing D. Only design

62. What is the "V-model" in software engineering?

A. Agile B. Spiral C. V-model D. Prototype

63. What is a "project" in software engineering?

A. A routine task B. A temporary endeavor with defined start and end C. A permanent organization D. A tool

64. What does the "software product" include?

A. Executable code, documentation, and configuration data B. Only executable code C. Only documentation D. Only configuration data

65. What is software maintenance?

A. Modifying after delivery to correct, improve, or adapt B. Only debugging C. Only upgrading D. Only adding features

66. What type of maintenance prevents future problems?

A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Preventive D. Perfective

67. What does the first law of software evolution state?

A. Must evolve to remain useful B. Must remain static C. Must shrink D. Must be rewritten

68. What does the third law of software evolution state?

A. Accelerates B. Is constant C. Unpredictable D. Self-regulating with declining growth

69. What does the fourth law of software evolution state?

A. Technical stability B. Organizational stability C. Financial stability D. Market stability

70. What is a legacy system?

A. A new system B. A test system C. An old system still in use D. A prototype

71. What does MTBF measure?

A. Maintainability B. Usability C. Portability D. Reliability

72. What is crucial during maintenance to control changes?

A. Testing B. Design C. Coding D. Software configuration management

73. What assesses the effects of a change in maintenance?

A. A design review B. Impact analysis C. A test plan D. A user manual

74. What is "scope creep"?

A. Fixed scope B. Uncontrolled changes to scope C. Reduced scope D. Completed scope

75. What contains tasks to be completed in a sprint?

A. Product backlog B. Sprint backlog C. Release backlog D. None

76. Who facilitates the process and removes impediments in Scrum?

A. Product owner B. Development team C. Scrum master D. Stakeholder

77. What does SPI indicate in EVM?

A. Schedule Performance Index B. Cost Performance Index C. Quality Performance Index D. Risk Performance Index

78. What is PERT used for?

A. A Gantt chart B. A WBS C. A method for scheduling with uncertainty D. A risk plan

79. What is a post-mortem review?

A. A planning meeting B. A post-mortem review C. A design review D. A testing review

80. What does agile value over following a plan?

A. Responding to change B. Following a plan C. Sequential development D. Risk-driven development

81. What marks the formal start of the project?

A. A design review B. A testing review C. A project kickoff meeting D. A closure meeting

82. What is a deliverable?

A. A milestone B. A deliverable C. A task D. A risk

83. What is the WBS?

A. A hierarchical decomposition of work B. A schedule C. A budget D. A risk plan

84. What is requirements engineering?

A. Eliciting, analyzing, specifying, and validating B. Only eliciting C. Only specifying D. Only validating

85. What is an SRS?

A. A test plan B. A design document C. A Software Requirements Specification D. A user manual

86. What ensures requirements are correct, complete, and consistent?

A. Elicitation B. Analysis C. Specification D. Validation

87. What maps requirements to design, code, and test cases?

A. A design tool B. A traceability matrix C. A test plan D. A code review

88. What is JAD in requirements engineering?

A. A testing tool B. A design pattern C. A coding standard D. A method for requirements gathering

89. What is a "scenario" in requirements engineering?

A. A test case B. A use case C. A scenario D. A user story

90. What does a "post-condition" in a use case specify?

A. Before B. After C. Optional D. During

91. What does a DFD show?

A. Data flow diagram B. Use case C. Class diagram D. Sequence diagram

92. What is a requirement?

A. A feature B. A statement of what a system must do or have C. A design D. A test

93. What type of testing tests interaction between modules?

A. Unit B. Integration C. System D. Acceptance

94. What is Alpha testing?

A. Users B. External C. Production D. Internal teams

95. What is gray-box testing?

A. White-box only B. Black-box only C. Unit only D. Combines both

96. What testing ensures new changes don't break existing functionality?

A. Unit B. Regression C. Integration D. Acceptance

97. What type of testing checks behavior under expected load?

A. Stress B. Load C. Performance D. Unit

98. What type of testing identifies vulnerabilities?

A. Performance B. Load C. Security D. Unit

99. What is a test plan?

A. A test case B. A test suite C. A bug report D. A test plan

100. Which standard defines quality models for software?

A. ISO 9001 B. IEEE 830 C. ISO 12207 D. ISO 25010

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