NTS GAT Subject (Software Engineering) FLP 3 Free Quiz

NTS GAT Subject (Software Engineering) – FLP 3

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NTS GAT Subject (Software Engineering) – FLP 3 consists of 100 MCQs covering 1 subjects. You have 120 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Software Engineering 100 MCQs

1. What agile framework uses sprints and daily stand-ups?

A. Waterfall B. Lean C. Kanban D. Scrum

2. What integrates development and operations for continuous delivery?

A. Waterfall B. Scrum C. Kanban D. DevOps

3. What does CI/CD stand for?

A. Construction Integration B. Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery C. Development Integration D. Deployment Integration

4. What is Continuous Integration?

A. Continuous Integration B. Continuous Delivery C. Continuous Deployment D. Continuous Monitoring

5. What does DevOps culture emphasize?

A. Collaboration and shared responsibility B. Silos C. Isolation D. Individualism

6. What architecture enables independent deployment?

A. Monolithic B. Layered C. Microservices D. Client-server

7. What packages applications with dependencies for consistent environments?

A. Virtualization B. Emulation C. Simulation D. Containerization

8. What tracks application performance in DevOps?

A. Monitoring B. Testing C. Deployment D. Integration

9. What does the DevOps lifecycle include?

A. Only build B. Plan, code, build, test, release, deploy, operate, monitor C. Only test D. Only deploy

10. What is Object-Oriented Analysis and Design (OOAD)?

A. Using objects and classes for analysis and design B. Only design C. Only analysis D. Only implementation

11. What is "encapsulation" in OOAD?

A. Inheritance B. Encapsulation C. Polymorphism D. Abstraction

12. What is a "use case" in OOAD?

A. A class B. A use case C. An object D. A method

13. What does a sequence diagram in OOAD show?

A. A class diagram B. An activity diagram C. A sequence diagram D. A state diagram

14. What does "association" mean in OOAD?

A. Inheritance B. Composition C. Aggregation D. Association

15. What does "aggregation" mean in OOAD?

A. Aggregation B. Composition C. Association D. Inheritance

16. What is "generalization" in OOAD?

A. Aggregation B. Composition C. Generalization D. Association

17. What is a "constructor" in OOAD?

A. A destructor B. A constructor C. A method D. A property

18. What is "overloading" in OOAD?

A. Overriding B. Inheritance C. Overloading D. Encapsulation

19. What is "overriding" in OOAD?

A. Overloading B. Encapsulation C. Inheritance D. Overriding

20. What is an "interface" in OOAD?

A. A class B. An interface C. An object D. A method

21. What does the "view" represent in MVC?

A. View B. Model C. Controller D. Router

22. What does the "controller" do in MVC?

A. View B. Model C. Controller D. Router

23. What does a package diagram in OOAD do?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. A package diagram D. A state diagram

24. What combines changes from different branches?

A. A commit B. A merge C. A tag D. A branch

25. What is a centralized version control system?

A. Subversion B. Git C. Mercurial D. CVS

26. What is another distributed version control system?

A. SVN B. Git C. Mercurial D. CVS

27. What is a specific state of a configuration item?

A. A branch B. A tag C. A version D. A commit

28. What is a mechanism for code review and merging?

A. Commit B. Pull request C. Tag D. Branch

29. What automates the build, test, and deployment process?

A. A pipeline B. A repository C. A branch D. A tag

30. What is software architecture?

A. Low-level details B. Detailed implementation C. High-level structure D. Code-level design

31. What architecture organizes a system into layers?

A. Monolithic B. Client-server C. Layered D. Peer-to-peer

32. Which pattern provides an interface for creating objects?

A. Singleton B. Observer C. Strategy D. Factory

33. Which pattern enables interchangeable algorithms?

A. Strategy B. Singleton C. Observer D. Factory

34. What are the SOLID principles?

A. A testing framework B. A set of design principles C. A coding standard D. A development tool

35. What does the "Open-Closed Principle" state?

A. Single Responsibility B. Liskov Substitution C. Open-Closed D. Interface Segregation

36. What does the "Interface Segregation Principle" state?

A. Single Responsibility B. Interface Segregation C. Open-Closed D. Liskov Substitution

37. What is UML?

A. A programming language B. A testing tool C. A database D. A standard notation for modeling

38. What does a component diagram in UML show?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. An activity diagram D. A component diagram

39. What does a package diagram in UML do?

A. A sequence diagram B. A class diagram C. A package diagram D. A deployment diagram

40. What is the V-model?

A. Agile B. V-model C. Prototype D. Spiral

41. What model delivers software in increments?

A. Iterative model B. Waterfall C. Big bang D. V-model

42. Which phase of the SDLC involves correcting defects and enhancing functionality?

A. Design B. Implementation C. Maintenance D. Testing

43. What does the agile manifesto value?

A. Processes over individuals B. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools C. Tools over individuals D. Neither

44. What is a "sprint" in Scrum?

A. A meeting B. A release C. A time-boxed period D. A backlog

45. What happens in the "transition" phase of RUP?

A. Coding B. Testing C. Design D. Deployment

46. What does the spiral model emphasize?

A. Coding B. Testing C. Design D. Risk analysis

47. What approach adapts to changes and feedback throughout development?

A. Waterfall B. V-model C. Change-driven D. Spiral

48. What does RAD stand for in SDLC?

A. Waterfall B. RAD C. Spiral D. V-model

49. Who is a stakeholder in a software project?

A. Only developers B. Anyone with an interest C. Only managers D. Only users

50. What is a software process?

A. A product B. A tool C. A set of activities D. A programming language

51. How does the cost of fixing a defect change as it moves to later stages?

A. Increases exponentially B. Decreases C. Remains the same D. Is unpredictable

52. How does IEEE define software engineering?

A. Only development B. Only operation C. Only maintenance D. Development, operation, and maintenance

53. What does a software product include?

A. Only code B. Code, documentation, and user manuals C. Only documentation D. Only user manuals

54. What does the "bubble theory" suggest about software complexity?

A. Linearly B. Logarithmically C. Exponentially D. Quadratic

55. What is SWEBOK?

A. A guide to required knowledge B. A programming language C. A development tool D. A final product

56. What is a software engineer?

A. Only coding B. All stages of development C. Only testing D. Only design

57. Which professional organization publishes standards for software engineering?

A. ISO B. ANSI C. IEEE D. ACM

58. What is software maintenance?

A. Modifying after delivery to correct, improve, or adapt B. Only debugging C. Only upgrading D. Only adding features

59. What type of maintenance adapts to environmental changes?

A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Perfective D. Preventive

60. What is software evolution?

A. Only initial development B. Only bug fixing C. Only upgrading D. Continuous change over time

61. What are Lehman's laws?

A. A testing method B. Laws describing software evolution C. A design pattern D. A coding standard

62. What does the second law of software evolution state?

A. Decreases B. Remains constant C. Increases over time D. Fluctuates

63. What does the third law of software evolution state?

A. Accelerates B. Is constant C. Unpredictable D. Self-regulating with declining growth

64. What does the fourth law of software evolution state?

A. Technical stability B. Organizational stability C. Financial stability D. Market stability

65. What is reverse engineering?

A. Building B. Reverse engineering C. Testing D. Deploying

66. What is software aging?

A. Improvement B. Static C. Degradation over time D. Acceleration

67. What affects maintenance effort?

A. Only age B. Only size C. Only complexity D. Age, size, and complexity

68. What is maintainability?

A. Reliability B. Usability C. Maintainability D. Portability

69. What is crucial during maintenance to control changes?

A. Testing B. Design C. Coding D. Software configuration management

70. Which type of maintenance involves software improvement?

A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Perfective D. Preventive

71. What is the "critical path" in project scheduling?

A. The shortest path B. The cheapest path C. The longest path of dependent tasks D. The riskiest path

72. Who is responsible for planning, executing, and closing the project?

A. The developer B. The project manager C. The tester D. The analyst

73. What is agile project management?

A. Iterative and adaptive B. Sequential and rigid C. V-shaped D. Spiral

74. Who is responsible for prioritizing the backlog in Scrum?

A. Product owner B. Scrum master C. Development team D. Stakeholder

75. Who facilitates the process and removes impediments in Scrum?

A. Product owner B. Development team C. Scrum master D. Stakeholder

76. What does agile value over following a plan?

A. Responding to change B. Following a plan C. Sequential development D. Risk-driven development

77. What marks the formal start of the project?

A. A design review B. A testing review C. A project kickoff meeting D. A closure meeting

78. What is the WBS?

A. A hierarchical decomposition of work B. A schedule C. A budget D. A risk plan

79. Who is a stakeholder in requirements engineering?

A. Only users B. Anyone with a vested interest C. Only developers D. Only managers

80. What ensures requirements are correct, complete, and consistent?

A. Elicitation B. Analysis C. Specification D. Validation

81. What describes a sequence of actions to achieve a goal?

A. A test case B. A use case C. A design pattern D. A data flow

82. What is a "user story"?

A. A use case B. A requirement C. A user story D. A test case

83. What maps requirements to design, code, and test cases?

A. A design tool B. A traceability matrix C. A test plan D. A code review

84. What is the MoSCoW method for prioritizing requirements?

A. MoSCoW method B. Testing method C. Design pattern D. Coding standard

85. What is a "quality attribute"?

A. A functional requirement B. A quality attribute C. A use case D. A user story

86. What is a "scenario" in requirements engineering?

A. A test case B. A use case C. A scenario D. A user story

87. What does a "post-condition" in a use case specify?

A. Before B. After C. Optional D. During

88. What is an ERD?

A. A use case B. A class diagram C. Entity-relationship diagram D. A sequence diagram

89. What is Quality Assurance?

A. Testing only B. Debugging only C. Activities to ensure quality in process D. Deployment only

90. What type of testing tests the complete system?

A. System B. Unit C. Integration D. Acceptance

91. What type of testing verifies user requirements?

A. Unit B. Integration C. Acceptance D. System

92. What is gray-box testing?

A. White-box only B. Black-box only C. Unit only D. Combines both

93. What testing ensures new changes don't break existing functionality?

A. Unit B. Regression C. Integration D. Acceptance

94. What type of testing evaluates speed and responsiveness?

A. Unit B. Integration C. Acceptance D. Performance

95. What type of testing checks behavior under expected load?

A. Stress B. Load C. Performance D. Unit

96. What type of testing evaluates user-friendliness?

A. Performance B. Security C. Load D. Usability

97. What does code coverage measure?

A. Performance B. Security C. Code coverage D. Usability

98. What is a test plan?

A. A test case B. A test suite C. A bug report D. A test plan

99. What is a test case?

A. A test plan B. A test case C. A bug report D. A test suite

100. What does the defect lifecycle include?

A. Only new B. Only fixed C. New, assigned, fixed, closed D. Only closed

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