NTS GAT Subject (Statistics) FLP 3 Free Quiz

NTS GAT Subject (Statistics) – FLP 3

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NTS GAT Subject (Statistics) – FLP 3 consists of 100 MCQs covering 1 subjects. You have 120 minutes to complete it. Start with the easier questions and manage your time wisely. Good luck!

Statistics 100 MCQs

1. What is the average of a dataset called?

A. Median B. Mode C. Mean D. Range

2. What is the difference between the 75th and 25th percentiles?

A. Range B. IQR C. Variance D. Standard deviation

3. What is a graphical representation of a frequency distribution?

A. Histogram B. Bar chart C. Pie chart D. Scatter plot

4. What type of chart displays categorical data?

A. Histogram B. Pie chart C. Bar chart D. Scatter plot

5. What measures the tailedness of a distribution?

A. Skewness B. Variance C. Standard deviation D. Kurtosis

6. What is the coefficient of variation?

A. Standard deviation/Mean B. Variance/Mean C. Range/Mean D. IQR/Mean

7. What measures how many standard deviations a value is from the mean?

A. Percentile B. Z-score C. Quartile D. Decile

8. Which measure of central tendency is sensitive to outliers?

A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Geometric mean

9. Which measure of central tendency is robust to outliers?

A. Mean B. Mode C. Median D. Range

10. What variable is manipulated by the experimenter?

A. Dependent B. Control C. Independent D. Confounding

11. What variable is measured to determine the effect?

A. Manipulated B. Control C. Independent D. Dependent

12. What is the process of placing participants into groups by chance?

A. Random assignment B. Random selection C. Stratified D. Convenience

13. What design has k factors each at two levels?

A. k² B. 2k C. 2^k D. k^2

14. What is the repetition of an experiment to increase precision?

A. Randomization B. Blocking C. Replication D. Confounding

15. What is the assignment of treatments to experimental units by chance?

A. Replication B. Blocking C. Confounding D. Randomization

16. What is the grouping of experimental units to control variability?

A. Randomization B. Blocking C. Replication D. Confounding

17. What is used to analyze experimental data?

A. Regression B. Correlation C. ANOVA D. Chi-square

18. What partitions the total variance into components?

A. Regression B. Correlation C. Chi-square D. ANOVA

19. What ANOVA has two factors?

A. One-way B. Three-way C. Two-way D. Factorial

20. What are used after ANOVA to find which groups differ?

A. Prior B. Planned contrasts C. Post-hoc tests D. Pairwise comparisons

21. What design assigns each subject to only one treatment?

A. Parallel B. Crossover C. Latin square D. Split-plot

22. What is the purpose of replication?

A. Randomization B. Blocking C. Replication D. Confounding

23. What is hypothesis testing?

A. Making decisions based on sample data B. Estimation C. Prediction D. Classification

24. What is the probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis?

A. Power B. Significance level C. P-value D. Confidence level

25. What is a Type I error?

A. Accepting a false null B. Rejecting a true null C. Accepting a true null D. Rejecting a false null

26. Which test is used for small samples with unknown variance?

A. z-test B. Chi-square C. F-test D. t-test

27. Which test is used for categorical data?

A. t-test B. Chi-square C. z-test D. F-test

28. Which test is used to compare variances?

A. F-test B. t-test C. z-test D. Chi-square

29. What is another method for hypothesis testing?

A. Score B. Wald C. Likelihood ratio D. F

30. What is a stepwise correction for multiple comparisons?

A. Holm-Bonferroni B. Tukey C. Scheffe D. Bonferroni

31. What is a measure of effect size for the difference between two means?

A. Eta-squared B. Omega-squared C. Partial eta-squared D. Cohen's d

32. What is a measure of effect size for ANOVA?

A. Cohen's d B. Eta-squared C. Omega-squared D. Partial eta-squared

33. What is another measure of effect size for ANOVA?

A. Omega-squared B. Eta-squared C. Partial eta-squared D. Cohen's d

34. What is a dimensionality reduction technique?

A. Factor analysis B. Cluster analysis C. PCA D. Discriminant analysis

35. What is used to identify underlying latent variables?

A. PCA B. Cluster C. Discriminant D. Factor analysis

36. What is used to group similar observations?

A. PCA B. Cluster analysis C. Factor analysis D. Discriminant analysis

37. What contains the correlations between variables?

A. Covariance matrix B. Correlation matrix C. Variance matrix D. Dispersion matrix

38. What represent the correlation between variables and factors?

A. Eigenvalues B. Factor loadings C. Scores D. Communalities

39. What builds a hierarchy of clusters?

A. K-means B. DBSCAN C. Spectral D. Hierarchical

40. What is another method for determining the number of clusters?

A. Elbow B. Silhouette C. Gap statistic D. Inertia

41. What is a scalar value used in multivariate analysis?

A. Trace B. Rank C. Norm D. Determinant

42. What is a measure of a matrix's size?

A. Trace B. Determinant C. Norm D. Rank

43. What distribution models the number of events in a fixed interval?

A. Binomial B. Poisson C. Normal D. Exponential

44. What is the parameter of the Poisson distribution?

A. λ B. n and p C. μ and σ D. α and β

45. What distribution is continuous with a bell-shaped curve?

A. Binomial B. Poisson C. Normal D. Exponential

46. What are the parameters of the normal distribution?

A. n and p B. λ C. α and β D. μ and σ

47. Which distribution is used in reliability and survival analysis?

A. Weibull B. Gamma C. Exponential D. Normal

48. Which distribution is used in logistic regression?

A. Normal B. t C. Logistic D. F

49. What distribution models the number of failures before a specified number of successes?

A. Binomial B. Negative binomial C. Poisson D. Geometric

50. What theorem states that sums approach a normal distribution?

A. Law of large numbers B. Central limit theorem C. Bayes theorem D. Markov inequality

51. Which generating function is used for discrete distributions?

A. MGF B. PGF C. CGF D. Characteristic function

52. What is a subset of the sample space called?

A. Event B. Outcome C. Probability D. Random variable

53. What condition defines independent events?

A. Mutually exclusive B. Dependent C. Conditional D. Independent

54. What is the addition rule for mutually exclusive events?

A. P(A)P(B) B. P(A) + P(B) C. P(A) - P(B) D. P(A)/P(B)

55. What type of random variable takes uncountable values?

A. Discrete B. Countable C. Finite D. Continuous

56. What function is used for discrete random variables?

A. PDF B. PMF C. CDF D. MGF

57. What is the standard deviation?

A. Square root of variance B. Variance C. Mean D. Covariance

58. What is a normalized measure of linear dependence?

A. Covariance B. Variance C. Standard deviation D. Correlation coefficient

59. What inequality bounds the probability that a non-negative variable exceeds a threshold?

A. Markov B. Chebyshev C. Jensen D. Cauchy-Schwarz

60. What inequality relates convex functions to expectations?

A. Markov B. Chebyshev C. Jensen D. Cauchy-Schwarz

61. What is an ordered arrangement of objects called?

A. Combination B. Permutation C. Selection D. Subset

62. What does the slope measure in simple linear regression?

A. Intercept B. Slope C. Correlation D. R²

63. What are the differences between observed and predicted values?

A. Errors B. Coefficients C. Residuals D. Intercepts

64. What occurs when the variance of residuals is not constant?

A. Autocorrelation B. Heteroskedasticity C. Multicollinearity D. Normality

65. What does a high VIF indicate?

A. Low B. Zero C. Negative D. High

66. Which regression is used when the dependent variable is binary?

A. Linear B. Polynomial C. Logistic D. Multiple

67. Which regression models relationships with higher-degree terms?

A. Linear B. Logistic C. Multiple D. Polynomial

68. What is a method for variable selection?

A. Ridge B. Lasso C. Elastic net D. Stepwise

69. What is used for model selection?

A. BIC B. R² C. Adjusted R² D. AIC

70. What is a study that includes every member of the population?

A. A sample B. A survey C. A census D. An experiment

71. What is the basic form of random sampling?

A. Stratified B. Simple random C. Cluster D. Systematic

72. What sampling method selects individuals based on the researcher's judgment?

A. Random B. Stratified C. Judgment D. Systematic

73. What is the error caused by observing a sample instead of the whole population?

A. Non-sampling error B. Sampling error C. Measurement error D. Coverage error

74. What occurs when respondents provide inaccurate answers?

A. Non-response B. Sampling error C. Response bias D. Measurement error

75. What occurs when selected individuals do not participate?

A. Response bias B. Sampling error C. Measurement error D. Non-response

76. What is the sample size formula for a mean?

A. (z² σ²)/E² B. (z² p q)/E² C. (z σ/E)^2 D. (t σ/E)^2

77. What type of allocation samples proportionally from each stratum?

A. Optimal allocation B. Equal allocation C. Neyman allocation D. Proportional allocation

78. What means that each individual can be selected multiple times?

A. Without replacement B. Stratified C. Cluster D. With replacement

79. What is a resampling method that leaves out one observation at a time?

A. Jackknife B. Bootstrap C. Cross-validation D. Permutation

80. What is a resampling method used to assess model performance?

A. Bootstrap B. Jackknife C. Cross-validation D. Permutation

81. What is a subset of a population?

A. Population B. Parameter C. Statistic D. Sample

82. What is a numerical characteristic of a population?

A. Statistic B. Parameter C. Sample D. Variable

83. What is a single value used to estimate a population parameter?

A. Interval estimate B. Point estimate C. Confidence interval D. Margin of error

84. What is the probability that the confidence interval contains the true parameter?

A. Significance level B. P-value C. Power D. Confidence level

85. What states that the sample mean converges to the population mean?

A. CLT B. Bayes C. Law of large numbers D. Markov

86. What estimator has an expected value equal to the true parameter?

A. Biased B. Unbiased C. Consistent D. Efficient

87. What estimator has the smallest variance among unbiased estimators?

A. Consistent B. Unbiased C. Efficient D. Sufficient

88. What uses prior and likelihood to obtain a posterior distribution?

A. MLE B. Method of moments C. Least squares D. Bayesian

89. What is a sequence of observations ordered by time?

A. Cross-sectional B. Panel C. Time series D. Experimental

90. What are fluctuations that occur over longer periods without fixed frequency?

A. Cyclical B. Seasonality C. Trend D. Irregular

91. What is the correlation between a time series and its lagged values?

A. Cross-correlation B. Partial autocorrelation C. Correlation D. Autocorrelation

92. What measures the direct effect of a lag?

A. PACF B. ACF C. CCF D. AIC

93. What means the statistical properties are constant over time?

A. Non-stationarity B. Seasonality C. Stationarity D. Trend

94. What is used to make a non-stationary series stationary?

A. Transformation B. Differencing C. Smoothing D. Decomposition

95. What model models a time series as a linear function of its past values?

A. MA B. ARIMA C. AR D. SARIMA

96. What model models a time series as a linear function of past forecast errors?

A. AR B. ARIMA C. SARIMA D. MA

97. What is used for model selection in time series analysis?

A. BIC B. AIC C. R² D. Adjusted R²

98. What is used to reduce noise in a time series?

A. Differencing B. Transformation C. Smoothing D. Decomposition

99. What is a relative measure of forecast accuracy?

A. MAE B. MAPE C. RMSE D. MASE

100. What test is used to test for autocorrelation in residuals?

A. Ljung-Box B. Box-Pierce C. Durbin-Watson D. Breusch-Godfrey

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