NUMS MDCAT 2026 Official Paper | NUMS Answer Key Unofficial

NUMS MDCAT 2026 Paper 

150 MCQs | Biology, Chemistry, Physics & English

BIOLOGY

1. Identify the type of glycoprotein, responsible for cell fusion process in HIV cycle?

A. gp 40

B. gp 41

C. gp 120

D. gp 121

2. Which of the following enzymes converts mRNA to complementary DNA (cDNA)?

A. Integrase

B. Reverse transcriptase

C. Protease

D. DNAase

3. Edward Jenner used material removed from the lesion on the hand of milkmaid and vaccinated a boy suffering from which of the following disease?

A. Small pox

B. Chicken pox

C. Cow pox

D. Measles

4. Adenovirus are classified as:

A. Helical capsid

B. Polyhedral capsid

C. Enveloped virus

D. Coupler capsid

5. If a person is doing strenuous exercise, how many ATPs are produced by cellular respiration?

A. 2 ATPs

B. 3 ATPs

C. 4 ATPs

D. 6 ATPs

6. The end product of non-cyclic electron pathway is:

A. ATP and NADPH

B. ATP

C. FADH₂

D. NADPH₂

7. Pyruvic acid is converted into acetaldehyde through which step?

A. Decarboxylation

B. Oxidation

C. Addition of coenzyme A

D. Reduction

8. Choose the correct sequence of electron carrier in respiratory ETC:

A. Coenzyme Q → cytochrome a → cytochrome a₃ → cytochrome b → cytochrome c

B. Coenzyme Q → cytochrome b → cytochrome c → cytochrome a → cytochrome a₃

C. cytochrome a → cytochrome a₃ → cytochrome b → cytochrome c → coenzyme Q

D. Cytochrome b → cytochrome c → coenzyme Q → cytochrome a → cytochrome a₃

9. Pumping movement of protons occur from:

A. Outer membrane and inner membrane

B. Matrix of mitochondria and mitochondrial intermembrane space

C. Inner membrane and cisternae

D. Inner membrane and intermembrane space

10. Net product of Krebs cycle is:

A. 2CO₂, 2ATP, 6NADH, 2FADH₂

B. 4CO₂, 4ATP, 6NADH, 2FADH₂

C. 4CO₂, 2ATP, 6NADH, 2FADH₂

D. CO₂, NADH, FADH₂

11. The electron carrier of mitochondria are found in:

A. Outer mitochondrial membrane

B. Stroma

C. Intermembrane space

D. Inner mitochondrial membrane

12. Which one of the following is a monosaccharide?

A. Sucrose

B. Maltose

C. Lactose

D. Fructose

13. What is percentage of water in brain cells?

A. 20%

B. 70%

C. 85%

D. 30%

14. Proportion of carbohydrate in bacterial and mammalian cell is:

A. 2%, 4%

B. 3%, 4%

C. 4%, 2%

D. 3%, 2%

15. Water has very high heat capacity due to its:

A. High polarity

B. Hydrogen bonding

C. High heat of vaporization

D. Ionization

16. Which one of the following biomolecule is involved in the transport of oxygen?

A. Protein

B. Fats

C. Carbohydrate

D. Nucleic acid

17. Which is the second most abundant organic molecule on earth?

A. Starch

B. Glycogen

C. Cellulose

D. Chitin

18. Glycerol reacts with fatty acids to produce:

A. Phospholipids

B. Terpenes

C. Acyl glycerol

D. Steroids

19. During cell wall formation absence of magnesium results in:

A. Lack of primary cell wall

B. Lack of secondary cell wall

C. Lack of middle lamella

D. No effect on cell wall formation

20. Identify the mismatch in the following:

A. Mitochondria — cellular respiration

B. Endoplasmic reticulum — detoxification

C. Mitochondria — deamination

D. Lysosome — autophagy

21. Which organelle will increase in number, in muscles of athlete?

A. Mitochondria

B. Ribosome

C. Golgi apparatus

D. Lysosome

22. In secretary cells which pathway is followed for the transport of material?

A. Golgi complex → RER → SER

B. RER → Golgi complex → SER

C. RER → SER → Golgi complex

D. SER → Golgi complex → RER

23. How many number of chromosomes are present in onion?

A. 16

B. 8

C. 14

D. 26

24. A cell is treated with a toxin that disrupts Golgi apparatus. Which function is affected?

A. Lipid metabolism

B. Protein modification

C. Chromosome separation during cell division

D. ATP production

25. Where modification and packaging occur in secretary cells?

A. Golgi apparatus

B. Mitochondria

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Nucleus

26. A person continuously faces water imbalance in body due to damage of which part of the brain?

A. Amygdala

B. Thalamus

C. Medulla

D. Hypothalamus

27. Which part of brain is activated to release excess CO₂ from body produced during strenuous exercise?

A. Pons

B. Medulla

C. Cerebellum

D. Cerebrum

28. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is present between:

A. Dura matter & Arachnoid matter

B. Arachnoid matter & Pia matter

C. Dura matter & Pia matter

D. Arachnoid matter & Dura matter

29. What is the role of growth hormone after adolescence?

A. Promotes protein synthesis

B. Inhibits protein synthesis

C. Decreases amino acid uptake

D. Inhibits cell division

30. Which of the following is correct function of calcitonin?

A. Resorption of calcium in bone matrix

B. Inhibits Ca²⁺ absorption by intestine

C. Increase reabsorption by kidneys

D. Increase blood calcium level

31. What is secreted when the levels of blood glucose get too low?

A. Calcitonin

B. Glucagon

C. Insulin

D. Corticoid hormones

32. Pathway followed by nerve impulse during reflex action is:

A. Interneuron → synapse → dendrites → cell body of motor neuron

B. Interneuron → dendrite → synapse → cell body of motor neuron

C. Interneuron → synapse → cell body of neuron

D. Interneuron → dendrites → cell body of neuron

33. Identify the animals having both mammalian and reptilian features:

A. Mice

B. Spiny ant eater

C. Opossum

D. Bat

34. An enzyme which requires a cofactor to become active is called:

A. Apoenzyme

B. Holoenzyme

C. Prosthetic group

D. Co-enzyme

35. Which statement best describes competitive inhibitors?

A. Denature enzyme permanently

B. Used as drugs

C. Prevent enzyme product complex

D. Alter the shape of enzymes

36. Due to snake bite a person’s heart stops working. Which type of venom will be found in his body?

A. Hemotoxic

B. Hepatotoxic

C. Neurotoxic

D. Cytotoxic

37. Identify the enzyme which shows absolute specificity:

A. Carbonic anhydrase

B. Hexokinase

C. Urease

D. Isomerase

38. Some industries are continuously polluting aquatic bodies. This can affect metabolic pathway of plants by changing their pH.

A. More alkaline

B. More acidic

C. Less acidic

D. Less alkaline

39. All flowering plants are thought to be evolved from a common ancestor on the basis of which homologous structures?

A. Stamen, carpel, sepals, petals

B. Stamen, carpel, thalamus, sepals

C. Stamen, carpel, thalamus, sepals, petals, stalk

D. Stamen, carpel, sepals, thalamus

40. Barriers which affect geographical distribution of life are:

A. Physical and chemical

B. Environmental & Physical

C. Ecological & chemical

D. Physical, Ecological or Environmental

41. Why are some genes called pseudoautosomal, even though they are present on sex chromosome?

A. They are present on X chromosomes only

B. They are present on Y chromosomes only

C. They are present on both X and Y chromosomes

D. They are absent from both X and Y chromosomes

42. As a result of natural disaster, few species continue to survive due to their characteristics. This results in:

A. Increase in favorable alleles

B. Decrease in favorable alleles

C. Increase in unfavorable alleles

D. Decrease in unfavorable alleles

43. Which of these correctly order the structure of arteries?

A. Connective tissues → Smooth muscle → Elastic tissue → Endothelium

B. Connective tissues → Smooth muscle → Endothelium → Elastic tissue

C. Elastic tissue → Smooth muscle → Connective tissue → Endothelium

D. Smooth muscle → Connective tissues → Elastic tissue → Endothelium

44. Epidermis is outer most layer of the skin, which is composed of:

A. Loosely packed cells

B. Tightly packed cells

C. Scattered cells

D. Ciliated cells

45. Which type of muscle controls the movement of substance through hollow organs?

A. Cardiac muscle

B. Smooth muscles

C. Sphincter muscles

D. Skeleton muscle

46. Smallest contractile unit of muscle fibers present between two lines is known as:

A. Sarcoplasm

B. Sarcolemma

C. Sarcomere

D. Sarcodina

47. Which ion is responsible for the attachment of tropomyosin with the head of myosin during cross bridge?

A. K⁺ ions

B. Ca²⁺ ions

C. Na⁺ ions

D. Mg²⁺

48. During muscle contraction which type of events occurs respectively?

A. I band shorten → H-zone appears

B. I band strengthen → H-zone disappears

C. I band shorten → H-zone disappears

D. I band strengthen → H-zone appears

49. Which one of the following organism is responsible for transforming nitrogen gas into ammonium?

A. Cyanobacterium

B. Nitrobacteria

C. Rhizobium

D. Nitrosomonas

50. Identify one of the following chemo-therapeutic agent used to control bacterial infections:

A. Nitrofurans

B. Hydrogen peroxide

C. Sodium hypochlorite

D. Potassium sorbate

51. Why male gonads are present outside the body?

A. They need temperature equal to human body

B. They need 2°C temperature higher than human body

C. They need 2°C temperature less than human body

D. They need environmental condition for sperm production

52. Which set of events will occur if fusion of gametes does NOT take place?

A. Corpus luteum degenerate, LH increase, progesterone increase

B. Corpus luteum degenerate, LH decline, progesterone increase

C. Corpus luteum degenerate, LH increase, progesterone decline

D. Corpus luteum degenerate, LH decline, progesterone decline

53. Which of the following is correct order of the transport of bicarbonate from blood to lungs?

A. Capillaries → Alveoli → Red blood cells

B. Red blood cells → Alveoli → Capillaries

C. Alveoli → Capillaries → Red blood cells

D. Red blood cells → Capillaries → Alveoli

54. Which set of digestive enzymes play a vital role in breakdown of protein?

A. Pepsin, maltase, erepsin

B. Pepsin, trypsin, amylase

C. Pepsin, trypsin, erepsin

D. Pepsin, amylase, lipase

55. Gene of one allele which inhibits the effect of other allele at different locus is called as:

A. Hypostatic gene

B. Hylostatic gene

C. Polystatic gene

D. Epistatic gene

CHEMISTRY

56. Which of the following is equal to 1 mole of Na⁺?

A. 6.02 × 10²³ atoms

B. 6.02 × 10²³ ions

C. 6.02 × 10²³ atoms

D. 6.02 × 10²¹ ions

57. The e/m value for positive rays depends upon nature of gas used because:

A. Number of electrons

B. Number of neutrons

C. Number of protons

D. Number of electrons and protons

58. Select the correct increasing energy order of orbitals?

A. 4s < 3d < 4p < 5s

B. 3d > 4s < 4p < 5s

C. 3d > 4s > 5s > 4p

D. 4s > 3d > 4p > 5s

59. Which of the following expressions represent Boyle's law?

A. P₁/V₁ = P₂/V₂

B. P₁/V₁ ≠ P₂/V₂

C. P₁V₁ ≠ P₂V₂

D. P₁V₁ = P₂V₂

60. Which Celsius temperature represents zero kelvin or absolute zero?

A. 0°C

B. +273.16°C

C. −273.16°C

D. 25°C

61. An egg takes 5 minutes to boil at sea level while 10 minutes at Murree hills because of:

A. Low vapour pressure

B. High vapour pressure

C. High external pressure

D. Low external pressure

62. Fluorine is a gas and iodine is a solid at room temperature due to:

A. High electronegativity

B. Low electronegativity

C. High polarizability

D. Low polarizability

63. Ionic solids are bad conductors of heat and electricity because:

A. They have strong covalent bonds

B. They have strong intermolecular forces

C. Ions can only vibrate about their fixed position

D. Ions are free to move

64. If 10% urea is present in aqueous solution of sodium chloride. What will be the shape of crystals obtained?

A. Octahedral

B. Triclinic

C. Cubic

D. Hexagonal

65. Kc = Kp when Δn is equal to:

A. Zero

B. +1

C. −1

D. −2

66. The pH of human blood is maintained at:

A. 5.37

B. 5.73

C. 7.53

D. 7.35

67. The unit of rate constant is same as the rate of reaction in:

A. Third order reaction

B. Second order reaction

C. First order reaction

D. Zero order reaction

68. Which of the following represents Arrhenius constant expression?

A. K = Ae^(Ea/RT)

B. K = Ae^(−Ea/RT)

C. K = Ae^(RT/Ea)

D. K = e^(−Ea/RT)

69. Which expression is according to the Hess's law?

A. ΣΔH (cycle) = 0

B. ΣΔH = 2

C. ΣΔH (cycle) = 3

D. ΣΔH (cycle) = −1

70. Which of the following represents the expression of internal energy?

A. ΔE = q + t

B. ΔE = q + w

C. ΔE = q + v

D. ΔE = q + p

71. Which is added in the product side to balance equation? H₂SO₃ + H₂O → HSO₄⁻

A. 1e⁻, H⁺

B. 2e⁻, 3H⁺

C. 5e⁻

D. 3e⁻

72. The oxidation state of Mn in KMnO₄ is:

A. +6

B. +3

C. +7

D. +4

73. When atoms approaches each other for chemical bond formation, it leads to:

A. Decrease in energy

B. Increase in energy

C. Energy remains same

D. Increase in bond length

74. The number of bonds in oxygen molecules are:

A. Two σ bond

B. Two σ one π bond

C. One σ one π bond

D. Two π one σ

75. The decreasing order of ionization energy is:

A. O < S < N

B. F > Cl > Br

C. Br < Cl < F

D. C < N < B

76. The size of Ar is larger than Cl due to:

A. Stearic hindrance

B. Inter-electronic repulsion

C. High ionization energy

D. High shielding effect

77. Which element is lighter than water?

A. Cs

B. Rb

C. Fe

D. K

78. Which of the following decreases as we move from top to bottom in Group IA or IIA?

A. Metallic bond strength

B. Electro-positivity

C. Reactivity

D. Ionic radii

79. Which one of the following is the correct order of electronegativity of group IIA elements?

A. Be < Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba

B. Be < Ca < Mg < Ba < Sr

C. Ba < Sr < Ca < Mg < Be

D. Be < Sr > Mg < Ca < Ba

80. Which one of the following is heteroatom?

A. Pyrrole

B. Naphthalene

C. Anthracene

D. Cyclohexene

81. The function group of acid amide is:

A. –C(=O)–OH

B. –C(=O)–NH

C. –C(=O)–NH₂

D. –C(=NH)–OH

82. When an alcohol is heated at 170°C in the presence of sulphuric acid, a water molecule is eliminated resulting in the formation of:

A. Alkyl halide

B. Alkane

C. Alkene

D. Alkyne

83. The IUPAC name of following compound is: CH₃–CH=CH–(CH₂)₂–CH₃

A. Hex-2-ene

B. Hept-2-ene

C. Hex-4-ene

D. Hept-4-ene

84. Most of the reactions shown by alkenes are:

A. Nucleophilic substitution

B. Nucleophilic addition

C. Electrophilic substitution

D. Addition reactions

85. What are the conditions required for polymerization of ethene to polyethene?

A. 400°C and 1000 atm

B. 100°C and 400 atm

C. 450°C and 1000 atm

D. 450°C and 200 atm

86. The reactivity order of alkyl halide is:

A. R–F > R–Cl > R–Br > R–I

B. R–Cl > R–Br > R–I > R–F

C. R–Br > R–I > R–F > R–Cl

D. R–I > R–Br > R–Cl > R–F

87. (CH₃)₃C–OH is an example of:

A. Primary alcohol

B. Secondary alcohol

C. Tertiary alcohol

D. Iso butyl alcohol

88. Which one of the following is used in the manufacturing of plastics?

A. Methanol

B. Ethanol

C. Propanol

D. Phenol

89. Which of the following will give formic acid as one of the product of oxidation?

A. Butanone

B. Propanone

C. Pentanone

D. Hexanone

90. What will be the IUPAC name of the given compound? (structure shown in paper)

A. 1-Ethyl-2-methyl pentanal

B. 2-Ethyl-3-methyl pentanal

C. 3-Methyl-4-ethyl pentanal

D. 3-Methyl pentanal

91. What is the common name of following compound? (benzene ring with two adjacent –COOH groups)

A. Benzoic acid

B. Malonic acid

C. Phthalic acid

D. Picric acid

92. Acetic anhydride can be prepared when two molecules of carboxylic acids are dehydrated on heating strongly in the presence of:

A. V₂O₅

B. P₂O₅

C. H₂SO₄

D. HgSO₄

93. Carboxylic acid react with metals to form salt with the evolution of which gas?

A. CO₂

B. CO

C. H₂

D. CH₄

94. Which protein helps in muscles contractions and relaxation in our body?

A. Myosin

B. Albumin

C. Globulin

D. Collagen

95. Various polypeptide chains in haemoglobin remain intact due to:

A. Chemical bonds

B. London dispersion forces

C. Salt bridges

D. Peptide bonds

PHYSICS

96. The vertical height and horizontal range of projectiles are equal at angle:

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 76°

D. 90°

97. Range of projectile is maximum at:

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 90°

98. A ball is thrown vertically upward, the ball descends towards earth after achieving a certain height because:

A. Earth is exerting more gravitational force than ball

B. The ball is exerting more gravitational force than earth

C. The earth possesses more inertia

D. The ball possesses more inertia

99. A bomb is exploded into two fragments A and B moving in opposite direction. They conserve:

A. Kinetic Energy

B. Potential Energy

C. Momentum

D. Both kinetic energy and potential energy

100. Work done is negative, when the angle between F and S is:

A. 0°

B. 60°

C. 90°

D. 180°

101. When the speed of the car is doubled, what will be its kinetic energy?

A. Remains same

B. Doubled

C. Three times

D. Four times

102. The work efficiency of a dry cell battery is:

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 50%

D. 90%

103. When distance r increases than gravitational P.E becomes:

A. Less positive

B. More negative

C. Less negative

D. More positive

104. How many Joules are there in 3 KWh?

A. 108 MJ

B. 10.8 MJ

C. 1.08 MJ

D. 0.108 MJ

105. A car moving on a more steeply banked curves will require:

A. Large speed and large radii

B. Large speed and small radii

C. Small speed and large radii

D. Small speed and small radii

106. In a body angular acceleration is produced by:

A. Net force

B. Power

C. Pressure

D. Net torque

107. The analogue of force in circular / angular motion is:

A. Momentum

B. Torque

C. Angular acceleration

D. Angular velocity

108. 1° is equals to:

A. π/90 radians

B. π/180 radians

C. π radians

D. 2π radians

109. In uniform circular motion, the angle between centripetal acceleration and linear velocity of a particle is:

A. π/2

B. π

C. 2π

D. Zero

110. The distance between two consecutive nodes are:

A. λ

B. λ/2

C. 2λ

D. λ/4

111. If a sound wave moves from air to water, there is NO change in:

A. Velocity

B. Frequency

C. Wavelength

D. Temperature

112. The star moving closer to earth will experience:

A. Blue shift

B. Red shift

C. Orange shift

D. Yellow shift

113. If the amplitude of a wave is doubled, its intensity is:

A. Doubled

B. Halved

C. Quadrupled

D. One quarter

114. Which of the following is an example of first law of thermodynamics?

A. Thunderstorm

B. Metabolism

C. Rusting

D. Earthquake

115. Thermos flask containing tea as a system is shaken vigorously then there will be:

A. Increase in temperature only

B. Increase in kinetic energy only

C. Increase in temperature & kinetic energy

D. No change in temperature & kinetic energy

116. Difference between molar specific heat at constant pressure and molar specific heat at constant volume is equal to:

A. Boltzmann constant

B. Universal gas constant

C. Plank’s constant

D. Rydberg constant

117. Coulomb's law of electrostatic induction is valid for:

A. Point charges

B. Stationary charges

C. Stationary & point charges

D. Accelerated point charges

118. If the positive charge is placed in a uniform electric field, the charge will move in the:

A. Opposite direction of electric field

B. Direction of electric field

C. Perpendicular to the direction of electric field

D. Remains at rest

119. For each element, value of half-life is:

A. Variable

B. Constant

C. Decrease

D. Increase

120. The unit of RC is:

A. Ohm

B. Farad

C. Second

D. Ohm/Farad

121. The fractional change in resistance per kelvin is known as the temperature coefficient of:

A. Conductance

B. Resistance

C. Inductance

D. Conductivity

122. Which of the following is an example of Ohmic in nature?

A. Thermistor

B. Filament lamp

C. Semiconductor

D. Conductor

123. The material whose resistance decreases with increase in temperature have:

A. Positive temperature coefficient

B. Negative temperature coefficient

C. Thermal coefficient

D. Coefficient of friction

124. The number of magnetic field lines passing through unit area is called:

A. Magnetic field

B. Magnetic flux

C. Magnetic flux density

D. Magnetization

125. The magnetic force of a charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic fields depends on:

A. Velocity, area & magnetic field

B. Charge, current & velocity

C. Magnetic field, voltage & charge

D. Velocity, magnetic field & charge

126. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle is maximum when the angle between v and B is:

A. 0°

B. 45°

C. 90°

D. 180°

127. Generator effect is practical application of:

A. Static e.m.f.

B. Dynamic e.m.f.

C. Mutual induction

D. Back emf

128. If number of turns of coil becomes double, the induced emf will be:

A. Double

B. Reduced to half

C. Remain same

D. Quadruple

129. Electromagnetic sensor in seismograph converts ground movement into:

A. Magnetic signals

B. Electric signals

C. Audio signals

D. Vibratory signals

130. A full wave bridge rectifier consists of:

A. No diode

B. Four diodes

C. Two diodes

D. One diode

131. An electrical component used to convert AC into DC is:

A. Transistor

B. Capacitor

C. Diode

D. Resistor

132. A photon has:

A. Zero mass, zero momentum

B. Finite mass, finite momentum

C. Zero mass, finite momentum

D. Finite mass, zero momentum

133. Photo-conductive devices like photo cells and solar cells are application of:

A. Photo electric effect

B. Compton's effect

C. Pair production

D. Interference of light

134. Which of the following particle has smaller De Broglie wave length?

A. Gamma particle

B. Beta particle

C. Proton

D. Alpha particle

135. In the spectrum of hydrogen atom which of the following series has smallest wavelength?

A. Paschen series

B. Balmer series

C. Lyman series

D. Brackett series

ENGLISH

136. The antonym for the word clarity is:

A. Upright

B. Understanding

C. Vagueness

D. Clear

137. Yasir Ameen could not pay the rent; accordingly, he was evicted. Meaning of the underlined word is:

A. Expelled from the house

B. Investigated

C. Threatened

D. Rewarded

138. Fill in the blank with the correct verb. The baby ______ all morning.

A. Is crying

B. Has been crying

C. Cry

D. Have been crying

139. By 2040, robots ______ many of the jobs that people do today.

A. Will be taking over

B. Will take over

C. Will have taken over

D. Has taken over

140. “Each time one of us touches the soil, we feel a sense of personal renewal.” The type of sentence is:

A. Compound

B. Complex

C. Compound Complex

D. Simple

141. Identify the correctly punctuated sentence.

A. Milton the great English Poet, was blind

B. Milton, the great English poet, was blind

C. Milton the great English poet was, blind

D. Milton the great, English poet was blind

142. Identify the correct sentence.

A. A Sindhi woman is going through a bazaar with bear feet

B. A Sindhi women are going through a bazaar with bare feet

C. A Sindhi woman is going through a bazaar with bare feet

D. A Sindhi woman is going through a bazaar with bare foot

143. Complete the sentence using correct preposition. The public are cautioned ______ pick pockets.

A. Against

B. Of

C. For

D. With

144. Select the correct pair. Lack of sleep can ______ your health and have a bad ______ on your grades.

A. Affect / affect

B. Effect / effect

C. Effect / affect

D. Affect / effect

145. Select the correct sentence in style.

A. Having finished his exercise, the books were put away.

B. Having finishing his exercise, the books were put away

C. Having finishing his exercise, he put his books away

D. Having finished his exercise, he put away his books.

146. Select the statement that best describes the given sentence. “He is anything but a liar.”

A. He is a liar.

B. He can be anything but not a liar

C. He is not a good character and liar as well

D. He is good character but a liar to some extent

147. Select the best option to describe the given sentence. “Unless you apologise I shall punish you.”

A. Without apology, you will be forgiven

B. With apology, you will be punished

C. There is no need of apology

D. Without apology you will be punished

148. “From the attitude it is clear that he wants to pay off his old scores.” The sentence means that he wants to:

A. Improve his marks

B. Pay off his debt

C. Help needy people

D. Have his revenge

149. A person needs to reflect profoundly on his/her life. The underlined word means:

A. Deeply

B. Superficially

C. Shallow

D. Mirroring

150. Due to his non-serious attitude, Ali took the advice with a pinch of salt. It means:

A. Took it seriously

B. Did not take it seriously

C. Accept it candidly

D. Implemented it happily